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From Flashcardlet > 2 A&P II Chapter 21 Immunity > Flashcards

2 A&P II Chapter 21 Immunity Flashcards

1
Q

What is immunity?

A

Resistance to disease

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2
Q

What are the two intrinsic systems for immunity?

A

Innate and Adaptive

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3
Q

What is the innate immune system?

A

The nonspecific defense system that responds within minutes to protect the body

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4
Q

What are the two barricades of the innate immune system?

A

1st line of defense is the external body membranes

2nd line of defense is the internal defenses

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5
Q

What are some examples of the first line of defense in the innate system?

A

Skin and mucosa

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6
Q

What are some examples of the second line of defense in the innate system?

A

Antimicrobial proteins like interferons, transferrins, and complement; phagocytes; NK cells

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7
Q

What does the second line of defense of the innate immune system result in (what symptoms)?

A

Inflammation and fever

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8
Q

What is the adaptive immune system?

A

The specific, functional system, rather than a localized system, that attacks particular foreign substances

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9
Q

What does the adaptive immune system protect the body against?

A

Microorganisms, cancer cells, transplanted organs, and grafts

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10
Q

Which system takes longer, innate or adaptive?

A

Adaptive takes time to develop

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11
Q

What is a pathogen?

A

A harmful or disease causing organism

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12
Q

When do we develop innate defenses?

A

At birth

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13
Q

Are innate defenses specific or nonspecific?

A

Nonspecific

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14
Q

Do the protective mechanisms of the innate immune system differ depending on the pathogen it is defending against?

A

No, the mechanisms function in the same way regardless of the type of invader or injury

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15
Q

How do the innate defenses effect the adaptive system?

A

They lessen the workload of the adaptive system by preventing the entry and spread of microorganisms

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16
Q

What is the body’s first line of defense?

A

The skin and mucous membranes, including their secretions

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17
Q

What substance is found in the skin that is highly resistant?

A

Keratin

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18
Q

What is keratin resistant to?

A

Acids, bases, bacterial enzymes, and bacterial toxins

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19
Q

What are some examples of protective chemicals that the skin and mucous membranes secrete?

A
  1. Acids
  2. Enzymes
  3. Mucin
  4. Saliva
  5. Defensins
  6. Sebum
  7. Cilia
  8. Normal flora
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20
Q

Where on the body do acids inhibit bacterial growth?

A

Skin, vagina, stomach

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21
Q

What are two examples of enzymes that destroy bacteria?

A

Lysozyme (mouth, respiratory mucous, lacrimal fluid)

Protein digesting enzymes in the stomach

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22
Q

How does mucin act in the first line of defense?

A

It traps many microorganisms

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23
Q

How does saliva act in the first line of defense?

A

It traps microorganisms and flushes them out

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24
Q

What are defensins?

A

A broad spectrum of antimicrobial peptides

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25
Q

What two substances are toxic to bacteria?

A

Lipids in sebum, and dermicidin in sweat

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26
Q

Why don’t we want bacteria to progress to a warm, moist environment within the respiratory tract?

A

It is a perfect place for growth

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27
Q

What is the body’s second line of defense?

A

Internal innate defenses, phagocytes and macrophages

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28
Q

How does the second line of defense know which substances are harmful?

A

It identifies harmful substances by recognizing glycoproteins on the surface of the microorganism

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29
Q

What are four examples of phagocytes?

A
  1. Neutrophils
  2. Macrophages
  3. Eosinophils
  4. Mast cells
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30
Q

What do eosinophils phagocytize?

A

Parasitic worms, otherwise weak phagocytes

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31
Q

What are the first responders in terms of phagocytes?

A

Neutrophils are the first on the scene

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32
Q

When do neutrophils become phagocytitic?

A

Upon encountering infectious tissue material

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33
Q

What are the most voracious phagocytes?

A

Macrophages

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34
Q

What cells do macrophages derive from?

A

Monocytes who leave the blood stream

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35
Q

What is a free macrophage?

A

One that wanders through the tissues to find debris

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36
Q

What is a fixed macrophage?

A

Permanent resident of a specific organ

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37
Q

What are two examples of fixed macrophages?

A

Kupffer cells of the liver and microglia of the brain

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38
Q

What are two examples of free macrophages?

A

Alveolar cells in the lungs and dendritic cells of the epidermis

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39
Q

What is phagocytosis?

A

Wen cytoplasmic extensions bind to particles and pull them inside a membrane lined vesicle (vacuole), resulting in the phagosome
The phagosome then binds with a lysosome to create a phagolysosome

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40
Q

How do phagocytes adhere to pathogens?

A

By recognizing the pathogen’s carbohydrate signature on the cell surface

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41
Q

When might a phagocyte might not be able to cell the cell surface carbohydrates of a pathogen?

A

Some pathogens have an outer coat that hides their signature glycoproteins so the phagocyte cannot bind

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42
Q

What happens when pathogens have this outer coat?

A

The immune system then coats the pathogen with opsonins, complement proteins or antibodies that provide handles so the phagocytes receptors an bind (OPSONIZATION)

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43
Q

What is the goal of opsonization?

A

To make the pathogen more easily phagocytized

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44
Q

How is the pathogen eventually killed after phagocytosis?

A

A neutrophil or macrophage will kill the ingested pathogen by acidifying the phagolysosome and digesting the contents with lysosomal enzymes

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45
Q

What are some examples of a sites that secrete defensins?

A

Epithelial lining of GI and GU tracts
Tracheobronchial tree
Keratinocytes

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46
Q

What is a defensin?

