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from flashcardlet > Anatomy Chapter 4 - Back > Flashcards

Anatomy Chapter 4 - Back Flashcards

1
Q

How many cervical vertebrae?

A

7

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2
Q

How many thoracic vertebrae?

A

12

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3
Q

How many lumbar vertebrae?

A

5

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4
Q

How many sacral vertebrae?

A

5

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5
Q

How many coccygeal vertebrae?

A

3 or 4 fused

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6
Q

What is kyphosis?

A

Concave anteriorly

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7
Q

What is lordosis?

A

Concave posteriorly

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8
Q

Where does the back have natural kyphosis?

A

Thoracic and sacral

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9
Q

Where does the back have natural lordosis?

A

Cervical and lumbar

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10
Q

Which curvature is primary, and what does this indicate?

A

Kyphosis is primary, meaning it was present at birth

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11
Q

Which curvature is secondary, and what does this indicate?

A

Lordosis is secondary, because the curvature was acquired - cervical in supporting the head, and lumbar in learning to walk

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12
Q

What are the functions of the vertebral column?

A
  • Weight bearing
  • Mobility
  • Protection
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13
Q

What is accentuated kyphosis due to?

A

Old age, when discs dry out or osteoporosis causes the collapse of vertebral bodies

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14
Q

What is the vertebral arch?

A

Posterior to vertebral body and consists of two pedicles and laminae

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15
Q

Where are the pedicles?

A

Closer to the vertebral body

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16
Q

Where are the laminae?

A

Closer to the spinous process

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17
Q

Where is the vertebral foramen?

A

Hole in the center of the vertebra

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18
Q

What consists the facet joints?

A

Superior and inferior articular processes

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19
Q

What is another name for the facet joint?

A

Zygapophysial joints

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20
Q

Where is the line of gravity in the body?

A

Hits inflection points of the spine - external auditory meatus, cervical, lumbar

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21
Q

Where is the body’s center of gravity?

A

Anterior to sacral promontory

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22
Q

What articulates at the body’s center of gravity?

A

The sacrum is tipped forward for the articulation of L5 and S1

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23
Q

What is spina bifida?

A

A common birth defect of the vertebral column in which the neural arches of L5/S1 fail to develop normally and fuse posterior to the vertebral canal; ectoderm fails to close in the middle

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24
Q

What is spina bifida cystica?

A

One or more vertebral arches may fail to develop completely

Herniation of the meninges

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25
Q

What is a less severe form of spina bifida?

A

Spina bifida oculta - people usually don’t know they have the defect

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26
Q

How do we prevent spina bifida?

A

Prenatal vitamins with folic acid prevents spina bifida by 80%

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27
Q

What does bifid refer to?

A

Two prong vertebrae

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28
Q

Why do elderly people get shorter?

A

Progressive erosion and collapse of vertebrae, possibly due to osteoporosis

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29
Q

What is excessive lordosis associated with?

A

Weakened trunk musculature, increased extension of the lumbar vertebae

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30
Q

What is scoliosis?

A

Abnormal lateral curvature that is accompanied by rotation of the vetebrae

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31
Q

What does osteoporosis result from?

A

A net demineralization of the bones caused by a disruption of the normal balance of valium deposition and resorption - quality of bone is reduced and atrophy of skeletal tissue occurs

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32
Q

Where is osteoporosis seen in the vertebrae?

A

Diminished spongy trabecular bone of the vertebral bodies - the horizontal trabecular of the trabecular bone of the vertebral body

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33
Q

What does osteoporosis of the vertebral bodies result in?

A

Kyphosis

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34
Q

What does the sudden forceful flexion of the spine cause?

A

Common in car accidents, forceful flexion produces a crush or compression fracture of the vertebral bodies

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35
Q

What does violent anterior movement of the vertebra cause?

A

In combination with compression can cause a vertebra to be displaced anteriorly on the vertebra inferior to it

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36
Q

Which vertebrae are most commonly fractured?

A

T11 and T12 due to the transition from the inflexible thoracic region to the mobile lumbar region

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37
Q

What is spondylolysis?

A

Fracture of the column of bones connecting the superior and infer articular processes

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38
Q

What is spondylolisthesis?

A

Dislocation between adjacent vertebrae - slipping

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39
Q

What vertebrae typically slip in spondylolisthesis?

A

L5 off of S1 due to the downward tipping of the sacrum

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40
Q

What does the broken neck at the Scotty dog indicate?

A

Spondylolysis

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41
Q

What is a laminectomy?

A

Surgical excision of one or more spinous processes and the adjacent support ing vertebral laminae (or removal of vertebral arch by transecting the pedicles)

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42
Q

Why are laminectomies performed?

A

To gain access to the vertebral canal, providing posterior exposure of the spinal cord and the roots of specific nerves

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43
Q

Why would a laminectomy be performed in the case of a condition of the spine?

A

To relieve pressure on the spinal cord or nerve roots caused by tumor, herniated dixc, or bony hypertrophy

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44
Q

What determined the type of movement allowed in an area of the spine?

A

The orientation of the articular facets on the articular processes

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45
Q

Why are cervical vertebrae smaller?

A

Less weight bearing

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46
Q

Which vertebrae are atypically shaped?

A

C1 and C2

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47
Q

What is the name for C1?

A

Altas

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48
Q

What is the name for C2?

A

Axis

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49
Q

What is characteristic about the cervical spinous process?

A

Bifid

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50
Q

What is characteristic about the cervical transverse processes?

A

Transverse foramen

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51
Q

Why do the cervical vertebrae have transverse foramen?

A

For the vertebral artery to provide circulation to the brain

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52
Q

Does the cervical artery run through all 7 vertebrae?

A

No, bypasses C7

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53
Q

What is the name for C7 and why?

A

Prominent vertebrae because of its large spinous process - it is the first palpable vertebrae when you bend forward

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54
Q

What is characteristic about the cervical IV discs?

A

Relatively thick compared to vertebral height

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55
Q

Do all vertebrae have IV discs?

A

No, C1 C2 has no disc

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56
Q

Why are the cervical IV discs relatively thick?

A

The cervical area has the greatest range and variety of movement

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57
Q

What is the orientation of the articular facets in the cervical region?

A

Nearly horizontal

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58
Q

Why are cervical facets horizontal?

A

Provide for the optimal position for all planes of movement

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59
Q

Why do cervical vertebrae have large vertebral foramina?

A

To accommodate the cervical enlargement of the spinal cord, as a consequence of the region’s role in the innervation of the upper limbs

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60
Q

What is the uncinate process?

A

Elevated superolateral margin of the vertebral body

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61
Q

Which vertebrae have uncinate processes?

A

C3-C6

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62
Q

What is the function of the uncinate process?

A

Stabilization - allows the cerebral bodies to sit on one another

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63
Q

What is the name for the stabilizing joints between the vertebral bodies in the cervical region?

A

Luschka joints, uncovertebral joints

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64
Q

What is common with uncovertebral joints?

A

Arthritis and osteophytes commonly grow here

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65
Q

What happens when osteophytes grow and protrude into the spinal cord?

A

Parathesia, numbness, tingling

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66
Q

Where do spinal nerves exit the cervical region?

A

Above the cervical vertebral bodies

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67
Q

What does the C1 C2 facet joint look like and why?

A

Strictly horizontal to allow for rotation of the head

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68
Q

What does the atlas lack?

A

No vertebral body, no spinous process

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69
Q

What is the shape of C1?

A

Ring

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70
Q

What is unique about the superior articular facet and why?

A

Concave and large to articulate with the cranial occipital condyles at the sides of the foramen mangum

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71
Q

What is the groove on the posterior arch of C1 present for?

A

Vertebral artery and C1 spinal nerve

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72
Q

What movement is allowed at the atlas? What is the joint called?

A

Yes movement at the altanto-occipital joints

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73
Q

What is the defining characteristic of the axis?

