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Flashcards in Senior Questions Deck (150):
1

Which breed has had the most influence in the development of light horse breeds in America?

Thoroughbred (also accept Arabian since the TB was developed primarily from the Arabian)
Evans p. 17

2

What is the primary difference between a horse with a roan coat and a horse with a gray coat?

A roan horse’s coat does not change over time (proportion of white hairs is the same at birth and each successive coat); gray will become lighter (more white hairs with each successive coat)
Evans p. 81

3

What term refers to a mature female horse that has never been bred?

Maiden mare DET p. 174

4

What is the common term for Equine Periodic Opthalmia?

Moon Blindness Evans p. 521

5

Sun-cured hay is a good source of what vitamin?

Vitamin D Evans p. 260

6

What type of bit is considered to be the most severe western curb bit?

Spade bit HIH 1100-10

7

What is the slang term for the medication phenylbutazone?

Bute DET p. 43

8

What is the purpose of adding stickers or “mud calks” to the heel of a racing plate?

To increase traction on a muddy race track (accept to increase traction) Evans p. 735

9

What is the recommendation for the minimum height for a perimeter fence and
the minimum height for a fence used to divide pastures?

5 feet (60 inches) (perimeter); 4 ½ feet (54 inches) (divider) Evans p. 760

10

What is the common term for the ossification of the lateral cartilages of the distal phalanx?

Sidebones

11

Identify four advantages of having a “Dutch” or open top exterior door for each horse stall.

Improves stable ventilation (better air quality), More light, Permits horse to put head out into fresh
air, Decreases respiratory diseases, Helps alleviate boredom/stable vices, Provides a fire exit
Lewis p. 181

12

What is the common term for the external parasite Stomoxys calcitrans?

Stable fly HIH 415-1

13

In a ranch operation, what is the purpose of a boundary rider?

To ride the fences of the property and repair any problems DET p. 36

14

What is the name for the winged horse of Greek mythology?

Pegasus DET p. 207

15

Giving the horse more selenium, vitamin E and reducing grain intake on days the horse is idle are nutritional
preventatives for what metabolic disorder in horses?

Tying up (also accept Recurrent Exertional rhabdomyolysis, Monday morning sickness, Azoturia)
Evans p. 306

16

What is the common term for the 1st premolar teeth?

Wolf teeth

17

In addition to a hoof pick, what are the three basic tools used by a farrier when trimming the feet?

Hoof knife (farrier’s knife), rasp and hoof nippers (nippers) Evans p. 722, 725

18

Poisonous plants that are classified as hepatotoxic primarily affect which organ?

Liver Lewis p. 309

19

You are the veterinarian treating a horse with West Nile Encephalitis. The horse’s owner is
concerned and wants to know why you are not treating the horse with an antibiotic. Explain why.

West Nile is caused by a virus and antibiotics are used to treat bacterial diseases
HIH 665-2; DET p. 12

20

What type of internal parasite causes “summer sores”?

Stomach worm (also accept Habronema) Lewis p. 158

21

What term refers to a wild Australian horse?

Brumby DET p. 41

22

What is the proper name for the joint located between the femur and the tibia?

A: Stifle
S: EVANS:91

23

What is the proper name (genus and species) of the most dangerous of the large
strongyles?

A: Strongylus vulgaris
S: HIH:430-2

24

What is the name for the steel arm fitted to the collar of a harness?

A: Hames
S: NEWHOR:129

25

A double dilution of chestnut results in what color?

A: Cremello
S: GRIFFITHS:42

26

Which 3 breeds were combined to develop the Paso Fino breed?

A: Barb, Andalusian, Spanish Jennet
S: AYHC: 161-1

27

What are the names of the two phases of the stride cycle for each limb during a stride?

A: Stance phase and swing phase
S: EVANS:169

28

At what age does Galvaynes groove appear?

A: 10-12 years

29

What term is used to describe a horse’s tail that has been cut straight across at or near the hocks?

A: Bang tailed

30

What is the common name of the bacterial disease of younger horses that affects the salivary glands and lymph nodes in the submandibular and retropharyngeal area?

A: Strangles (equine distemper, shipping fever)
S: EVANS:96

31

White markings covering the area from the coronet band to the area below the fetlock are called what?

