Micro/Immuno 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two types of immunity?

A

Innate and adaptive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is another term for adaptive immunity?

A

Acquired immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which type of immunity is specific?

A

Adaptive or acquired

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which type of immunity is nonspecific?

A

Innate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which mechanism is the first line of defense?

A

Innate defenses - barriers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When do we acquire innate defenses?

A

We are born with them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Why are innate defenses non specific?

A

They function the same way against many different pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Does innate immunity have memory?

A

No, there is no enhancement or improvement on subsequent encounters with the same pathogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are some examples of innate immunity defenses?

A

Fever, inflammation, phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When does the body acquire specific defenses?

A

Takes time to develop after birth and usually reaches optimum later in life; after reaching a peak, the defenses deteriorate slowly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What line of defense is specific immunity?

A

Third line of defense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Does specific immunity have memory?

A

Yes, it improves with multiple encounters with the same pathogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Why is acquired immunity specific?

A

Cells and proteins protect only against one or a few specific pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Where are barriers of the first line of defense present?

A

Body surfaces - portals of entry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How do barriers resist invasion?

A

Prevent invasion by preventing adhesion or dislodging already adhered pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the three types of barriers?

A
  • Physical/structural
  • Mechanical/physiological
  • Biochemical
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Why are barriers present at the portal of entry?

A

This is where pathogens need to attach and invade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are some examples of a physical barrier?

A
  • Epithelial cells of intact skin
  • Intact inner mucous membranes
  • Normal flora
  • Mucous
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How is intact skin a physical barrier?

A

Outer layers of dead, keratinized, packed together cells are relatively impermeable to pathogens; cells also slough off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How is intact inner mucous membranes a physical barrier?

A

Mucous and normal flora can black the attachment to portals of entry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are some examples of mechanical barriers?

A

Movements along certain body surfaces:

  • GI tract peristalsis
  • Urinary tract urination
  • Blinking
  • Mucociliary escalator in respiratory tract
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How does the respiratory tract participate in mechanical barriers?

A
  • Ciliated epithelial cells moves particulate material up the respiratory tract
  • Post nasal drip causes swallowing of pathogens to stomach to be digested
  • Coughing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How does blinking participate in mechanical barriers?

A

Prevents adhesion to eyeball

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How does urination participate in mechanical barriers?

A

Flushing mechanism dislodges adhered pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are some examples of where biochemical barriers exist?

A

Chemicals:

  • skin
  • Stomach
  • Respiratory tract
  • Blood
  • Normal flora
  • Tears, saliva, nasal secretions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What kind of biochemical barriers are present on the skin?

A
  • Keratin
  • Salt from perspiration
  • Fatty acids in sebum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What kind of biochemical barriers are present on the stomach?

A
Acid - HCl
Low pH (about 2)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What kind of biochemical barriers are present on the respiratory tract?

A

Mucous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What kind of biochemical barriers are present on the blood?

A

Transferrins (ex. lactoferrin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How does transferrin act as a biochemical barrier?

A

Iron binding protein that sequesters bodily iron and keep it from pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What kind of biochemical barriers are present in the tears, nasal secretions, and saliva?

A

Lysozyme - antibacterial enzyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What kind of biochemical barriers are present in the normal flora?

A

Normal flora of large intestine secrete bacteriocins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What does lysozyme do?

A

Degrades peptidoglycan in gram positive cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are some examples of biochemical barrier chemicals?

A
  • Defensins

- Catatonic Polypeptides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Where are defensins found?

A

Blood, lymph, and other bodily fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What kind of range do defensins have?

A

Short range

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are cationic peptides?

A

Type of biological activity is related to their ability to damage bacterial plasma membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the three types of cationic peptides?

A

First, second, and third class

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are first class cationic peptides?

A

Linear, alpha helical peptides that lack cysteine amino acid residues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is an example of a first class cationic peptide?

A

Cathelicidin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are second class cationic peptides?

A

Peptides that are open ended, rich in arginine and cysteine, and disulfide linked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is an example of a second class cationic peptide?

A

Defensins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What type of cells produce second class cationic peptides?

A
  • Neutrophils
  • Intestinal Paneth cells
  • Intestinal and respiratory epithelial cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are third class cationic peptides?

