Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

From Flashcardlet > Patho 3 > Flashcards

Patho 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common cause of cancer death in both sexes?

A

Lung cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What cancer has the highest number of new cases?

A

Female - breast

Male - prostate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is causing the increases number of new incidences?

A

Early detection increases stats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a risk factor that increases the risk of every cancer?

A

Smoking!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is a benign growth?

A

Growth that usually does nt have the capacity to cause death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a malignant growth?

A

One that has the capacity to cause death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a cancer?

A

Malignant neoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a neoplasm?

A

Any abnormal growth of new cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is another word for neoplasm?

A

Tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is an exception to a benign tumor that can cause death?

A

Brain tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is oncology?

A

Study of neoplasms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are benign and malignant primarily defined by?

A

Behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the biologic capabilities of neoplasms?

A
  • Self sufficiency of growth signals
  • Evasion of growth suppression signals
  • Cells divide indefinitely
  • Evasion of apoptosis
  • Recruit nutrients via angiogenesis
  • Invade nearby tissue and spread to distant tissue
  • Evade immune surveillance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a carcinoma?

A

Malignant neoplasm of epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a sarcoma?

A

Malignant neoplasm of mesoderm ally derived tissue, like fat, bone, muscle, blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is an adenoma?

A

Benign tumor or a gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is an adenocarcinoma?

A

Malignant tumor of gland epithelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a benign/cancerous version of a fibrous tumor?

A

Fibroma - benign

Fibrosarcoma - malignant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is a benign/cancerous version of a skeletal muscle tumor?

A

Rhabdomyoma - benign

Rhabdomyosarcoma - malignant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the general term ending for benign?

A

Oma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the general term ending for malignant?

A

Sarcoma, carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the root cause of all neoplasm?

A

Damaged DNA, because all cell growth and division is dictated by the DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does carcinogenic mean?

A

Mutations that lead to cancer are characterized as carcinogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are RAS genes?

A

Regulate cell growth and proliferation - gene family encodes for proteins involved in cell signaling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What happens when RAS genes are mutated?

A

Cells grow uncontrollably and evade signs to die

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the four categories of mutant genes?

A
  • Protooncogenes
  • Tumor suppressor genes
  • Genes that regulate apoptosis
  • DNA repair genes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are protooncogenes?

A

Genes that promote normal cell growth - the “go” genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are oncogenes?

A

When protooncogenes become mutated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are tumor suppressor genes?

A

Stop switches that restrain normal cell growth by producing proteins that inhibit cell division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What happens if TSGs are mutated?

A

They lose the ability to inhibit cell growth - unsuppressed cell proliferation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What kind of gene is the p53 gene?

A

Gene that regulates apoptosis, also repairs injured DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What does the mutation of p53 often result in?

A

Mutation or loss of this gene is highly associated with many cancers (about one half)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are two generic causes for cancer?

A

Environmental factors stimulate cancer development

Genetic predisposition for development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are some environmental factors that cause cancer?

A
  • Chemical - cigarettes
  • Radiation (UV or ionizing)
  • Viral
  • Smoked foods
  • Carcinogens/topical
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

90% of which cancer associates with a mutation in RAS genes?

A

Pancreatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Are RAS genes protooncogenes or TSGs?

A

Both (?) they can cause cell growth to turn on and off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What happens if a RAS gene is mutated?

A

No control of the on/off function leads to rapid cell growth and cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Why would a tumor suppressor gene want to stop the growth of a cell?

A

If it was mutated, TSG would cause the cells destruction

If the cell was damaged, TSG holds growth to allow time to repair damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is an example of a mutated TSG gene?

A

Brock I and II genes, work on activating p53

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What genes are highly associated with breast and ovarian cancer?

A

Mutated Brock I and II

can also be linked with pancreatic and prostate cancers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What does estrogen do to cell growth?

A

It can proliferate cell growth and increase the demand for DNA repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How is estrogen involved in some cancers?

A

May cause the proliferation of cell growth of mutated cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How do telomeres play a role in cell division?

A

Keep track of how many times a cell divides by shortening with each division - run out of telomere, cell can no longer divide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How do telomeres help cancer replicate?

A

Some cancerous cells have developed a way to generate new telomere length, allowing them to divide indefinitely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are DNA repair genes?

A

Erroneous sequences of miscoded DNA are repaired by these “spell checkers”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What happens if a DNA repair gene is damaged?

A

Mutations of DNA go uncorrected and cancer can result

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are premalignant changes?

A

Before becoming fully malignant, damaged DNA provokes changes in cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is metaplasia?

A

Reversible change of one cell type into another caused by chronic injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Where does metaplasia usually occur?