A: Pastern
S: EVANS: 83, HIH: 140-2

32

Vitamins can be classified in two different ways, depending on their solubility within the body. What are the fat soluble vitamins?

A: A, D, E, K
S: GRIFFITHS:122

33

Name three types of English saddles.

A: Hunt seat, saddle seat, dressage

34

Horses are capable of producing a wide variety of vocalizations that mean different things. What does a nicker indicate?

A: A greeting
S: LEWIS:153

35

What is the term for too much angle in the hock?

A: Sickle hocked
S: 174:84

36

What is the difference between an abrasion and a laceration?

A: An abrasion is a superficial scratch that does not penetrate the full thickness of the skin; lacerations penetrate the full thickness of the skin resulting in cutting
S: EVANS:602

37

What is the first step in removing a traditionally nailed keg shoe?

A: Cut the clinches
S: AYHC:610-1

38

How many pounds of manure does a 1,000 pound horse produce per day?

A: 45-50 pounds
S: HIH: 360-2

39

Standardbred horses were first registered based on their performance against a standard time at what distance?

A: One mile
S: EVANS:28

40

In what class should a horse be penalized for reversing towards the rail?

A: Western Pleasure
S: 179:47

41

What is the normal gestation length of a mare?

A: 11 months, or 335-342 days
S: 185:45

42

Describe speedy-cutting.

A: Striking the inside hind pastern by the hoof of the foreleg on the same side
S: 184:4

43

What is the difference between tendons and ligaments?

A: Tendons attach muscle to bone, ligaments attach bone to bone
S: EVANS:90

44

In relation to genetics, what is the term for the outward appearance of an animal?

A: Phenotype
S: EVANS:786

45

What is an avulsion?

A: Tearing of the skin that causes a loose flap
S: EVANS:609

46

Identify the four components of the topline.

A: Withers, back, loin (or coupling), croup
S: AYHC:223-2

47

What is formed when cartilage or fibrous tissue is ossified?

A: Bone
S: LEWIS:398

48

Name three breeds of easy gaited horses.

A: Tennessee walking horse, Missouri fox trotter, rocky mountain horse, paso fino, Peruvian paso
S: 174:66

49

What is the most important conformational factor in the balance of a horse?

A: Shoulder
S: HIH: 220-6

50

Which parasite lives primarily in the horse’s colon and rectum and deposits eggs around the rectum, causing local irritation?

A: Pinworms (Oxyuris equi)
S: LEWIS:158

51

What do the letters DNA stand for in the context of genetics?

A: Deoxyribonucleic acid
S: GRIFFITHS:87

52

What type of reins are used with a Bosal?

A: Mecate
S: 174:26

53

What is enteritis?

A: Inflammation of the intestine
S: EVANS:509

54

What term refers to refinement in the horse, as expressed in the texture of hair, hide, bones, and joints?

A: Quality
S: EVANS:139

55

The Appaloosa was chosen by what group of Native Americans for their endurance and surefootedness?

A: Nez Pierce
S: EVANS:32

56

When putting together a team hitch, on which side should the smaller of the two horses be placed?

A: Left side
S: 181:20

57

Explain what the term “auscultation” means.

A: Listening to the body sounds, usually with a stethoscope
S: 188:33

58

What should you do 30 to 60 days prior to a mare’s foaling date so as to ensure optimal transfer of antibodies to the foal?

A: Vaccinate the mare
S: 185:45

59

What three natural gaits have a time between each stride where all four feet are suspended off the ground?

A: Pace, gallop, canter
S: 174:91-93, LEWIS:390

60

In horse racing, what term describes the distance of 40 rods, 220 yards or 1/8 of a mile?

A: 1 Furlong
S: EVANS:20

61

Name the bacterial infection of the skin that is also considered an external parasite.

A: Rain rot
S: 174:140

62

What is an ideal body condition score?

A: Five
S: AYHC:425

63

What are the three classifications of muscle?

A: Smooth, cardiac, skeletal
S: AYHC INT:225-2 L

64

Peter McCue is credited as the most popular sire in the development of what American breed?

A: Quarter horse
S: EVANS:25

65

What is the most commonly used animal-source protein supplement fed to horses?