A

Dens (odontoid process)

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74
Q

What is the function of the dens?

A

Pivot about which the rotation of the head occurs

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75
Q

What movement is allowed at the axis? What is the joint called?

A

No movement at the atlantoaxial joints

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76
Q

What does C1 have instead of a spinous process?

A

Tubercle

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77
Q

What was the dens most likely supposed to be?

A

The vertebral body for C1

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78
Q

What comprises the atlantoaxial joint?

A

Dens and the anterior tubercle of C1

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79
Q

What are the three joints between C1 and C2?

A

One pivot joint - median atlantoaxial joint

Two planar joints - lateral atlantoaxial joints

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80
Q

What type of synovial joint is the occipital-axial joint?

A

Condyloid

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81
Q

If a vertebra has a costal facet, what region of the spine is it from?

A

Thoracic

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82
Q

What shape is the thoracic vertebral body?

A

Heart shaped

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83
Q

What is characteristic about the thoracic spinous process?

A

Slopes inferiorly

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84
Q

What are the names of costal facets?

A

Superior, inferior, and transverse

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85
Q

What orientation are the articular facets of the thoracic vertebrae?

A

Vertical

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86
Q

What plane are the thoracic articular facets in?

A

Coronal

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87
Q

Which way to the thoracic superior articular facets face?

A

Posterior

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88
Q

Which way to the thoracic inferior articular facets face?

A

Anterior

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89
Q

What movement is allowed at the thoracic region?

A

Rotation (limited flexion, extension, and lateral bending)

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90
Q

How is a rib named?

A

Where the rib articulates twice - superior and transverse costal facets

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91
Q

How would you name a rib 7th?

A

7th rib articulates once with T6’s inferior costal facet and twice with T7’s superior and transverse costal facet

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92
Q

Where are the thoracic vertebrae resembling the cervical vertebrae?

A

T1-T4

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93
Q

Where are the thoracic vertebrae resembling the lumbar vertebrae?

A

T9-T12

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94
Q

Where are there typical thoracic vertebrae?

A

T5-T8

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95
Q

Where is the greatest degree of rotation permitted?

A

T5-T8

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96
Q

What does the thoracic vertebral foramen look like?

A

Smaller than the cervical and lumbar foramina

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97
Q

What is a distinguishing characteristic of lumbar vertebrae?

A

Mammillary process

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98
Q

Where is the mammillary process?

A

Bump on the superior articular process

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99
Q

What do the vertebral bodies of the lumbar spine look like?

A

Large

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100
Q

What orientation are the articular facets of the lumbar vertebrae?

A

Vertical

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101
Q

What plane are the lumbar articular facets in?

A

Sagittal

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102
Q

Which way to the lumbar superior articular facets face?

A

Superiomedially

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103
Q

Which way to the lumbar inferior articular facets face?

A

Inferolaterally

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104
Q

What movement is permitted in the lumbar region?

A

Flexion, extension, lateral flexion (limited rotation)

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105
Q

What do the articular facets of T12 look like?

A

Superior facets are coronal like typical thoracic vertebrae, but inferior facets are sagittal to articulate with lumbar vertebrae

106
Q

Why is T12 commonly fractured?

A

Due to hyperextension in an area that transitions from rigidity to flexibility

107
Q

Why do the size of vertebral bodies increase inferiorly down the spine?

A

Weight bearing

108
Q

Why is L5 the largest vertebrae?

A

Because if carries the weight of the whole upper body

109
Q

What muscles attach to the mammillary process?

A

Multifidus

110
Q

What plane to the articular facets transition to in the lower lumbar region?

A

Transition to coronal plane to articulate with sacrum

111
Q

Why do lumbar vertebrae have smaller vertebral foramen?

A

Only the cauda equina needs to pass through

112
Q

What is the cauda equina?

A

The nerve roots of spinal nerves

113
Q

What is lumbar spinal stenosis?