A

Larger peptides that are enriched for specific amino acids and exhibit regular structural repeats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is an example of a third class cationic peptide?

A

Histatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Where is histatin found?

A

Present in human saliva and has anti-fungal activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the second line of defense?

A

Interior nonspecific defenses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Where are interior nonspecific defenses located?

A

Within the physical barriers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What do interior nonspecific defenses generally involve?

A

Leukocytes, products of leukocytes, and certain other body processes that work against pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are some examples of interior nonspecific defenses?

A
Phagocytes
Eosinophils
NK cells
Complement
Interferon
Fever
Inflammation
Coughing/sneezing
Diarrhea
ADCC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What types of cells are granulocytes?

A

Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is another name for neutrophil?

A

Polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which leukocytes are the most numerous during non disease times?

A

Neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What percentage of WBCs are neutrophils?

A

60-70%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How long do neutrophils live?

A

2-3 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Why are neutrophils the first responders?

A

Because they are constantly in circulation in non disease times

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the most important activity of neutrophils?

A

Phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What percentage of WBCs are eosinophils?

A

2-4%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Is an eosinophil a phagocyte?

A

Minor phagocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What substances do eosinophils secrete?

A

Cytokines which help regulate inflammation

  • Antiprotozoal chemicals
  • Antihelminthe chemicals
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

When do numbers of eosinophils increase?

A

During worm and protozoal infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is a helminthe?

A

Large parasitic worm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What size pathogens do eosinophils typically respond to?

A

Larger pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What percentage of WBCs are basophils?

A

Less than 1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Are basophils phagocytic?

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What cells are related to basophils?

A

Mast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the difference between a basophil and mast cell?

A

Basophil - circulating cell

Mast cell - in tissue

68
Q

What is a basophils main function?

A

Releases inflammatory mediators like histamine

69
Q

What cells stem from myeloid precursors?

A
  • Monocyte (macrophage, dendritic cells)
  • Eosinophil
  • Basophil (mast cells)
  • Neutrophil
  • Platelets
  • Red blood cells
70
Q

What cells stem from lymphoid precursors?

A
  • Lymphocytes

- Dendritic cells

71
Q

How are dendritic cells differentiated (3)?

A
  • From monocytes
  • From myeloid precursor
  • From lymphoid precursor
72
Q

How are monocytes related to dendritic cells and macrophages?

A

Monocytes are the blood form

73
Q

What is an APC?

A

Antigen presenting cell

74
Q

What are some examples of APCs?

A

Dendritic cell

Macrophages

75
Q

Where do monocytes leave the blood to become macrophages?

A

Leave capillaries and enter tissues to become macrophages and dendritic cells

76
Q

What cell is the most effective phagocyte?

A

Macrophage

77
Q

What substances do macrophages secrete?

A

Cytokines - IL-1, TNF, etc

78
Q

What is the number one APC of the body?

A

Dendritic cell

79
Q

What is the defining characteristic of a dendritic cell?

A

Neuron like appendages

80
Q

How do APCs work?

A

They make contact with the pathogen, phagocytize, and process the antigen, so they can display the foreign antigen on their surface

81
Q

Where are dendritic cells found?

A
  • Blood (macrophage)
  • Skin
  • Mucous membranes of nose, lungs, and intestines
82
Q

What are the dendritic cells of the brain?

A

Microglial cells

83
Q

What are the dendritic cells of the liver?

A

Kupffer cells

84
Q

What are the dendritic cells of the connective tissue?

A

Histiocytes

85
Q

What are the dendritic cells of the joints?

A

Synovial A cells

86
Q

What are the dendritic cells of the bones?

A

Osteoclasts

87
Q

What are the dendritic cells of the kidney?

A

Mesangial phagocytes

88
Q

What cells do APCs activate?

A

B and T cells once the APCs present antigens to them

89
Q

Is an NK cell specific or non specific defense?

A

Nonspecific

90
Q

What kind of WBC is an NK cell?

A

Lymphocyte (not T or B)

91
Q

What kind of cells do NK cells bind to?

A
  • Tumor cells
  • Viral infected host cells
  • Worm larvae
92
Q

What does the NK cell do once it binds to a target cell?

A

Releases cytotoxic chemicals or induces apoptosis of the cell

93
Q

What is phagocytosis?