A: Dehydrated skim milk
S: LEWIS:88

66

What is the key difference between the harnesses of trotters and pacers?

A: Pacers have hobbles
S: 184:37

67

What is a general term given to cracks in the hoof?

A: Sandcracks
S: Evans:166

68

What method is used to determine where the handler should stand in showmanship?

A: Quadrant method
S: 174:48

69

What is the common term for pulmonary emphysema?

A: Heaves
S: 174:101

70

What are the normal pulse and respiration rates of the horse?

A: Pulse: 45-60 beats per minute; Respiration: 8-15 breaths per minute
S: HIH:425-1

71

What breed is being described: The head is refined with small ears, the neck is long with
considerable arch, and the most common use for the breed is in three or five gaited showing, where they are known as the “Peacocks of the horse world”?

A: American Saddlebred
S: EVANS:38, HIH:156-1

72

What is mastication?

A: Chewing of food

73

When is stringhalt most obvious

A: When backing
S: EVANS:127

74

In Combined Immunodeficiency, a deficiency of B and T lymphocytes leads to an
underdeveloped immune system, and horses with this defect often die within five months of
birth when passive immunity is lost. What breed is most often affected by combined
immunodeficiency?

A: Arabians
S: EVANS:429

75

How many toes did Eohippus have on each leg?

A: 4 toes on each front; 3 on each hind
S: GRIFFITHS:9

76

In reference to tack, what is a bucking roll?

A: An extra set of swells fastened on to the saddle horn to protect a rider when riding bucking horses
S: NEWHOR:42

77

Lachrymal glands lubricate what structure?

A: The eye
S: EVANS:90

78

What is the primary function of the horse’s largest organ?

A: Protection (the largest organ is the skin)
S: HIH:451-452

79

Thrush is a black, strong smelling infection of the hoof that causes deterioration of the frog. What is it caused by?

A: Anaerobic bacteria
S: AYHC:334-1

80

What is the key difference between a dun and buckskin?

A: Dun horses have a dorsal stripe ad can also have stripes on the legs; buckskins do not
S: GRIFFITHS:42

81

What is the term for triangular mark that appears on the horse’s incisors at 20 years of age?

A: Dental Star
S: GRIFFITHS:218

82

What is the most common symptom of black walnut poisoning?

A: Founder (laminitis)
S: LEWIS:223

83

What is another name for the sheath of the penis?

A: Prepuce
S: KAINER:4

84

When should timothy grass hay be harvested?

A: No later than the boot stage (when the head begins to show through the sheath)
S: LEWIS:68

85

The horse’s foot will continue to increase in size until what age?

A: 5-6 years
S: HIH:525-4

86

What is the first structure which light entering the horse’s eye would pass through?

A: Cornea
S: EVANS:123, DET:69

87

What hormone is secreted by the corpus luteum and is responsible for alveolar
development, diestrus, and maintaining pregnancy?

A: Progesterone
S: EVANS:125

88

Identify two faults that can be helped with corrective trimming in foals.

A: Splayed hooves, pigeon toes, upright pasterns
S: 174:109

89

What is the normal resting heart rate of the mature horse?

A: 35 beats per minute
S: EVANS:111

90

What are the two major functions of the digestive tract?

A: Digestion and absorption
S: GRIFFITHS:108

91

Horse chestnut toxicity can cause depression, incoordination, twitching, inflammation of
mucus membranes, colic, or paralysis. Name two types of horse chestnuts that have been found to be toxic to horses.

A: Ohio, California, red buckeyes, yellow buckeyes
S: LEWIS:302

92

At what age do most foals begin eating regular food?

A: 2-4 days
S: LEWIS:268

93

Ringbone is commonly found on joints of the short pastern and can be classified as high or low. If it involves the pastern joint, how is it classified?

A: High ringbone
S: EVANS: 161, LEWIS:401

94

Approximately how soon after birth should a foal be able to stand?

A: Between 15 minutes and 3 hours after birth
S: LEWIS:129

95

What is another name for Monday Morning Disease?

A: Tying up
S: EVANS:306

96

What is the capillary refill time of a healthy horse?