A

Stenotic vertebral foramen in lumbar vertebrae, causing compression of spinal nerve roots

114
Q

How do we treat lumbar spinal stenosis?

A

Laminectomy to relieve pressure off of roots

115
Q

What is the orientation of the sacrum?

A

Oblique

116
Q

What is the sacral canal?

A

The continuation of the vertebral canal in the sacrum, houses cauda equina

117
Q

What comprises the median crest of the sacrum?

A

Spinous processes

118
Q

What comprises the intermediate crest of the sacrum?

A

Articular processes

119
Q

What comprises the lateral crest of the sacrum?

A

Transverse processes

120
Q

What protrudes from the anterior foramina of the sacrum?

A

Ventral primary rami

121
Q

What is the sacral promontory?

A

Anterior projecting edge of the body of the S1 vertebra

122
Q

What is the sacral hiatus resulting from?

A

Absence of the laminae and spinous process of S5 and sometimes S4

123
Q

What is the sacral cornea?

A

Represents the infer articular processes of S5

124
Q

What is the auricular surface?

A

Site of synovial part of sacra iliac joint, covered in hyaline cartilage

125
Q

What happens with caudal epidural anesthesia?

A

During childbirth, injected into epidural space in the sacral canal; dissolved myelin, causing decreased sensations

126
Q

Where is caudal epidural administered?

A

Palpate cornua to find sacrococcygeal ligament

127
Q

What is the annulus fibrosus?

A

Bulging fibrous ring consisting of concentric lamellae of fibrocartilage forming the circumference of the intervertebral disc

128
Q

What is the nucleus pulposus?

A

Eccentric core of the intervertebral disc, semifluid nature (high water content) responsible for flexibility and resilience of IV disc

129
Q

What is a herniated IV disc?

A

Nucleus pulposus is protruding posteriorly through the annulus fibrosus

130
Q

Why is the posterior IV disc more susceptible to herniation?

A

Anteriorly there are strong ligaments present, but posterior lacks ligaments

131
Q

What results with a lateral herniation?

A

Spinal nerve compression

132
Q

What results with a posterior herniation?

A

Encroaching on roots or cauda equina

133
Q

What kind of joint is between vertebral bodies?

A

Intervertebral joints - symphyses (secondary cartilaginous joints)

134
Q

What kind of joint is between the vertebral arches?

A

Synovial facet or zygapophysial joints

135
Q

What type of joint is between uncinate processes?

A

Uncovertebral joints of Luschka

136
Q

Why are facet joints of clinical interest?

A

They are close to the intervertebral foramina where the spinal nerves emerge 0 when these joints are injured or develop osteophytes the nerves are often affected

137
Q

What is denervation of lumbar zygapopysial joints?

A

Procedure used for treatment of back pain caused by disease of the joints, nerves are sectioned near the joints or are destroyed by radiofrequency

138
Q

What part of the IV disc dries out as patients age?

A

Nucleus

139
Q

What happens to the size of IV discs as patients age?

A

They increase in size

140
Q

What is the function of ligaments associated with the spine?

A

Limit excessive movement (flexion and extension)

Stabilize the intervertebral discs and vertebral bodies

141
Q

Where does the anterior longitudinal ligament span from?

A

Sacrum to C2

142
Q

What movement does the anterior longitudinal ligament limit?

A

Only ligament that limits extension!

143
Q

Where does the posterior longitudinal ligament span from?

A

Sacrum to C2

144
Q

What is the PLL continuous superiorly with?

A

Tectorial membrane

145
Q

Which longitudinal ligament is broader and stronger?

A

Anterior

146
Q

Where is the PLL located? What is it attached to?

A

Posterior to vertebral body but anterior to spinal cord, runs within vertebral canal
Attached tightly to IV discs, not tightly attached to vertebrae

147
Q

What movement does the posterior longitudinal ligament limit?

A

Weakly resist hyperflexion and helps prevent posterior herniation of the nucleus pulposus

148
Q

What are five more posterior ligaments?