A

Process by which phagocytes engulf pathogens and subsequently kill them and enzymatically digest them

94
Q

What are the two purposes of phagocytosis?

A
  • Killing pathogen

- Antigen presentation

95
Q

How does a cell present an antigen after phagocytosis?

A

Digest the pathogen to present antigens to helper T cells

96
Q

What are the main phagocytes?

A

Macrophages, neutrophils, dendritic cells

97
Q

What are the steps of phagocytosis?

A
  1. Chemotaxis - attraction
  2. Attachment by PRRs to PAMPs
  3. Phagosome
  4. Fusing into phagolysosome
  5. Digestion
  6. Release of microbial products
  7. Presentation of antigen
98
Q

How do phagocytes use pseudopods?

A

Pseduopods latch onto the pathogen by adhering to opsonins on the pathogen’s surface

99
Q

What is opsonization?

A

Marking a pathogen for phagocytosis, opsonins are like little handles for attachment

100
Q

What happens after the phagocyte latches onto the pathogen?

A

Forms a phagosome

101
Q

What happens after the phagosome is formed?

A

Fusion with lysosome to form a phagolysosome

102
Q

What happens to the pathogen once it is inside the phagolysosome?

A

Digestive enzymes break down the pathogen

103
Q

How are the microbial products of the pathogen released after phagocytosis?

A

The phagolysosome fuses with the cell membrane and the contents are expelled - exocytosis

104
Q

How does a phagocyte know where to do to find a pathogen?

A

Chemotaxis

105
Q

What cells secrete chemoattractants?

A

Pathogen and host cells

106
Q

How does a phagocyte adhere to a pathogen?

A

PAMPs on the pathogen are recognized by PRRs of the phagocytes

107
Q

What are PAMPs?

A

Pathogen associated molecular patterns - pathogen

108
Q

What are PRRs?

A

Pattern recognition receptors - phagocyte

109
Q

What are some examples of opsonins?

A

Antibodies or certain complement proteins

110
Q

How does opsonization help phagocytosis?

A

It makes the process more effective because opsonins help PRRs recognize PAMPs if the PAMPs are covered by a capsule, etc

111
Q

What does ingestion involve?

A

Endocytosis involves invagination of the cell membrane or pseudopods

112
Q

How might a phagocyte kill the ingested pathogen?

A
  • Enzymes that digest cell

- Enzymes that result in production of toxic oxygen products that kill pathogen

113
Q

What are some examples of toxic oxygen products that kill pathogens?

A

Hydroxyl radical

H2O2

114
Q

How long does it take for the phagocyte to digest the phagolysosome contents?

A

10-30 minutes

115
Q

Which phagocytes do not present to helper T cells?

A

Neutrophils

116
Q

What is complement?

A

Group of blood proteins that when activated, function together to produce certain antibacterial chemicals

117
Q

What two molecules activate the complement pathway?

A
  • Prokaryotic polysaccharides

- Antibodies, due to prior exposure

118
Q

What are three examples of antibacterial chemicals produced by the activation of complement?

A
  • Certain inflammatory mediators
  • Opsonin
  • Membrane attack complex (MAC)
119
Q

What complement proteins are associated with inflammatory mediators?

A

C3a
C5a
(histamine, also chemotactic)

120
Q

What complement proteins are associated with opsonins?

A

C3b

121
Q

What complement proteins are associated with MACs?

A

C5 - C9

122
Q

What is the primary pathway to activate complement?

A

Antibodies

123
Q

What is the alternative pathway to activate complement?

A

Polysaccharides

124
Q

What is the process of complement activation?

A

C3a and C5a are chemotactic
C3b opsonizes
C5b binds to C6 and C7
C8 and C9 then make a ring around these proteins to create the MAC

125
Q

What is interferon?

A

Chemical released by virally invaded host cell which binds to receptors on neighboring, healthy cells

126
Q

What does interferon induce?

A

Antiviral state in neighboring cells

127
Q

What is the antiviral state?

A

Healthy cells are induced to produce special, anti viral proteins that prevent viral infection or slow it

128
Q

What cells do not make interferon?

A

All cells make interferon except RBCs

129
Q

What kind of anti viral proteins are created in the anti viral state?

A

Nucleases and proteases

130
Q

What is ADCC?