A: 1-3 seconds
S: GRIFFITHS:163

97

What are the four major components of the large intestine?

A: Cecum, large colon, small colon, rectum
S: GRIFFITHS:112

98

What type of neck conformation results in a high-headed horse that has minimal flexion at the poll?

A: Ewe-necked
S: EVANS:145

99

What is the hull?

A: The outer covering of grains and other seeds
S: LEWIS:126

100

Name two causes of acute laminitis.

A: Enterotoxemia from excess grain intake, excessive foot concussion or fatigue, sudden weather changes, toxins or poisons, colic, drugs, infections, allergies, change in feed, retained placenta (foal founder)
S: AYHC:334-1

101

The horse is capable of two distinctly different types of sight. Explain what monocular vision is.

A: The horse is capable of independent views from each eye
S: EVANS:123

102

Approximately how much of a horse’s daily ration should be protein?

A: 8-15%
S: GRIFFITHS:117

103

Name two organ systems that would be affected by cardiac glycoside poisoning.

A: Cardiac, digestive, respiratory, nervous
S: EVANS:231

104

Identify two reasons you would add a fat or oil supplement to a horse’s ration.

A: Give a glossier hair coat, increase energy density of the feed, decrease dust,
lubricate feed to lessen wear on equipment, to bind other supplements into feed
S: LEWIS:89

105

Water accounts for approximately what percent of a horse’s body weight?

A: 66%
S: EVANS:118

106

Why would someone choose to use a rocker-toe shoe for a healthy young horse?

A: To ease the breakover of the hoof; prevents foraging (either is acceptable)
S: HIH:525-4

107

What breed was developed from the crossing of Shetland and Hackney ponies?

A: Americana
S: EVANS:57

108

What conformation defect might a horse have if there is visibly uneven wear of the hoof,
resulting in a toe that stays short and worn off while the heel grows long.

A: Club foot
S: LEWIS:385

109

What is the common name for erythrocytes?

A: Red blood cells
S: EVANS:117

110

What poisonous plant causes thiamine deficiency?

A: Bracken fern
S: EVANS:306

111

Why must bile be secreted continuously into the horse’s small intestine?

A: Because they do not have a gall bladder to store it
S: EVANS:173

112

What is the difference between essential amino acids and nonessential amino acids?

A: Essential amino acids cannot be synthesized in the horse’s body; nonessential can
S: GRIFFITHS:118

113

What is hyperesthesia?

A: Excessive sensitivity to touch, movement, and/or sound
S: LEWIS:393

114

Other than the horse, name two members of the genus Equus.

A: Donkey, onager, zebra, mule
S: EVANS:238

115

What is the predominant color of Belgian Horses?

A: Sorrel or chestnut with a white mane and tail
S: EVANS:69

116

What are the names for the first and second cervical vertebrae?

A: Atlas and Axis
S: EVANS:91

117

Who are the three founding sires of the Thoroughbred breed?

A: Byerly Turk, Darley Arabian, Godolphin Arabian (also acceptable: Godolphin Barb),
S: EVANS 21

118

Apocrine glands can be found all over the horse’s body, except for what location?

A: Legs
S: EVANS:129

119

What are the three primary types of qualitative gene action that affect traits in horses?

A: Dominance, co-dominance, partial dominance
S: HIH:1020-2

120

Management practices and physiology are often closely related. If you know that horses have a small stomach, and the rate of passage into and out of it is relatively fast, how should your feeding program reflect that?

A: Horses should be fed small and frequent meals
S: GRIFFITHS:110

121

Identify the pack saddle being described: Normally a centerfire-rigged, single cinched with a half-breed, and is best suited for sling loads.

A: Decker
S: HIH:1125-1

122

A chronic, excess, ingestion of what mineral could result in a bob tail from hair loss?

A: Selenium
S: LEWIS:329

123

Explain the difference between a mule and a hinny.

A: Mule: The offspring of a male donkey and a female horse (jack and mare); Hinny: the
offspring of a female donkey and a male horse (jenny and stallion)
S: GRIFFITHS:21

124

Identify two of the three main salivary glands.

A: Paratid, submaxillary (mandibular), sublingual
S: HIH:425-3

125

What are eggs laid by botflies or lice on the horse’s hair called?