A
  • Flavum
  • Supraspinous
  • Nuchal
  • Interspinous
  • Intertransverse
149
Q

Where are the flavae located?

A

Connect lamina to lamina

150
Q

Are the flavae continuous?

A

No, start and stop between vertebrae

151
Q

Where are flavae thinnest/thickest?

A

Thinnest in cervical, thickest in lumbar

152
Q

What color is the flavum?

A

Yellow

153
Q

Where does the supraspinous run from?

A

Sacrum to C7

154
Q

Where is the supraspinous located?

A

Connecting the tips of the spinous processes

155
Q

What does the supraspinous merge with at the back of the neck?

A

Nuchal ligament

156
Q

Where does the nuchal ligament run from?

A

C7 to occiput

157
Q

Where is the interspinous located?

A

Connect adjoining spinous processes, attaching from the root to the apex of each process

158
Q

Where is the inter transverse ligament located?

A

Connect adjacent transverse processes

159
Q

Which ligament is the continuation of the supraspinous ligament?

A

Nuchal

160
Q

What do posterior ligaments function to prevent?

A

Excessive flexion

161
Q

What color is the flavum ligaments?

A

Yellow

162
Q

Why is the nuchal ligament wide and deep?

A

Depth to account for lordosis of the cervical spine

163
Q

What action do the intertransverse ligaments participate in?

A

Limit lateral flexion

164
Q

What is the atlanto occipital joint?

A

Articulation between occipital condyles and superior articular facets of C1

165
Q

What movements are produced at the atlanto occipital joint?

A
  • Yes movement

- Slight lateral flexion of C1

166
Q

How many atlanto axial joints are there?

A

Three

167
Q

What are the atlanto axial joints?

A

Median AA joint - Dens and anterior facet for dens

Lateral AA joints (2) - superior and inferior articular facets

168
Q

What movements are produced at the atlanto axial joint?

A

Rotation of the head

169
Q

What is the anterior atlanto occipital membrane continuous with?

A

Anterior antlanto axial membrane and anterior longitudinal ligament

170
Q

What is the posterior atlanto occipital membrane continuous with?

A

Ligamentum flavum and posterior atlanto axial membrane

171
Q

Where does the name change from the flavum and ALL occur?

A

C2

172
Q

What is the continuation of the PLL?

A

Tectorial membrane

173
Q

What are the bands of the cruciate ligament?

A

Transverse, superior longitudinal, and inferior longitudinal

174
Q

What is the function of the transverse cruciate ligament?

A

Holds dens of C2 in the AA joint

175
Q

Where do the superior and inferior cruciate ligaments span?

A

From the transverse ligament to the occipital bone superiorly, and the body of C2 inferiorly

176
Q

What are the alar ligaments?

A

Extends from dens to lateral margins of foramen magnum, attaching cranium to C1

177
Q

What is the function of the alar ligaments?

A

Limits rotation of C1 and C2

178
Q

What kind of arteries supply vertebrae?

A

Segmental, radicular arteries

179
Q

Where do segmental arteries arise from?

A

Arise from aorta in the thoracic and lumber, arise from the vertebral arteries in cervical

180
Q

Are segmental arteries single or paired?

A

Paired

181
Q

Where do the spinal branches of the blood supply enter to reach the vertebral canal?

A

IV foramina

182
Q

What comprises the anterior spinal artery?

A

Anastomoses of segmental arteries

183
Q

What does radicular imply?

A

The arteries are following the nerve roots

184
Q

Why do the spinal arteries anastomose?

A

Provides redundancy, in case of blockage, there are alternative routes to the spinal cord

185
Q

How many anterior and posterior spinal arteries are there?

A

One anterior, two posterior

186
Q

What does ischemia of the spinal cord lead to?

A

Muscle weakness and paralysis

187
Q

What happens to neurons in the site of ischemia in the spinal cord?

A

Neurons die and the patient may lose all sensation and voluntary movement inferior to the level of impaired blood supply

188
Q

What are two complications that lead to interrupted blood supply to the spinal cord?