A

Epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

When does metaplastic epithelium revert back to normal?

A

After injury stops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Is metaplasia precancerous?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is dysplasia?

A

Precancerous cellular change, usually arising in metaplastic epithlium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Is dysplasia reversible?

A

Yes, it can revert back to normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is dysplasia does not reverse?

A

It may progress to malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What does the growth rate of neoplasms depend on?

A

The number of dividing cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is carcinoma in situ?

A

Neoplasia that is confined to the epithelium - it has not penetrated the basement membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Why is carcinoma in situ called cancer that is “in place?”

A

Since it hasn’t reached the basement membrane, it cannot reach blood vessels or lymphatics in order to spread

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Is carcinoma in situ invasive?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are two hallmarks of malignancy?

A

Invasion and metastasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the immune defense against neoplasia?

A

Immune surveillance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

When is malignancy unable to be cured?

A

Once it acquires the ability to invade - when it penetrates the basement membrane and gains access to vessels and lymphatics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are the steps to the development of an epithelial malignancy?

A
  • Normal epithelium
  • Dysplasia
  • Carcinoma in situ
  • Early invasive carcinoma
  • Invasion of blood vessels or lymphatics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the longest step of the process to malignancy?

A

Acquiring a mutation - the transition from benign to malignant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the first step to becoming malignant?

A

Cell needs to be injured and development metaplasia/dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Why does a cancer patient lose weight?

A

The cancer cells have a higher metabolic rate because they have a higher nutrition and energy demand due to ongoing replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What do immunosuppressant drugs do to the risk of developing cancer?

A

Increase risk of cancer because they decrease the body’s ability to immune surveillance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Why is early detection key to survival of cancer?

A

We can contain the cancer and surgically remove it before it invades the blood and lymph, traveling to all parts of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What do malignant cells need to do in order to metastasize?

A

Must invade basement membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are some examples of metaplasia/dysplasia that are early detection signs of cancer?

A

Dysplasia of cervix
Barret esophagus - metaplasia
Polyps found in colonoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is a clone?

A

A set of identical cells descend form a single ancestor - the way neoplasms grow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What are monoclonal cells?

A

Arise from a single cell and grow as successive generation of that cell - neoplasms are initially monoclonal

72
Q

How do neoplasms diverge from monoclonal to multiple clonal populations?

A

As a tumor grows, some cells are altered and new clonal populations arise with different characteristics

73
Q

What is tumor cell heterogeneity?

A

Tumor composed of multiple sets of cells, each differing in some respect from the others - mutated cancer cells can develop further mutations

74
Q

How long can it take for a neoplasm to grow to a detectable size?

A

Many years to grow to about 1cm

75
Q

What is the tumor growth fraction?

A

The number of cells actually dividing in a tumor mass

76
Q

What is the tumor growth fraction important in determining?

A

The rate of growth - larger tumor growth fraction results in faster growth, because more cells are dividing at once

77
Q

How many generations does it take for a tumor to grow to a detectable size?

A

30 generation

78
Q

When is chemotherapy more successful, in terms of growth fraction?

A

More successful with tumors with a higher growth fraction rate because more cells are dividing and chemo can target more cells

79
Q

Once a tumor grows to a detectable size, what do we notice about its growth rate?

A

Growth rate is exponential, so once it grows to a detectable size, its growth in relation to its danger for the patient is faster

80
Q

What does the degree of differentation of a neoplasm refer to?

A

The degree to which it resembles normal tissue in function and appearance

81
Q

What is the differentiation of normal tissue?

A

Perfectly differentiated

82
Q

What do well differentiated tissues look like?

A

Similar to normal tissue

83
Q

What do poorly differentiated tissues look like?

A

Little or no semblance to normal tissues

84
Q

What kind of tumor are well differentiated?

A

Benign tumors

85
Q

What kind of tumor are poorly differentiated?

A

Malignant tumors

86
Q

Are well differentiated tissues slow or fast growing? Invasive or non?

A

Well differentiated tissues are generally slow growing and noninvasive

87
Q

How does tumor cell heterogeneity effect the survival of the cell?

A

It produces hardier cells with more success in evading the immune system - “survival of the fittest”

88
Q

How do neoplasms acquire nourishment?

A

Develop their own network of blood vessels by the process of angiogenesis

89
Q

What does the degree of angiogenesis affect?

A

The ability of malignant tumors to metastasize

90
Q

When do tumors stimulate angiogenesis?

A

Late in development - affect carcinoma in situ

91
Q

What is a reliable distinction between malignant and benign neoplasms?

A

Their ability to invade

92
Q

What does the growth of a benign tumor do to surrounding tissue?