A: Nits
S: LEWIS:397

126

Identify four theories as to why the horse disappeared from the North American continent during the ice age.

A: Drastic, sudden climate change; disease or parasite epidemic; competition for available food sources; failure to adapt to the environment; insects; the acts of early man
S: GRIFFITHS:8 and EVANS:4

127

Name two components of blood plasma.

A: Water, ions, proteins, lipids
S: EVANS:117

128

What is the difference between fat and water soluble vitamins, and which type is less
detrimental if fed in excess?

A: Fat soluble vitamins dissolve in fat to be stored in the body; water solublevitamins dissolved in water, and are readily lost in excretions- thus water soluble are less dangerous if fed in excess
S: LEWIS:42

129

Name four vices of the horse that are dangerous to man.

A: Biting, nipping, striking, rearing, kicking, charging, crowding
S: EVANS:182-183

130

A manure pile should be located at least how many feet away from a well used for drinking water?

A: Minimum of 100ft
S: HIH:360-2

131

What metal alloy can be used to double or triple the life of a horse shoe?

A: Borium
S: EVANS:739

132

Give two other names for a dorsal stripe.

A: Back stripe, lineback, eel stripe
S: GRIFFITHS:38

133

What two vitamins must be obtained from diet because bacteria in the horse’s digestive system cannot produce them?

A: Vitamins A and E
S: GRIFFITHS:122

134

What is the superficial muscle that lies over the area of the withers?

A: Trapezius muscle
S: GRIFFITHS:204

135

What does the process of gene mapping entail?

A: The recording of the identities and positions of genes that make up human and animal species
S: GRIFFITHS:85

136

Name the breed of horse that sheds out its mane and sometimes even tail in the summer to grow out again in the fall.

A: American Bashkir Curly
S: EVANS:57

137

Approximately how much manganese does a horse obtain from eating corn?

A: None
S: GRIFFITHS:140

138

What are primitive markings, and give two examples of them?

A: Markings that are darker than the base coat color; dorsal stripe, zebra marks, wither stripes, cross cobwebbing, or spider webbing on the forehead
S: GRIFFITHS:38

139

If one horse watches another horse cribbing, and then begins cribbing himself, this horse
can be said to exhibit what type of behavior?

A: Allelomimetic behavior
S: EVANS: 676

140

What three colors could result from crossing a palomino to a palomino?

A: Palomino, chestnut, cremello
S: EVANS:298

141

Name two plants that could cause anemia in horses due to red blood cell destruction or
blood loss.

A: Wild or domestic onions; red maple; moldy sweet clover
S: LEWIS:330-331

142

Identify four conformation faults of the forelegs that can be seen while viewing the horse from the front.

A: Base wide, base narrow, toes out, pigeon toed, bowlegged, knock-kneed
S: EVANS:148

143

In terms of coat colors, the word “points” refers to what four areas?

A: Lower legs, mane, tail, ear rims
S: GRIFFITHS:36

144

What disease could be helped with any one of the following treatments? Rest or restricted activity, Isoxsuprine to increase blood circulation, low nerving, or therapeutic shoeing such as an egg bar shoe, rocker toe, or heel wedges.

A: Navicular disease
S: HIH:540-3

145

To ensure proper fertilization, how often should a soil analysis of a pasture be obtained?

A: Every 3 to 5 years
S: LEWIS:106

146

What does the term tostado mean when describing a South American chestnut horse?

A: A chestnut horse with darker red colored points
S: GRIFFITHS:41

147

What one factor can be credited for all of the following: the killing of bacteria and microbes, the shedding of horses’ winter hair coats, and the stimulation of the mare’s cycling in spring?

A: Light
S: LEWIS:181

148

Tetanus antitoxin should be given immediately after a deep puncture wound, but only to non-vaccinated animals. What could happen if it is given to a toxoid-vaccinated animal?

A: It could cause liver diseases
S: GRIFFITHS:172

149

What are the three components of the nervous system?

A: Central nervous system; peripheral nervous system; autonomic nervous system
S: GRIFFITHS:212

150

What yellow plant pigment is converted to vitamin A in the intestinal wall?

A: Beta-carotene
S: LEWIS:382