A

Fractures and dislocations

189
Q

What muscles are involved in the elevation of the scapula?

A

Trapezius, descending
Levator scapulae
Rhomboids

190
Q

What muscles are involved in the depression of the scapula?

A 
(Gravity)
Pectoralis major and minor
Latissimus dorsi
Trapezius, ascending
Serratus anterior
191
Q

What muscles are involved in the protraction of the scapula?

A

Serratus anterior

Pectoralis major and minor

192
Q

What muscles are involved in the retraction of the scapula?

A

Trapezius, middle
Rhomboids
Latissimus dorsi

193
Q

What muscles are involved in the upward rotation of the scapula?

A

Trapezius, descending and ascending

Serratus anterior

194
Q

What muscles are involved in the downward rotation of the scapula?

A 
(Gravity)
Latissimus dorsi
Levator scapulae
Rhomboids
Pectoralis major and minor
195
Q

What is the movement of the scapula in reference to?

A

In reference to glenoid

196
Q

What kind of joint is the scapula?

A

Physiologic, anatomical joint

197
Q

How can you remember the actions of the trapezius, in terms of arrows?

A

If all arrows point to insertion, the action is the opposite of that arrow

198
Q

What muscle is the main mover of the scapula?

A

Trapezius

199
Q

What muscle is the main mover of the humerus?

A

Latissimus dorsi

200
Q

What muscle is the superficial layer of the cervical back area?

A

Splenius - capitis and cervicis

201
Q

What are the divisions of spinals?

A

Thoracis, cervicis, capitis

202
Q

What are the divisions of longissimus?

A

Thoracis, cervicis, capitis

203
Q

What are the divisions of iliocostalis?

A

Lumborum, thoracis, cervicis

204
Q

What is a back sprain?

A

Injury in which only ligamentous tissue, or the attachment of ligament to bone, is involved without dislocation or fracture

205
Q

What is a back strain?

A

Injury involves some degree of stretching or microscopic tearing of muscle fibers

206
Q

What is a back spasm?

A

Protective mechanism, back muscles spasm after an injury or in response to inflammation

207
Q

What muscle is innervated by anterior rami?

A

Serratus anterior

208
Q

What erector spinae muscles attach to the broad tendon?

A

Iliocostalis and longissimus

209
Q

What are the divisions of the erector spinae named for?

A

Their attachment to ribs - cervicis, thoracis, lumborum

210
Q

What orientation is the erector spinae?

A

Superolateral

211
Q

What orientation is the transversospinalis?

A

Superomedial

212
Q

How many spinal levels do the semispinalis span?

A

4

213
Q

How many spinal levels do the multifidus span?

A

2-4

214
Q

How many spinal levels do the rotatores span?

A

1-2

215
Q

What spinal region does the semispinalis lie in?

A

Cervical

216
Q

What spinal region does the rotatores lie in?

A

Lumbar

217
Q

What spinal region does the multifidus lie in?

A

Thoracic

218
Q

Which transversospinalis allows rotation, semispinalis or multifidus?

A

Semispinalis

219
Q

Which transversospinalis is more superficial, multifidus or rotatores?

A

Multifidus

220
Q

Where does a capitis region attach?

A

Nuchal lines

221
Q

Name the muscles of the neck from most superficial to deep?

A

Trapezius
Splenius
Semispinalis
Suboccipital triangle

222
Q

What are the muscles involved in the sub occipital triangle?

A

Rectus capitis posterior major
Superior obliquus capitis
Inferior obliquus capitis

223
Q

What are the bony landmarks of the sub occipital triangle?

A

C1 transverse
C2 spinous
Nuchal lines

224
Q

What attaches to the C1 transverse process in the sub occipital triangle?

A

Superior obliquus capitis

Inferior obliquus capitis

225
Q

What attaches to the C2 spinous process in the sub occipital triangle?

A

Rectus capitis posterior major

Inferior obliquus capitis

226
Q

What attaches to the nuchal line in the sub occipital triangle?

A

Rectus capitis posterior major

Superior obliquus capitis

227
Q

What two vessels are present within the sub occipital triangle?

A

Vertebral artery and greater occipital nerve

228
Q

What is the cervical name for the greater occipital nerve?

A

Posterior ramus C2

229
Q

What is the cervical name for the sub occipital nerve?

A

Posterior ramus C1

230
Q

Where does the spinal cord begin and end?

A

Begins at the caudal brainstem (where the brainstem exits the foramen magnum)
Ends at the medullary cone

231
Q

Where is the name change of the spinal cord from the brainstem?

A

The level where it passes through the foramen magnum

232
Q

What spinal level is the conus medullaris?

A

L1 - L2

233
Q

What is the spinal level of the conus medullaris of an infant?

A

As far as L3

234
Q

Where is the cervical enlargement of the spinal cord?

A

C4-T1

235
Q

What is the cervical enlargement reflective of?

A

Innervation of the upper limbs

236
Q

Where is the lumbosacral enlargement of the spinal cord?

A

T11-S1

237
Q

What is the lumbosacral enlargement reflective of?

A

Innervation of the lower limbs

238
Q

What is the cauda equina comprised of?

A

Nerve roots of the lower lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal

239
Q

What are the nerve roots named for?

A

What vertebral level they are found at - where the root exits the vertebrae

240
Q

What is the spinal level?

A

Where nerve roots attach to the spinal cord - therefore the cauda equina’s spinal level is about L1 for all the roots

241
Q

What does transection of the spinal cord at C1-C3 cause?

A

No function below head level, ventilator is required for respiration

242
Q

What does transection of the spinal cord at C4-C5 cause?

A

Quadriplagia

243
Q

What does transection of the spinal cord at C6-C8 cause?

A

Loss of lower limb function combined with loss of hand and upper limb function

244
Q

What does transection of the spinal cord at T1-T9 cause?

A

Paraplegia, amount of trunk control varies with height of the lesion

245
Q

What does transection of the spinal cord at T10-L1 cause?

A

Some thigh muscle function, may allow walking with braces

246
Q

What does transection of the spinal cord at L2-L3 cause?

A

Retention of most leg muscle function, short leg braces may be required for walking

247
Q

What are spinal roots?

A

Nerve fibers that exit or enter the spinal cord to and from a peripheral spinal nerve

248
Q

What is a spinal cord segment?

A

Area of the cord defined by attachment of rootlets from only one spinal nerve

249
Q

What are the three meninges?

A

Dura mater
Arachnoid mater
Pia mater

250
Q

What are the three meningeal spaces?

A

Extradural
Subdural
Subarachnoid

251
Q

What is the extradural space?

A

Equivalent to epidural space - real space full of fat and internal vertebral venous plexus

252
Q

What is the subdural space?

A

Potential space between the dura and arachnoid matters

253
Q

Why is the subdural space only a potential space?

A

The CSF in the subarachnoid space pushes the arachnoid mater against the dura mater

254
Q

What is the subarachnoid space?

A

Real space between the arachnoid and pia mater that contains CSF

255
Q

Which spaces are real spaces and which are potential?

A

Extradural and subarachnoid are real spaces

Subdural is a potential space

256
Q

What is a lumbar spinal puncture?

A

Withdrawal of CSF from the lumbar cistern (subarachnoid space) to evaluate a variety of CNS disorders

257
Q

How is a patient positioned in the lumbar spinal puncture?

A

On his side in the knee to chest position

258
Q

Why does a patient sit in the fetal position in the LP?

A

So the flexion of the vertebral column creates more space between the vertebrae

259
Q

What noise is associated with lumbar spinal puncture?

A

2 pops

260
Q

What do the 2 pops in the spinal tap represent?

A

Ligamentum flavum and dura puncture

261
Q

Where is the spinal tap performed?

A

Iliac crest

262
Q

What vertebral levels is the iliac crest?

A

L4-L5

from flashcardlet (133 decks)

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