A

An antibody-like chemical that can pierce the microorganism

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47
Q

What does the body do if some pathogens can resist phagocytic enzymes?

A

Helper T cells release chemicals that stimulate macrophages, activating additional enzymes that produce lethal respiratory burst

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48
Q

How does the respiratory burst kill pathogens?

A
  1. Liberating free radicals
  2. Producing oxidizing chemicals
  3. Increasing phagolysosome’s pH and osmolarity, which activates other enzymes that digest the pathogen
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49
Q

What is an example of when the body will liberate free radicals?

A

Tuberculosis

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50
Q

What are two examples of oxidizing chemicals?

A

H2O2 and bleach

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51
Q

What do oxidizing chemicals do?

A

Result in the entry of K+ into the phagolysosome, which activates digestive enzymes

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52
Q

Which phagocytes destroy themselves and which can live on to kill more pathogens?

A

Neutrophils destroy themselves in the process, macrophages can move on to other pathogens

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53
Q

What do neutrophils use to pierce pathogenic membranes?

A

Defensins

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54
Q

What are natural killer cells and what pathogens do they target?

A

Defensive cells that can lyse and kill cancer cells and virus infected body cells before the adaptive immune system is activated

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55
Q

What are two nicknames for the NK cells?

A

Pit bulls, assassins

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56
Q

What kind of WBCs are NK cells?

A

Large granular lymphocytes

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57
Q

Do NK cells kill with phagocytosis?

A

NO, they kill by directly targeting and contacting the cell, inducing it to undergo apoptosis

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58
Q

What do NK cells detect a lack of on pathogens?

A

Detect the lack of self surface markers, or the presence of sugar surface markers on the target cell

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59
Q

What happens when a cell undergoes stress that signals NK cells to destroy it?

A

When cells are under stress, turning into tumors, or are infected, various stress induced molecules are produced and put on the surface of the cell

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60
Q

How many receptors do NK cells use to determine whether or not to kill the target cell?

A

2 receptors - dual system

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61
Q

What are the two receptors the NK cell looks for?

A

Killer activating receptor and kill inhibitory receptor

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62
Q

What is the killer activating receptor?

A

It recognizes the stress induced molecule, sending a positive signal, enabling the NK cell to kill
(Unless the second receptor cancels the signal)

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63
Q

What is the killer inhibitory receptor?

A

It recognizes MHC I molecules (which are present on all human cells)
If the MHC I molecules are expressed on the target cell, the killer inhibitory receptor sends a negative signal to the NK cell that overrides the kill signal, preventing the NK cell from destroying the target

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64
Q

Where are the killer activating and inhibitory receptors found?

A

On the NK cell

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65
Q

Where are the stress induced and MHC I molecules found?

A

On the target cell

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66
Q

Why don’t virus infected cells or tumor cells show MHC I if they are human cells?

A

Because the virus and malignancy transformation interferes with the ability of the cell to express the MHC I molecules

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67
Q

If the NK cell gets the positive signal to kill, what proteins are released from the NK cell?

A

Perforins and granzymes

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68
Q

What is a perforin?

A

A proteolytic enzyme that lyses the plasma membrane of a cell

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69
Q

What is a granzyme?

A

It passes through the pores and activates the enzymes that lead to apoptosis of the infected cell by means of destruction of its cytoskeleton proteins and by chromosomal degradation

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70
Q

What is an inflammatory response?

A

It is triggered when the body tissues are injured by physical trauma, intense heat, irritating chemicals, or infections

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71
Q

What are some benefits of the inflammatory response? (4)

A
  1. Prevents spread of damaging agents to nearby tissues
  2. Disposes of cell debris and pathogens
  3. Alerts adaptive immune system
  4. Sets stage for repair
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72
Q

What are the four cardinal signs of acute inflammation?

A
  1. Redness
  2. Heat
  3. Swelling
  4. Pain
  5. Impaired or loss of function
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73
Q

What is redness caused by?

A

Vasodilation

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74
Q

What is heat caused by?

A

Vasodilation

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75
Q

What is swelling caused by?

A

Increased capillary permeability

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76
Q

What is pain caused by?

A

Pressure due to edema on nerves, prostaglandins and bradykinins

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77
Q

Where is an inflammatory chemical released that begins the process with a chemical alarm?

A

Inflammatory chemical is released by the injured or stressed tissue cell

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78
Q

How do macrophages add to the chemical alarm?

A

They have special receptors that allow them to recognize invaders and sound chemical alarm

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79
Q

What are TLRs?

A

Toll-like receptors play a key role in triggering the immune response by triggering the release of inflammatory chemicals called cytokines

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80
Q

How many TLRs are there? What differentiates them?

A

11 TLRs each recognizing a specific class of microbe

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81
Q

What kind of inflammatory chemicals do TLRs trigger the release of?

A

Kinins
Prostaglandins
Complement

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82
Q

What do inflammatory chemicals do?

A

Dilate local arterioles and make local capillaries leaky, attracting leukocytes to the injured area

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83
Q

What is exudate?

A

Fluid containing clotting factors and antibodies - it seeps from blood into tissue spaces causing local swelling, or edema

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84
Q

What does vasodilation cause?

A

Redness and heat

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85
Q

What substance does aspirin inhibit?

A

Prostaglandins, therefore it is an anti-inflammatory and analgesic

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86
Q

What does analgesic mean?

A

Pain reducing

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87
Q

How does edema act as a transport?

A

Edema causes foreign material to be swept into lymph and delivers proteins like complement and clotting factors to the interstitium, and brings in nutrients and O2

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88
Q

How do clotting factors play a role in the inflammatory response?

A

Clotting factors make a fibrin mesh that acts as a scaffold for permanent repair, also isolating the injured area from bacteria spreading

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89
Q

What can some bacteria do to the fibrin mesh?

A

Some bacteria develop enzymes to dissolve the fibrin mesh so that they can spread

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90
Q

What are the four steps of phagocyte mobilization?

A
  1. Leukocytosis
  2. Margination
  3. Diapedesis
  4. Chemotaxis
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91
Q

What happens during leukocytosis?

A

Injured cells release leukocytosis inducing factors, and in response, neutrophils enter the blood from the bone marrow, increasing their numbers by 4-5X

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92
Q

What is another name for margination?

A

Pavementing

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93
Q

What is margination?

A

Phagocytes clinging to the inner walls of the capillaries and postcapillaries

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94
Q

What happens during margination?

A

INflamed endothelial cells sprout cell adhesion molecules called selectins, and neutrophils have CAMs called integrins. The CAMs of the endothelium bind tightly with the CAMs of the neutrophils

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95
Q

What is diapedesis?

A

CHemical signaling causes neutrophils to flatten and squeeze between endothelial cells of the capillary walls to reach injury

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96
Q

What is chemotaxis?

A

Neutrophils and other WBCs migrate up the gradient of chemotactic agents to the injury site (positive chemotaxis)

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97
Q

How long does it take for a neutrophil to arrive after positive chemotaxis?

A

They arrive within the hour

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98
Q

What does a monocyte develop to change into a macrophage that makes it a good phagocyte?

A

Develops lysosomes

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99
Q

What replaces a neutrophil at a site of injury?

A

Macrophage, to clean up the final cell debris

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100
Q

What do macrophages do at chronic inflammation sites?

A

They’re stay is prolonged

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101
Q

What are cytokines?

A

Cell signals that stimulate or inhibit may normal cell functions

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102
Q

What kinds of cells secrete cytokines?

A
  1. Lymphocytes
  2. Antigen presenting cells
  3. Monocytes
  4. FIbroblasts
  5. Endothelial cells
  6. Hepatocytes
  7. Kidney cells
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103
Q

Do cytokines act over short or long distances?

A

Short distances

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104
Q

How do cytokines act in the immune response to effect a cell?

A

They bind to specific membrane receptors with signals via seconds messengers to alter the cells behavior

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105
Q

What cells release histamine?

A

Mast cell and basophil

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106
Q

What is the trigger for the kinin cascade?

A

CF XII, Hageman factor

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107
Q

What results from the presence of prostaglandins?

A

Vasodilation, increased capillary permeability, pain

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108
Q

What results from the presence of leukotrienes?

A

Vasodilation and increased capillary permeability

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109
Q

How do eosinophils play a role in the inflammatory response?

A

Eosinophils inhibit the vascular effects, like leaky capillaries of the allergic response

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110
Q

What class of prostaglandins act in the inflammatory response?

A

E series

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111
Q

What cells produce tumor necrosis factor?

A

Macrophages

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112
Q

What does tumor necrosis factor do?

A

Stimulates accumulation of neutrophils and macrophages at sites of inflammation and stimulates their killing of microbes, and exerts an interferon like protective effect against viruses, and functions as an endogenous pyrogen to induce fever

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113
Q

What does bradykinin do?

A

Vasodilation, increase capillary permeability, pain

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114
Q

What are the two branches of the kinin cascade?

A

Hageman Factor XII branches into:

  1. XIIa - coagulation cascade
  2. Prekolikrein activator - prekolikrein to kolikrein - kolikrein to bradykinin
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115
Q

Where were prostaglandins first discovered?

A

Semen

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116
Q

Why are they named prostaglandins?

A

They though they came from the prostate

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117
Q

What cells secrete prostaglandins?

A

Every body cell

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118
Q

What do prostaglandins act as and where do they go? What are prostaglandins similar to?

A

They act as chemical messengers like hormones, but do not move to other sites, they work within the cells where they are synthesized

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119
Q

What are the six physiologic effects of prostaglandins?

A
  1. Activation of inflammatory response
  2. Blood clots form when BV are damaged
  3. Induction of labor and reproductive processes
  4. Inhibit acid synthesis and increase production of protective mucous in the GI
  5. Increase blood flow to kidneys
  6. Leukotrines promote constriction of bronchi associated with asthma
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120
Q

When prostaglandins activate the immune response, what symptoms do they develop?

A

Pain and fever

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121
Q

What two prostaglandins are involved in the formation of blood clots?

A

Thromboxane A2 and prostacyclin

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122
Q

What does thromboxane A2 do?

A

Stimulates constriction and clotting of platelets

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123
Q

What does prostacyclin (PGI2) do?

A

Inhibits clotting of platelets where clots should not be forming

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124
Q

What prostaglandin causes uterine contractions and is used to induce labor?

A

PGE2

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125
Q

What is the major mechanism for destroying foreign substances in the body?

A

Complement system

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126
Q

What is the complement system?

A

A group of 20 plasma proteins, normally circulating in an inactive state

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127
Q

Why is it called the complement system?

A

It complements or enhances the effectiveness of the innate and adaptive defenses

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128
Q

What are the three pathways of the complement system?

A
  1. Classical
  2. Lectin
  3. Alternative
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129
Q

What are the names of the complement proteins?

A

C1-C9, factors B, D, and P, and regulatory proteins

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130
Q

What happens with the classical pathway?

A

Results in opsonization, coating the bacterial surface and enhancing phagocytosis

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131
Q

What cell component is the chief player in the classical pathway?

A

Antibodies - antibodies fight off foreign invaders by binding to the pathogen and complement components

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132
Q

What complement proteins are involved in the classical pathway?

A

C1 C4 C2 –> C3 –> C3b

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133
Q

What happens in the lectin pathway?

A

Lectins from innate defenses bind to specific sugars on the surface of the microorganism, so they can bind and activate complement

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134
Q

What complement proteins are involved in the alternative pathway?

A

Factors B, D, and P interact with the polysaccharide molecules on the surface of the microorganism –> C3 –> C3a

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135
Q

Where does the complement cascade converge?

A

Factor C3

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136
Q

What does C3 cleave into and what pathways do these proteins associate with?

A

C3a - alternative

C3b - classical

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137
Q

What is the name for the final common pathway of the complement system?

A

Membrane attack complex - MAC attack

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138
Q

What is the sequence of the final common complement pathway?

A 
C3 binds to target cell
C3b
C5b
C6
C7
C8
C9
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139
Q

What does the final common pathway produce?

A

Complement proteins complex to make a hole in the target cell, where the MAC inserts and initiates cell lysis

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140
Q

What do antimicrobial proteins do?

A

They enhance the innate defenses by attacking microorganisms directly or by hindering their ability to reproduce

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141
Q

What are viruses?

A

Intracellular parasites that invade a cell and use the cell’s resources

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142
Q

What do some cells secrete to help protect cells close to virus infected cells that have not yet been effected?

A

Interferons

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143
Q

What does an interferon do?

A

It stimulates the synthesis of proteins called PKRs which interfere with viral replication by blocking ribosomes (blocking protein synthesis and degrading viral RNA)

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144
Q

Are interferons virus specific?

A

No, they protect against a variety of viruses

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145
Q

What interferons also activate NK cells?

A

IFN alpha and beta

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146
Q

What interferons activate widespread immune mobilizing effects?

A

IFN gamma

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147
Q

What do interferons have an indirect role in fighting and why?

A

Cancer cells, because they activate macrophages and NK cells

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148
Q

What is a CRP?

A

C reactive protein

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149
Q

Where are CRPs produced?

A

Liver

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150
Q

What are CRPs useful in testing?

A

CLinical blood test for inflammation

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151
Q

What do CRPs do?

A

Bind to receptors on pathogens and damaged self cells and targets them for destruction

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152
Q

What complement protein do CRPs bind to?

A

CRPs bind to C1 which results in C3 binding for opsonization

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153
Q

What is fever and what is it caused by?

A

A systemic response to invading microorganisms - when leukocytes encounter foreign substances they release pyrogens

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154
Q

What do pyrogens do?

A

Act on the hypothalamus, the body’s thermostat, raising the body temperature above normal

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155
Q

What is the normal body temperature?

A

98.2 F or 36.2 C

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156
Q

What does fever cause the liver to do?

A

The liver stores more iron and zinc, making them less available to support bacterial growth

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157
Q

What does fever do to the tissues?

A

Increases the metabolic rate of tissue cells repair process

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158
Q

Where are toll like receptors found?

A

On cells like macrophages and epithelium

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159
Q

How many toll like receptors have been identified?

A

10

160
Q

What do activated toll like receptors trigger the release of?

A

Cytokines

161
Q

What do toll like receptors do overall?

A

Trigger an immune response

162
Q

What happens if toll like receptors fail?

A

The entire immune system crashes and infection ensues

163
Q

What were toll like receptors discovered from?

A

When researching a fruit fly abnormality - a protein called Toll

164
Q

Is the adaptive defense system local or systemic?

A

Systemic - it is not restricted to the initial infection site

165
Q

How long does the adaptive defense system take to respond?

A

Longer than the innate system

166
Q

What are two examples of conditions that result when the adaptive defense system fails?

A

Cancer and AIDS

167
Q

What is the key mechanism associated with the adaptive defense system?

A

Memory

168
Q

How does the adaptive immune system use memory?

A

The body must be primed by an initial exposure to an antigen, which takes time before it can respond. But the next time, the body mounts a stronger attack

169
Q

What is another term for humoral immunity?

A

Antibody mediated immunity

170
Q

Why is the branch called humoral immunity?

A

Protection is provided by antibodies present in the body’s humors, or fluids

171
Q

What cells contribute to humoral immunity?

A

B lymphocytes and plasma cells

172
Q

What are the targets of the humoral immune system?

A

Bacteria, toxins, and free viruses in the blood

173
Q

How does the humoral system get rid of foreign targets?

A

It inactivates the targets and marks them for phagocytes

174
Q

What is another name for cellular immunity?

A

Cell mediated immunity

175
Q

What occurs in cellular immunity

A

T lymphocytes themselves directly kill targets, or indirectly release chemicals that enhance the inflammatory response or activate other phagocytes

176
Q

What are the targets of the cellular immune system?

A

Virus infected or parasite infected tissue cells, cancer cells, and cells of foreign grafts

177
Q

What is the key cell contributor of the cellular immune system?

A

T lymphocytes

178
Q

What is an antigen?

A

A substance that can mobilize the adaptive defenses and provoke an immune response

179
Q

What is the term we use for antigens, or intruders?

A

Nonself

180
Q

What do antigens look like structurally?

A

Most are large, complex molecules not normally present in the body

181
Q

What two characteristics does a complete antigen have?

A

Immunogenicity and reactivity

182
Q

What is immunogenicity?

A

Ability to activate lymphocytes and antibodies to proliferate and multiply

183
Q

What is reactivity?

A

The ability to react with activated lymphocytes and antibodies released by immunogenic reactions

184
Q

What are some examples of complete antigens?

A

Proteins
Nucleic acids
Some lipids
Large polysaccharides

185
Q

What are the strongest complete antigens?

A

Proteins

186
Q

What characteristic do smaller molecules lack that forbid them from becoming antigens?

A

They are usually not immunogenic

187
Q

What do smaller molecules do then to initiate an immune response? What are these molecules called?

A

Small molecules link up with the body’s own proteins - called haptens

188
Q

What is hypersensitivity?

A

When haptens link up with the body’s own proteins and the immune system sees the combination as foreign

189
Q

What is the term for an incomplete antigen?

A

Hapten

190
Q

What characteristic does a hapten have if it is not bound to a body protein?

A

It has reactivity but not immunogenicity

191
Q

What are some examples of substances that act as haptens?

A 
Allergies
Penicillin allergy
Poison ivy
Animal dander
Detergents
Cosmetics
192
Q

What is an antigenic determinant?

A

The specific portion of the antigen that evokes the immune response

193
Q

What is another term for an antigenic determinant?

A

Epitope

194
Q

What substances bind to the antigenic determinant? What does this process remind you of?

A

Free antibodies or lymphocyte receptors bind to the determinant like and enzyme and substrate

195
Q

How many antigenic determinants are there on an antigen?

A

There can be many, some more potent that others

196
Q

What does each epitope do?

A

Triggers a specific immune response

197
Q

What kinds of molecules have little or no immunogenicity? What is an example?

A

Large simple molecules like plastics

198
Q

What does the cell structure of these large molecules, like plastic, look like?

A

Regularly, identical, repeating units

199
Q

Why is it beneficial that plastics have no immunogenicity?

A

Plastics can be used as implants because the substance is not seen as foreign and not rejected

200
Q

What are self antigens?

A

They are not antigenic to you, but strongly to other individuals

201
Q

What are two examples of self antigen reactions?

A

Blood transfusion reactions and graft reactions

202
Q

Where are self antigens found?

A

They are cell surface markers

203
Q

What is an example of self antigens?

A

MHC I proteins

204
Q

What does MHC stand for?

A

Major histocompatibility complex

205
Q

What body cells have MHC I proteins?

A

All body cells except red blood cells

206
Q

What three cells have MHC II proteins?

A

Macrophages, dendritic cells, and some B lymphocytes

207
Q

What is the older term for MHC?

A

HLA - human leukocyte antigen

208
Q

What is the HLA term still used for?

A

Typing tissues for transplants

209
Q

What are the three important cells of the adaptive system?

A
  1. B lymphocytes
  2. T lymphocytes
  3. Antigen presenting cells
210
Q

What part of the immune system do B lymphocytes play a role in?

A

Humoral immunity

211
Q

What part of the immune system do T lymphocytes play a role in?

A

Cellular immunity

212
Q

What are the three antigen presenting cells?

A

Macrophages, dendritic cells, and some B lymphocytes

213
Q

Where do all lymphocytes originate, and from what cell?

A

All originate in the red bone marrow from hematopoietic stem cells

214
Q

What two characteristics do lymphocytes gain as they mature? What term do we use as lymphocytes mature?

A

Lymphocytes are educated as the mature, so they gain immunocompetence and self tolerance

215
Q

What is immunocompetence?

A

Ability to recognize one specific antigen by binding to it

216
Q

How does a lymphocyte show immunocompetence?

A

It shows unique receptor on the cell surface - then they are committed to react to only one antigenic determinant because all of their receptors are the same

217
Q

What is self tolerance?

A

Relatively unreactive to self antigens so it does not attack the body’s own cells

218
Q

Where do T cell become immunocompetent?

A

Thymus

219
Q

How long does it take for T cells to become immunocompetent?

A

2-3 days

220
Q

How many T cells become immunocompetent?

A

2% of T cells in the thymus

221
Q

How do T cells show self recognition?

A

They must be able to recognize your own MHC proteins

222
Q

Where do B cells become immunocompetent?

A

Red bone marrow

223
Q

What are the primary lymphoid organs?

A

Thymus and marrow

224
Q

What are the secondary lymphoid organs?

A

All the other lymphoid organs besides thymus and marrow - spleen, lymph nodes, lymphoid follicles

225
Q

What is positive selection in T cell education?

A

Only those T lymphocytes that can detect self MHC proteins are permitted to survive

226
Q

What happens to a T cell that cannot recognize MHC proteins?

A

It undergoes apoptosis

227
Q

What is negative selection in T cell education?

A

Ensures that T cells do not recognize self antigens displayed on self MHC proteins

228
Q

Why can’t T cells recognize self antigens?

A

If they bind too tightly to self antigens then the T cell would attack its own body cells

229
Q

What is the process of selecting T cells?

A

Positive selection - T cells must recognize self MHC
T cells then proceed to:
Negative selection - T cells must not recognize self antigens

230
Q

What might happen if the T cell recognizes self antigens?

A

Autoimmune disease

231
Q

What must a T cell do in order to survive negative selection?

A

Fail to recognize self antigens

232
Q

Is T cell selection perfect?

A

No, some self reactive lymphocytes survive

233
Q

How does B cell maturation compare to T cell maturation?

A

It is less understood, but a similar process

234
Q

What is clonal deletion?

A

B cells with antigen receptors that are self reactive are eliminated

235
Q

What does naive mean?

A

Immunocompetent T and B cells that have not yet been exposed to an antigen

236
Q

Where are naive T and B cells sent?

A

To secondary lymphoid organs

237
Q

Why are naive cells sent to secondary lymphoid organs?

A

There they are more likely to encounter antigens

238
Q

How do lymphocytes become fully functional?

A

They must be able to bind to a specific antigen in order to complete their differentiation and become fully functional

239
Q

What percentage of lymphocytes circulate continuously through the blood? Why is this percentage so high?

A

65-85% of lymphocytes circulate continuously through the blood to increase the chances of encountering antigens

240
Q

What is clonal selection?

A

When an antigen binds to the particular lymphocyte that has a receptor for it, the antigen selects the lymphocyte for further development

241
Q

What happens right after a lymphocyte is activated?

A

The lymphocyte rapidly proliferates making many copies of itself with the same antigen specific receptors

242
Q

What are the copies of the lymphocyte called?

A

Clones

243
Q

What are effector cells?

A

Cells that actually fight the infection

244
Q

What are memory cells?

A

Able to respond quickly after any subsequent encounter with the same antigen

245
Q

What determines which foreign substances our immune system can recognize and resist?

A

Our genes, not antigens (cells can recognize them before they ever encounter antigens)

246
Q

What are antigen presenting cells?

A

Engulf antigens and present fragments of them, like signal flags, on their surface where T cells can recognize them

247
Q

What are four examples of antigen presenting cells?

A

Macrophage
Dendritic cells in CT
Langerhan cells in skin
Activated B lymphocytes

248
Q

What are the least effective antigen presenting cells?

A

B lymphocytes

249
Q

Where are dendritic cells found?

A

At the body’s frontiers, like the skin

250
Q

What do dendritic cells look like? How does this help them?

A

They have long wispy extensions that are good antigen catchers

251
Q

Where do the dendritic cells go once they phagocytize antigens?

A

Enter lymphatics and present antigens to T cells at lymph nodes

252
Q

What is the most effective APC?

A

Dendritic cell

253
Q

Why do macrophages present antigens to T cells?

A

In order to activate themselves

254
Q

What do T cells do to activate macrophages?

A

Effector T cells release chemicals that prod macrophages to become activated “true killers”

255
Q

Why do B lymphocytes present antigens to helper T cells?

A

In order to obtain help in their own activation

256
Q

When does an immunocompetent but naive B lymphocyte become activated?

A

When matching antigen binds to its surface receptors

257
Q

What happens when antigens bound on B lymphocyte receptors cross link adjacent receptors together?

A

Receptor mediated endocytosis of antigen-receptor complexes - clonal selection

258
Q

What does the B lymphocyte do after being cross linked?

A

Clonal selection - it begins to proliferate making many B cells exactly like it

259
Q

What do most B cells differentiate into?

A

Plasma cells

260
Q

What are plasma cells?

A

Antibody secreting effector cells of the humoral response

261
Q

What do plasma cells synthesize and secrete?

A

Immunoglobulin or antibodies

262
Q

How long do plasma cells live for?

A

4-5 days

263
Q

What do few B cells differentiate into?

A

Memory cells

264
Q

When are memory cells triggered?

A

If the person encounters the same antigen again

265
Q

What is a primary immune response?

A

Cellular proliferation and differentiation occurs at the first exposure to a particular antigen

266
Q

How long does primary immune response take?

A

3-6 days to develop

267
Q

What does the primary immune response’s development mirror?

A

The time it takes for B cells to proliferate

268
Q

When do plasma antibody levels rise and reach their peak?

A

10 days

269
Q

What Ig is most associated with the primary immune response?

A

IgM

270
Q

What is secondary immune response?

A

When someone is reexposed to the same antigen

271
Q

How long does the secondary immune response take?

A

2-3 days (faster)

272
Q

How long does the secondary immune response last?

A

Prolonged from weeks to months

273
Q

Why does the immune system have a higher concentration of antibodies in the secondary immune response?

A

Because the immune system has already been primed to the antigen and memory cells are on alert

274
Q

What Ig is most associated with the secondary immune response?

A

IgG

275
Q

What is active humoral immunity?

A

When your B cells encounter antigens and produce antibodies against them

276
Q

What are two types of active humoral immunity?

A

Naturally acquired and artificially acquired

277
Q

What is artificially acquired active humoral immunity?

A

Vaccines

278
Q

What is naturally acquired active humoral immunity?

A

You get the illness

279
Q

WHat are vaccines?

A

Pathogens that are dead or attenuated (living but very weak)

280
Q

Does a vaccine contain an entire antigen?

A

No, only a portion of the antigen is given

281
Q

What does a vaccine cause the immune system to do?

A

Causes the primary immune response and the development of memory cells

282
Q

What are two benefits of vaccines?

A

Spare us from the symptoms and discomfort of the disease that would usually occur with the primary response, and weakened antigens provide functional antigenic determinants that are immunogenic and reactive

283
Q

What is passive humoral immunity

A

Ready made antibodies are introduced into your body from another person or animal - not made by your plasma cells

284
Q

What are some setbacks of passive humoral immunity?

A

Memory does not occur and protection provided ends when the antibody degrades in the body

285
Q

What is an example of naturally acquired passive humoral immunity?

A

Maternal transfer of antibodies to the fetus from placenta or baby from breast milk

286
Q

What Ig is passed from mother to baby?

A

IgG

287
Q

What is an example of artificially acquired passive humoral immunity?

A

Gamma globulin in serum havested from plasma of immune donors

288
Q

What are the pros and cons of artificially acquired passive humoral immunity?

A

Exogenous antibodies are short lived effectiveness (few weeks), but still provide immediate protection

289
Q

What are some conditions that can be treated with artificially acquired passive humoral immunity?

A 
Hepatitis A
Antivenom for snake bites
Botulism
Rabies
Tetanus
290
Q

What are antibodies secreted in response to?

A

They are proteins secreted in response to antigens by effector B cells (plasma cells)

291
Q

What are the five classes of immunoglobulins?

A

MADGE

292
Q

What is the basic structure of an antibody?

A

4 polypeptide chains - two identical heavy and two identical light chains, linked by disulfide bonds

293
Q

What do the four polypeptide chains of an antibody create? What does it look like?

A

Creates an antibody monomer, in the shape of a Y with 2 identical halves

294
Q

How do the H and L chains of an antibody compare in size?

A

Light chain is half as long as the heavy chain

295
Q

What are the two regions of an antibody?

A

Variable and constant regions

296
Q

Where is the variable region of an antibody?

A

The top of the Y with the heavy and light chains

297
Q

What does the variable region contain?

A

The antigen binding site, shaped to fit specific antigenic determinants

298
Q

How many antigen binding sites does an antibody have?

A

2

299
Q

What is another name for the variable region?

A

Fab region

300
Q

Where is the constant region of an antibody?

A

The stem

301
Q

What does the constant region determine about an antibody?

A

Determines its class

302
Q

What does the effector region of the constant region determine?

A

Cells and chemicals of the body the Ig can bind to, and how the Ig glass functions to eliminate antigens

303
Q

What is the Fc region?

A

The site where antibodies bind to other cells of the immune system

304
Q

Why is it good that B cells can switch from making one class of Ig to another?

A

They can produce different classes that have the same antigen specificity

305
Q

What is the shape of IgM?

A

Pentamer

306
Q

What two Igs can readily fix and activate complement?

A

IgM and IgG

307
Q

Which Igs are monomers?

A

IgG, IgE, IgD

308
Q

Which Ig is associated with the primary response?

A

IgM

309
Q

Which Ig is associated with the secondary response?

A

IgG

310
Q

What shape is IgA?

A

Dimer

311
Q

Which Ig is the most abundant?

A

IgG (75-85%)

312
Q

Which Ig is the largest?

A

IgM

313
Q

Which Ig crosses from mother to placenta?

A

IgG

314
Q

Where is IgA found?

A

Secretory IgA found in bodily secretions like sweat, saliva, milk, intestinal juice, and mucous

315
Q

How does IgA help the epithelium?

A

It stops pathogens from attaching to the epithlium

316
Q

Which Ig is almost never found in the blood normally?

A

IgE

317
Q

What is IgE associated with?

A

Found with allergic reactions along with eosinophils, and binds to mast cells and basophils

318
Q

What happens when IgE binds to mast cells or basophils?

A

Antigen binding triggers the release of histamine and other chemicals initiating the inflammatory and allergic response

319
Q

What is IgD always bound to?

A

B lymphocytes

320
Q

WHat does IgD do for B lymphocytes?

A

It is used in B cell activation, and functions as a B cell antigen receptor

321
Q

What is somatic recombination?

A

THe shuffling and recombination of gene segments

322
Q

What are the names of the two types of gene segments?

A

Exons and introns

323
Q

What do Igs do to antibodies?

A

Tag them for destruction, creating an antigen-antibody complex

324
Q

What is the simplest defense mechanism in the immune system?

A

Neutralization

325
Q

What is neutralization?

A

Antibodies block specific sites on viruses or bacterial exotoxins (toxic chemicals secreted by bacteria)

326
Q

What is agglutination, in terms of the immune response?

A

Crosslinking of antigen antibody complexes form large lattices, creating clumping

327
Q

How can antibodies agglutinate?

A

They have more than one antigen binding site

328
Q

Which Ig is really good at agglutinating? How many binding sites does it have?

A

IgM has 10 binding sites

329
Q

What is precipitation?

A

Soluble molecules are cross linked into complexes that settle out of solution

330
Q

Why does the body practice precipitation?

A

THe complex is much easier to phagocytize

331
Q

What is the chief antibody defense?

A

Complement fixation and activation

332
Q

What two Igs can fix complement?

A

IgM and IgG

333
Q

What happens during complement fixation?

A

When several antibodies bind close together on the same cell, complement binding sites align, triggering complement fixation into antigenic cell’s surface, following cell lysis

334
Q

What do the molecules released during complement activation do?

A

Amplify the inflammatory response and promote phagotization by opsonization

335
Q

How is complement fixation a positive feedback cycle?

A

Amplifying the inflammatory response enlists more defense elements

336
Q

How do you remember the mechanisms antibodies use in defense?

A

Antibodies have a PLAN: precipitation, lysis (complement), agglutination, neutralization

337
Q

What do the PLAN mechanisms do to antigens overall?

A

Most of them make antigens more easily phagocytized

338
Q

What are the two major T cells of the cell mediated immune response?

A

CD4 and CD8

339
Q

What is the difference between CD4 and CD8 cells?

A

Different cell differentiation glycoproteins

340
Q

What do the glycoproteins on the CD cells do?

A

Play a role in interactions between T cells and other cells

341
Q

What do CD4 cells differentiate to?

A

Helper T cells and some regulatory T cells

342
Q

What do CD8 cells differentiate to?

A

Cytotoxic T cells

343
Q

What do helper T cells do?

A

Activate B, T, and macrophages and direct adaptive immune response

344
Q

What do cytotoxic T cells do?

A

Destroy any cells in the body that harbor anything foriegn

345
Q

What do regulatory T cells do?

A

Moderate the immune response

346
Q

What does CD stand for in CD4?

A

Cell differentiation glycoproteins

347
Q

What is a T helper cell called when it is naive?

A

CD4

348
Q

What is a cytotoxic T cell called when it is naive?

A

CD8

349
Q

What can activated CD4 and CD8 cells also differentiate into?

A

Memory cells

350
Q

What does a T cell receptor look like?

A

2 polypeptide chains with variable and constant regions

351
Q

When can T cells “see” and respond to antigens?

A

Once they have been processed and their fragments are displayed on cell surfaces

352
Q

What are the antigen presenting cells?

A

Dendritic
Macrophage
Langerhans cells
Some B cells

353
Q

What are the cell surface proteins one which antigens are presented to T cells called?

A

MHC proteins

354
Q

What kinds of cells are T cells good at killing?

A

Bacteria inside cells
Virally infected cells
Malignant cells
Transplanted cells

355
Q

What is double recognition?

A

In order to kill, a T cell must recognize the antigen (nonself) and MHC protein (self)

356
Q

What kind of T cells do MHC I proteins bind to?

A

Cytotoxic T cells - CD8

357
Q

What are endogenous antigens?

A

Fragments of proteins synthesized inside the cell that will indicate that the cell needs to be destroyed

358
Q

What are two examples of endogenous antigens?

A

Virally infected cell fragments

Malignant cell fragments

359
Q

Where are MHC II proteins found?

A

Only on the surface of cells that present antigens to CD4 cells (macrophages, dendritic, B cells)

360
Q

What is an exogenous antigen?

A

An antigen from outside the cell that has been engulfed by the cell that displays them

361
Q

What molecule breaks down exogenous antigens?

A

Phagolysosomes

362
Q

What does the phagolysosome then do with the broken down exogenous antigens?

A

A vesicle exports to the cells surface where the MHC II displays it for CD4 cells to recognize

363
Q

What are the two steps in T cell activation?

A

Antigen binding and costimulation

364
Q

Where does T cell activation occur?

A

On the surface of the APC

365
Q

What does antigen binding involve?

A

T cell antigen receptors bind to an antigen MHC complex on the surface of an APC

366
Q

What type of MHC protein binds to CD4 cells?

A

MHC II

367
Q

What type of MHC protein binds to CD8 cells?

A

MHC I

368
Q

What is immunologic surveillance?

A

The process by which T cells adhere to and crwal over the surface of other cells looking for antigens they might recognize

369
Q

What two types of cells conduct immunologic surveillance?

A

NK cells and dendritic cells

370
Q

What is costimulation?

A

Before a T cell can proliferate to form a clone, it must also bind to one or more costimulatory signals

371
Q

What are costimulatory signals?

A

Molecules that appear on APC surfaces in tissues that are damaged or invaded by pathogens

372
Q

What are three kinds of co stimulatory molecules?

A

Cytokines
B7 proteins
CD28

373
Q

What is anergy?

A

If T cells bind to antigen without receiving co stimulatory signals, the T cell becomes tolerant to that antigen and is unable to divide or secrete cytokines, resulting in a state of unresponsiveness

374
Q

What are cytokines?

A

Chemical messengers, mediators that influence cell development, differentiation, and response in the immune system

375
Q

What are two examples of cytokines?

A

Interleukins and interferons

376
Q

Which cell is the “boss” or the “director” in adaptive immunity?

A

Helper T cells

377
Q

What is the job of the helper T cell?

A

Function to stimulate proliferation of other T cells and B cells already bound to an antigen

378
Q

What are TH2 cells?

A

T helper 2 cells - prod B cells into more rapid division and production of antibodies by release of cytokines
Also promote emigration of eosinophil and basophils

379
Q

What are TH1 cells?

A

T helper 1 cells - stimulate proliferation of cytotoxic T cells and activate macrophages and stimulate inflammation

380
Q

What is another name for cytotoxic T cells?

A

Killer T cells (not the same as NK cells!)

381
Q

What is the function of cytotoxic T cells?

A

Only T cells that can directly attack and kill other cells

382
Q

What are the targets of cytotoxic T cells?

A

Virus infected cells
Cancer cells
Also bacterial and parasite infected cells
Also transplanted cells

383
Q

What do cytotoxic T cells bind to on the target cell?

A

Self-nonself complex - MHC I protein

384
Q

What two substances are secreted with the lethal hit?

A

Perforins and granzymes

385
Q

What do perforins do?

A

Create pores in the target cell

386
Q

What do granzymes do?

A

Enter via pores and degrade intracellular componenets of the target cell

387
Q

What are four examples of substances that Killer T cells secrete to destroy a target cell?

A

Perforins
Granzymes
Lymphotoxin
Gamma interferon

388
Q

What is another name for regulatory T cells?

A

Suppressor T cells

389
Q

What are regulatory T cells?

A

Release cytokines that inhibit the activity of B cells and other types of T cells

390
Q

What kind of cells do APCs present antigens to?

A

T helper cells

391
Q

On the graph, what Ig is the first hump?

A

IgM

392
Q

On the graph, at how many days does the primary response occur?

A

7-10 days

393
Q

On the graph, what Ig is at the second hump? What does this hump look like?

A

IgG is the larger hump

394
Q

Why is the second hump larger?

A

Because it is the secondary immune response - when there is a large influx of antibodies

395
Q

What is different about the length of the second hump’s curve?

A

It is longer because the secondary immune response lasts longer

396
Q

What does the picture of an APC and a CD4 cell look like?

A

An APC with MHC II protein
Antigen in between
CD4 T cell with a TCR
CD4 protein is the squiggle

397
Q

What does the picture of an APC and a CD8 cell look like?

A

An APC with MHC I protein
Antigen in between
CD8 T cell with a TCR
CD8 protein is the squiggle

From Flashcardlet (133 decks)

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