A

Antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity - phagocyte actively lyses a target cell, whose membrane-surface antigens have been bound by specific antibodies

131
Q

What receptors are important in ADCC?

A

FC receptors

132
Q

What are FC receptors?

A

Located on a phagocytic cell so it can bind to the stalk end of an antibody

133
Q

What is the epitope?

A

Receptor on antigen where the prong part of an antigen recognizes

134
Q

Are FC receptors specific?

A

No, so they are found on neutrophils, macrophages, and dendritic cells

135
Q

What is the fever pathway?

A
Exogenous pyrogens
Phagocytes
IL-1, TNF
Hypothalamus
Prostaglandins
Elevate body temp!
136
Q

What physiological responses associate with fever?

A
  • Shivering and vasoconstriction to surface to prevent heat loss
  • Increase in metabolism generates more heat
137
Q

When is a fever generally presenting lower?

A

Viruses

138
Q

When is a fever generally presenting higher?

A

Cellular pathogens

139
Q

When is a fever bad?

A

When it starts killing brain cells

140
Q

What is the normal body temperature?

A

37 degrees Celsius

141
Q

What are the benefits to fever?

A
  • Phagocytosis enhanced
  • Interferon works better
  • Inhibits growth of certain pathogens
  • Iron is less available to microbes
  • Person is incapacitated, promoting healing (?)
142
Q

At what temperature range do the benefits of fever present?

A

38-40 degrees Celsius

143
Q

What is inflammation in response to?

A

Body’s general, nonspecific response to infection

144
Q

What can cause inflammation?

A

Pathogens

Tissue injury/insult

145
Q

What does inflammation activate?

A

Activates and coordinates body’s other nonspecific defenses like phagocytosis and complement

146
Q

What are the cardinal signs of inflammation?

A
Redness
Heat
Swelling
Pain
Sometimes loss of function
147
Q

How is inflammation beneficial for response to infection?

A

Immediate localization of pathogen to prevent spread

Kills pathogen if possible, and removes it

148
Q

What does inflammation do if killing the pathogen is not possible?

A

Confines the pathogen by sealing off the area to prevent its spread

149
Q

What are the phases of inflammation?

A
  1. Tissue damage - trigger
  2. Release of inflammatory mediators
  3. Vasodilation, opening of capillary beds
  4. Increased vascular permeability
  5. Movement of serum, cells, and proteins from capillaries into tissues
  6. Kill pathogen/prevent spread
  7. Healing
150
Q

What are cytokines?

A

Soluble proteins or glycoproteins that are released by one cell population that act as intercellular mediators or signaling molecules to another population

151
Q

What are the three types of cytokines?

A
  • Regulators of innate resistance mechanisms
  • Regulators of adaptive immunity
  • Stimulators of hematopoiesis
152
Q

What are monotones?

A

Released from mononuclear phagocytes

153
Q

What are lymphokines?

A

Released from T lymphocytes

154
Q

What are interleukins?

A

Released from one leukocyte and act on another leukocyte

155
Q

What are CSFs?

A

Colony stimulating factors - stimulate growth and differentiation of immature leukocytes in the bone marrow

156
Q

What is IL-1?

A

Interleukin 1

157
Q

What is TNF?

A

Tumor necrosis factor

158
Q

What kind of cytokines are Il-1 and TNF?

A

Pyrogenous

159
Q

What must cytokines do to have their effect?

A

Must bind to specific receptors on target cells

160
Q

What activities might cytokines initiate?

A
  • Differentiation
  • Proliferation
  • Apoptosis
161
Q

What are chemokines?

A

Stimulate chemotaxis and chemokinesis

162
Q

What is chemokinesis?

A

Cause the cell to make some kind of change in their migratory/swimming behavior:

  • increase or decrease of speed
  • alterations of amplitude
  • frequency of motile character
  • direction of migration
163
Q

What are acute phase proteins?

A

Can bind at bacterial surfaces and act as opsonins - useful markers of inflammation

164
Q

What is the process of producing acute phase proteins?

A
  • Bacteria activates macrophage
  • Cytokine release
  • Liver stimulation
  • Acute phase protein production
165
Q

What are some examples of acute phase proteins?

A
  • C-reactive protein (CRP)
  • Mannan-binding lectin (MBL)
  • Surfactant proteins D and A (SP-D and SP-A)