A

Slow and rounded mass growth typically pushes aside nearby structures using blunt force

93
Q

Why do benign tumor growth typically not affect function of nearby tissues?

A

Slow growth gives the tissues time to adapt

94
Q

What does the growth of a malignant tumor do to surrounding tissue?

A

Malignant tumors invade nearby tissue twitch streams of destructive cells

95
Q

What is metastasis?

A

Discontinuous spread of tumor from one site to another

96
Q

What is the most reliable sign of malignancy?

A

Metastasis

97
Q

What are the three ways metastasis occurs?

A

Seeding across:

  • surface of body cavities
  • through lymphatics into lymph nodes
  • through blood
98
Q

What is seeding?

A

Occurs as tumor cells float from point to point in body fluid

99
Q

Where is seeding often seen?

A

Intra abdominal spread of ovarian and gastric cancer on surfaces of peritoneum and omentum

100
Q

What is carcinomatosis?

A

Condition in which multiple carcinomas develop simultaneously - result of seeding

101
Q

What are some clinical manifestations due to neoplasms?

A
  • Pressure of expanding tumor mass on nearby tissue
  • Infection or bleeding
  • Infarction or rupture
  • Wasting (cachexia)
  • Production of hormones
102
Q

How are most neoplasms discovered?

A

Due to their local effects

103
Q

What is cachexia?

A

Progressive loss of weight accompanied by weakness, lethargy, fatigue, and anemia - equally fat and muscle loss

104
Q

What does the assessment of neoplasms involve?

A
  • Obtaining thorough clinical history
  • Physical exam
  • Medical images
  • Laboratory data
  • Microscopic study of tissues and cells
105
Q

Why do cancer patients present with enlarged lymph nodes or spleen?

A

Due to the increased numbers of cells in the body from unregulated proliferation

106
Q

What are some opportunistic infections common in a patient with cancer?

A

Flu
C diff
Pneumonia
Thrush

107
Q

What is thrush a result of?

A

Candidiasis - yeast

108
Q

What are some common places for cancers to metastasize and why?

A

Liver - very vascular

Lung - all blood runs through lung

109
Q

What are two markers for colon cancer?

A

Blood in stool in a patient over 50, along with unintentional weight loss

110
Q

What do patients describe about their headaches with a brain tumor?

A

I usually get headaches, but these are different

111
Q

What is a general sign to look for metastasis?

A

New onset of symptoms

112
Q

What clotting disorders do cancer patients have a risk of?

A

PE, DVT

113
Q

Why do cancer patients have clotting problems?

A

Tumors produce procoagulant proteins

114
Q

What can we do for a patient with cachexia?

A

Appetite stimulants

115
Q

When do we biopsy nodules?

A

When they are larger than 1 cm or when they are growing

116
Q

What test do we use to biopsy nodules?

A

Fine needle aspiration

117
Q

What are tumor markers?

A

Substances produced by normal or neoplastic tissue and may appear in blood at increased levels in the presence of a neoplasm

118
Q

What is a prostate cancer tumor marker?

A

PSA - prostate specific antigen

119
Q

What is a colon cancer tumor marker?

A

CEA - carcinoembryonic antigen

120
Q

What is a ovarian cancer tumor marker?

A

CA 125 - Cancer antigen 125

121
Q

What is a liver cancer tumor marker?

A

AFP - alpha fetoprotein

122
Q

What is a pancreatic cancer tumor marker?

A

CA 19 - Cancer antigen 19

123
Q

What structure is found around a benign tumor, but not a malignant one?

A

Fibrous capsule - neoplasm is contained

124
Q

Why do malignant tumors have an increased risk for hemorrhaging?

A

They are extremely vascular

125
Q

What to the borders of malignant tumors look like, compared to benign tumors?

A

Bening are smooth and symmetrical, while malignant are asymmetrical and abnormal, with fingers invading adjacent tissue

126
Q

What is flow cytometry?

A

Method of physically separating and sort in individual cells of any kind according to certain physical characteristics

127
Q

Why are tumor markers not useful for early detection? What are they useful for?

A

They lack sensitivity and specificity (often falsely positive and negative) - they are useful to confirm diagnosis or monitor therapy

128
Q

What is a polyp?

A

A mass that protrudes from an epithelial surface

129
Q

What is a papilloma?

A

Growth in a fern or finger like pattern with prominent folds like a head of broccoli, rising above the epithelial surface

130
Q

What correlate better with tumor behavior, gross appearance, or microscopic structure?

A

Microscopic structure

131
Q

What is anaplasia?

A

Loss of differentiation - malignant cells are anaplastic

132
Q

What does the treatment of a cancer depend on?

A

Tumor grading and staging

133
Q

What is grading?

A

Assessment of degree of cell differentiation, nuclear atypic, and mitotic figures based on microscopic characteristics

134
Q

What is staging?

A

Evaluation of tumor behavior that relies on the size of the primary tumor and its spread, based on physical examination, history, and imaging

135
Q

What kind of tumors are graded and staged?

A

Malignant - not benign

136
Q

Which assessment is better a guide for making decisions about therapy and determining prognosis?

A

Staging

137
Q

What is a common system for staging?

A

TNM system

138
Q

What is the T for in TNM?

A

Tumor size

139
Q

What is the N for in TNM?

A

Extent of lymph node involvement

140
Q

What is the M for in TNM?

A

Distant metastases beyond local lymph nodes

141
Q

What would M0 signify?

A

No metastasis

142
Q

What is another staging system we can use for cancer?

A

Differentiation system - from poorly to well (I-III)

143
Q

What treatment is possible if the metastasis is advanced and surgery is not an option?

A

Surgery is not an option at first

  • radiation to shrink size of tumor
  • chemotherapy to kill floating malignant cells in system
  • Then possibly surgery
144
Q

Why is a cancer cure difficult?

A

Because some cancers may disappear with initial treatment only to recur years later from tiny foci of tumor cells that survived treatment

145
Q

What is the most common treatment for neoplasms?

A

Surgery

146
Q

What is removed during cancer removal surgery?

A

Mechanical removal of the cancer and if possible, a rim of normal tissue to ensure complete removal

147
Q

What is radiofrequency ablation?

A

Inserting a probe into the tumor that emits high frequency radio waves, which heat tissue to the point of necrosis

148
Q

What is cryotherapy?

A

Freezing tumor to induce necrosis

149
Q

What is laser therapy?

A

Treat superficial cancers by burning the tumor away

150
Q

How does radiation treat cancer?

A

It blocks tumor cell reproduction by damaging the cells DNA

151
Q

What kind of neoplasms are the most effected my chemotherapy and radiation?

A

Neoplasms that grow rapidly

152
Q

What is chemotherapy?

A

Drug treatment of malignant neoplasms by interfering with cancer cell reproduction

153
Q

What are three types of radiation?

A

Internal, external, and systemic

154
Q

What is an example of internal radiation?

A

Capsules, seeds, or needles of radioactive material are placed in the tumor

155
Q

What is an example of systemic radiation?

A

Administration of intravenous radioactive material which is circulated throughout the body, designed to be assimilated by the tumor

156
Q

What is the early detection method for cervical cancer?

A

Pap smears

157
Q

When should the first Pap smear be done?

A

Begin 3 years after intercourse, no later than 21

158
Q

How often should Pap smears be done?

A
  • Done every year until ago 30
  • After 30 screening may continue every 2-3 years for women who have had 3 consecutive negative results
  • Women may cease screening over 70 if they have had no abnormal Paps in the last 10 years
159
Q

What does an abnormal Pap smear detect?

A

Dysplasia of the cervix

160
Q

What virus increases the risk of cervical cancer?

A

HPV

161
Q

What is the early detection method for breast cancer?

A

Mammogram and self breast exams

162
Q

When should the first breast exam and mammogram be done?

A

Age 40 for mammogram

Age 20-40 for clinical breast exams

163
Q

How often should breast exams and mammograms be done?

A

Mammograms every year

Clinical breast exams every 3 years until 40, yearly thereafter

164
Q

What is the early detection method for prostate cancer?

A

PSA measurement

165
Q

Who should have a prostate biopsy done?

A

Young males with high PSA measurements rising rapidly from one year to the next

166
Q

When is PSA measurement testing recommended to start?

A

After age 50, or age 40 if patient has family history of prostate cancer

167
Q

What is the early detection method for colon cancer?

A

Colonoscopy

168
Q

When should the first colonoscopy be done?

A

Beginning at age 50, age 40 if family history of colon cancer

169
Q

How often should a colonoscopy be done?

A

Every 10 years if normal, every 3-5 years if polyps are found

170
Q

When can we stop screening for colon cancer?

A

Colonoscopy not indicated if patient has three normal results

171
Q

Why does blood in the stool indicate colon cancer?

A

Colon cancers arise from polyps, which tend to bleed

172
Q

What test can we use to detect lung cancer?

A

Low residue CT scan

173
Q

What does a low residue CT scan look for?

A

Nodules of a certain size, characteristic, and pattern - monitored to track progression

174
Q

What patients are indicated for having a low residue CT scan?

A

Patient over 50 that has a 30 pack/year smoking history

175
Q

What is a pack/year?

A

Number of packs a day smoked multiplied by the number of years smoked

From Flashcardlet (133 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions