ANXIETY DISORDERS Flashcards by Jordan Crystal

_____ involves a general feeling of apprehension about possible future danger, whereas ______ is an alarm reaction that occurs in response to immediate danger

A) fear; anxiety

B) anxiety; fear

C) fear; stress

D) anxiety; stress

B) anxiety; fear

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in relation to anxiety disorders, which of the following is NOT true

A) has the latest age of onset of all mental disorders

B) it is the most common category of disorders for women

C) it is the second most common category of disorders for men

D) in any 12-month period, about 18 percent of the adult population suffers from at least one anxiety disorder

A) has the latest age of onset of all mental disorders

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historically, the most common way of distinguishing between fear and anxiety response patterns has been to

A) determine whether there are subjective experiences occurring alongside the response

B) determine whether a clear and obvious source of danger is present that would be regarded as real by most people

C) determine if the person has a strong urge to escape or flee the situation

D) determine the cognitive components that are co occurring with the response pattern

B) determine whether a clear and obvious source of danger is present that would be regarded as real by most people

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when distinguishing between fear and anxiety response patterns, when the source of danger is obvious, the experienced emotion has been called

A) fear

B) anxiety

C) stress

D) there is no need to distinguish between fear and anxiety

A) fear

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in recent years, a fundamental distinction between fear and anxiety response patterns proposes that

A) fear is a complex blend of unpleasant emotions and cognitions

B) anxiety is a basic emotion that involves activation of the “fight or flight” response of the ANS

C) fear is a basic emotion that involves activation of the “fight or flight” response of the ANS

D) anxiety is a complex blend of unpleasant emotions and cognitions

C) fear is a basic emotion that involves activation of the “fight or flight” response of the ANS

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according to theorist of recent times, fear would be

A) unpleasant emotions and cog-nitions that is both more oriented to the future

B) an almost instantaneous reaction to any imminent threat

C) a response that occurs in the absence of any obvious external danger

D) all of the above

B) an almost instantaneous reaction to any imminent threat

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when a fear response occurs in the absence of any external danger, the person is said to have

A) GAD

B) fear reaponse

C) had a panic attack

D) anxiety

C) had a panic attack

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what is the distinction between fear and panic attacks?

A) fight or flight in panic attacks; subjectivity in fear

B) response in fear ; objectivity in panic attacks

C) response in panic attacks ; objectivity in fear

D) subjectivity in panic attacks; fight or flight in fear

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what is a key distinction between anxiety and fear?

A) anxiety does not activate fight or flight

B) fear does not have cognitive/subjective components

C) anxiety has a preparation component

D) they both have enhancement components

A) anxiety does not activate fight or flight

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at a physiological level, what is the role of anxiety in relation to a fear response?

A) gives us the immediate urge to flee when the danger occurs

B) it may create a strong tendency to avoid situations where danger might be encountered

C) they both activate the fight or flight response when anticipated danger occurs

D) it primes for a fight or flight response should an anticipated danger occur

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years of human and nonhuman animal experimentation have established that the basic fear and anxiety response patterns are

A) genetic predispositions

B) conditionable

C) absolute

D) none of the above

B) conditionable

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which of the following is NOT true regarding anxiety disorders?

A) there are similarities in the basic causes of all types of anxiety disorders

B) amongst anxiety disorders, they differ from one another both in terms of the amount of fear or panic versus anxiety symptoms that they experience and in the kinds of objects or situations that most concern them

C) many people with one anxiety disorder will experience at least one more anxiety disorder and/or depression either concurrently or at a different point in their lives

D) Anxiety disorders have a uniform and consistent symptom presentation across individuals.

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in adults, the common genetic vulnerability of anxiety disorders is manifested at a psychological level in part by the personality trait of

C) introversion

D) neuroticism

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among psychological causal factors of anxiety disorders, the development of perceptions of uncontrollability of environment or emotions depends heavily on

A) socio cultural environment

B) genetic vulnerability

C) social environment one is raised in

D) self evaluations

C) social environment one is raised in

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what is the most common anxiety disorder?

A) GAD

B) social anxiety

C) phobia

D) panic disorder

C) phobia

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which of the following is not one of the main categories of phobias?

A) GAD

B) specific phobia

C) social anxiety

D) agoraphobia

A) GAD

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when people with specific phobia encounter a phobic stimuli, they often show an immediate fear response that often resembles a panic attack

A) which are also tied to a specific trigger

B) except for the existence of a clear external trigger

C) both of which occur spontaneously

D) however, specific phobia does not necessarily impact daily functioning

B) except for the existence of a clear external trigger

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one key distinction between a panic attack and a specific phobia is there is a clear difference in ________

A) specificity

B) commonality

C) avoidance behaviour

D) impact

A) specificity

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which of the following has a response pattern marked by an initial acceleration in heart rate and blood pressure, followed by a dramatic drop in both

A) agoraphobia

B) blood-injection-injury phobia

C) OCD

D) GAD

B) blood-injection-injury phobia

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which type of phobia appears to be highly heritable?

A) agoraphobia

B) blood-injection-injury phobia

C) animal phobia

D) natural environment phobia

B) blood-injection-injury phobia

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according to the __________ view, phobias represent a defence against anxiety that stems from repressed impulses

A) psychoanalytic

B) behavioural

C) cognitive

D) psychosocial

A) psychoanalytic

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according to the __________ view, phobias represent a defence against anxiety that stems from repressed impulses

A) psychoanalytic

B) behavioural

C) cognitive

D) psychosocial

A) psychoanalytic

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The view that people are biologically prepared through evolution to more readily acquire fears of certain objects or situations that may once have posed a threat to our early ancestors

A) classical conditioning

B) prepared learning

C) behavioural learning

D) spontaneous recovery

B) prepared learning

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“prepared” fears are not inborn or innate but rather are easily acquired or especially resistant to _______

A) adaptation

B) extinction

C) acquisition

D) spontaneous recovery

B) extinction

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prepared learning explains that A) why phobic people are likely to maintain their avoidance behavior B) some stimuli were not present in our early evolutionary history so did not convey any selective advantage C) why cognitive variables are so important in phobias D) Different defense mechanisms are employed by those with GAD and those with specific phobias.

B) some stimuli were not present in our early evolutionary history so did not convey any selective advantage

in an experiment by Öhman and his col-leagues on the preparedness theory of phobias, the researchers found that A) there is no difference in conditioning between fear relevant and fear irrelevant stimuli B) fear is conditioned more effectively to fear-relevant stimuli than to fear-irrelevant stimuli C) fear conditioning is equally effective for all stimuli D) fear-relevant stimuli have no impact on the conditioning process

B) fear is conditioned more effectively to fear-relevant stimuli than to fear-irrelevant stimuli

one view that accounts for certain aspects of the irrationality og phobias has shown that A) phobias are always rational and can be easily overcome B) once individuals acquire a conditioned response to fear-relevant stimuli, these responses could be elicited even when the fear-relevant stimuli are presented subliminally C) irrational fears only occur in individuals with specific personality traits D) phobias are solely a result of conscious awareness of fear stimuli

B) once individuals acquire a conditioned response to fear relevant stimuli, these responses could be elicited even when the fear relevant stimuli is presented subliminally

individuals who are carriers of one of the two variants of the serotonin-transporter gene A) show enhanced resistance to extinction B) show superior fear conditioning than those without the s allele C) show less fear conditioning that those with the s allele D) does not affect their fear conditioning

B) show superior fear conditioning than those without the s allele

what is the most effective treatment for specific phobias? A) cognitive therapy B) exposure therapy C) medicated therapy D) hypnotherapy

B) exposure therapy

Which therapeutic approach, involving the therapist calmly modeling ways of interacting with the phobic stimulus or situation, is considered often more effective than exposure alone? A) Cognitive restructuring B) Medication therapy C) Systematic desensitization D) Participant modeling

D) Participant modeling

What is participant modeling, and how does it differ from exposure therapy in treating specific phobias? A) Participant modeling involves medication therapy, while exposure therapy relies on behavioral techniques. B) In participant modeling, therapists avoid direct interaction with the phobic stimulus, unlike exposure therapy. C) Participant modeling is a variant of exposure therapy where the therapist calmly models ways of interacting with the phobic stimulus or situation. D) Exposure therapy focuses on cognitive restructuring, while participant modeling emphasizes emotional expression.

C) Participant modeling is a variant of exposure therapy where the therapist calmly models ways of interacting with the phobic stimulus or situation.

How do exposure therapy techniques contribute to the treatment of specific phobias, according to Craske & Mystkowski (2006)? A) By directly targeting the amygdala to reduce fear B) By emphasizing that anxiety is harmful and persistent C) By promoting avoidance behaviors to cope with anxiety D) By helping clients learn that feared situations are not as frightening as thought, leading to changes in brain activation in the amygdala

D) By helping clients learn that feared situations are not as frightening as thought, leading to changes in brain activation in the amygdala

In the treatment of specific phobias like small-animal phobias, flying phobia, claustrophobia, and blood-injury phobia, what characteristic makes exposure therapy highly effective? A) The use of medication in combination with exposure therapy B) Administering exposure therapy in multiple short sessions C) Employing cognitive-behavioral therapy techniques D) Administering exposure therapy in a single long session

D) Administering exposure therapy in a single long session

what is identified as the single most common type of social anxiety? A) Fear of crowded spaces B) Fear of meeting new people C) Intense fear of public speaking D) Fear of formal social events

C) Intense fear of public speaking

According to the DSM-5, how are the two subtypes of social anxiety identified? A) One subtype focuses on fear of crowded spaces, while the other centers on fear of meeting new people. B) One subtype is specific to performance situations like public speaking, while the other is more general, encompassing nonperformance situations such as eating in public. C) One subtype involves fear of formal social events, while the other is related to informal social gatherings. D) One subtype is characterized by fear of strangers, while the other is characterized by fear of familiar individuals.

B) One subtype is specific to performance situations like public speaking, while the other is more general, encompassing nonperformance situations such as eating in public.

According to the DSM-5, what are the two subtypes of social anxiety? A) Fear of strangers and fear of familiar individuals B) Fear of crowded spaces and fear of being alone C) Performance situations and general situations D) Fear of formal social events and fear of informal social gatherings

C) Performance situations like public speaking and more general situations including nonperformance scenarios.

who is most commonly affected by social anxiety and when does it typically begin? A) women, with onset occurring during adolescence or early adulthood B) men and women equally, with onset occurring in adolescence or early adulthood C) women, with onset occurring in late adulthood D) men, with onset occurring in childhood

A) women, with onset occurring during adolescence or early adulthood

How persistent is social anxiety disorder over a 12-year period, according to the study mentioned? A) It tends to resolve completely for the majority of individuals. B) About half of individuals experience spontaneous recovery. C) Approximately one-third of individuals recover spontaneously. D) The persistence rate is relatively low, with only a small percentage affected over the 12-year period.

C) Approximately one-third of individuals recover spontaneously.

what are potential origins of social anxiety, often linked to classical conditioning? A) Complex instances of direct classical conditioning only B) Simple instances of direct classical conditioning, such as experiencing or witnessing social defeat or humiliation C) Experiencing or witnessing complex social situations D) A combination of direct and operant conditioning experiences

B) Simple instances of direct classical conditioning, such as experiencing or witnessing social defeat or humiliation.

What did a laboratory study reveal about the conditioning of fear in people with social anxiety? A) The conditioning of fear was particularly strong when the unconditioned stimulus was socially relevant, such as critical facial expressions and verbal insults. B) Socially relevant stimuli had no impact on the conditioning of fear in individuals with social anxiety. C) They showed robust conditioning of fear with nonspecifically negative stimuli. D) Unpleasant odors and painful pressure were more effective in conditioning fear compared to socially relevant stimuli.

A) The conditioning of fear was particularly strong when the unconditioned stimulus was socially relevant, such as critical facial expressions and verbal insults.

How do social fears and phobias differ from animal fears and phobias? A) Social fears involve fear of potential predators, while animal fears involve fears of members of one's own species. B) Social fears involve fear of members of one's own species, while animal fears involve fear of potential predators. C) Both social and animal fears involve fear of potential predators. D) Social fears involve fear of potential predators, while animal fears involve fears of potential prey.

B) Social fears involve fear of members of one's own species, while animal fears involve fear of potential predators.

what is the proposed evolutionary origin of social fears and phobias? A) They evolved to trigger the fight-or-flight response to potential predators. B) They evolved as a by-product of dominance hierarchies in animals such as primates. C) Both social fears and animal fears share a common evolutionary origin. D) They evolved as a by-product of the need for social cohesion in animal groups.

B) They evolved as a by-product of dominance hierarchies in animals such as primates.

According to Dimberg & Öhman, why do people with social anxiety often endure being in their feared situations instead of running away and escaping them? A) People with social anxiety are more prone to submissive behavior. B) Dominance hierarchies are established through aggressive encounters, and a defeated individual rarely attempts to escape completely. C) People with social anxiety have a higher tolerance for fear and anxiety. D) Escaping feared situations is more challenging for people with social anxiety compared to those with animal phobias.

B) Dominance hierarchies are established through aggressive encounters, and a defeated individual rarely attempts to escape completely.

According to the concept that social anxiety evolved as a by-product of dominance hierarchies, what does it suggest about humans? A) Humans have a natural tendency to avoid social stimuli. B) Humans have an evolved predisposition to acquire fears of social stimuli signaling submission. C) Humans are inherently fearless in social situations. D) Humans are predisposed to acquire fears of social stimuli indicating dominance and aggression.

D) Humans are predisposed to acquire fears of social stimuli indicating dominance and aggression.

in the context of conditioning responses, what would be true regarding the pairing of facial expressions with mild electric shocks? A) Subjects develop stronger conditioned responses when slides of angry faces are paired with mild electric shocks. B) Subjects exhibit similar conditioned responses regardless of the facial expression paired with mild electric shocks. C) Subjects develop stronger conditioned responses when neutral faces are paired with mild electric shocks. D) Subjects develop stronger conditioned responses when slides of angry faces are paired with strong electric shocks.

A) Subjects develop stronger conditioned responses when slides of angry faces are paired with mild electric shocks.

What did the study by Parra et al. (1997) find regarding the subliminal presentations of angry faces that had been paired with shock? A) Subliminal presentations of angry faces had no impact on conditioned responses. B) Even very brief subliminal presentations of angry faces were sufficient to activate conditioned responses. C) Subliminal presentations of angry faces were only effective when consciously perceived. D) Subliminal presentations of angry faces activated the amygdala only in the absence of conditioned responses.

B) Even very brief subliminal presentations of angry faces were sufficient to activate conditioned responses.

What does the research by Goldin et al. (2009) and Phan et al. (2006) suggest about individuals with social anxiety in response to negative facial expressions? A) They show heightened activation of the amygdala in response to negative facial expressions, particularly angry faces. B) Their amygdala activation is independent of negative facial expressions. C) They exhibit reduced neural responses to criticism. D) Emotional reactions to negative facial expressions are not processed quickly in individuals with social anxiety.

A) They show heightened activation of the amygdala in response to negative facial expressions, particularly angry faces.

How do perceptions of uncontrollability and unpredictability typically manifest in the behavior of individuals who are socially anxious or phobic? A) They exhibit assertive and dominant behavior. B) They become highly unpredictable in their actions. C) They become submissive and unassertive D) They tend to isolate themselves from social situations.

C) They become submissive and unassertive

According to Mineka & Zinbarg (2006), how does an actual social defeat impact the behavior of individuals with social anxiety? A) It leads to increased assertiveness and dominance. B) It causes individuals to become more unpredictable in social situations. C) It results in a diminished sense of personal control over events in their lives. D) It has no significant impact on the behavior of socially anxious individuals.

C) It results in a diminished sense of personal control over events in their lives.

submissive and assertive behavior is especially likely if A) Individuals have a heightened sense of personal control over events. B) perceptions of uncontrollability stem from an actual social defeat C) Perceptions of uncontrollability stem from an actual social victory. D) Social defeat has no impact on behavior in individuals with social anxiety.

B) perceptions of uncontrollability stem from an actual social defeat

According to Beck and colleagues (1985), what cognitive factor is suggested to contribute to the onset and maintenance of social anxiety? A) People with social anxiety expect positive evaluations from others. B) Socially anxious individuals have a heightened sense of invulnerability. C) Expectations that others will reject or negatively evaluate them. D) A lack of concern about potential threats from others.

C) Expectations that others will reject or negatively evaluate them.

According to Clark and Wells (1995; Wells & Clark, 1997), how do danger schemas in socially anxious people influence their expectations and behaviors in social situations? A) Socially anxious individuals expect positive evaluations from others. B) Danger schemas lead to a lack of concern about bodily responses and self-images. C) Socially anxious individuals expect to behave in an awkward and acceptable fashion, resulting in acceptance and status. D) Danger schemas lead to expectations of behaving in an awkward and unacceptable fashion, preoccupation with bodily responses, and negative self-images in social situations.

D) Danger schemas lead to expectations of behaving in an awkward and unacceptable fashion, preoccupation with bodily responses, and negative self-images in social situations.

According to Hirsch et al. (2004), how do negative expectations in socially anxious individuals manifest in social situations? A) Intense self-preoccupation during social situations, including attention to bodily responses and negative self-images. B) They accurately estimate how well they come across to others. C) Socially anxious individuals are not preoccupied with bodily responses. D) Negative expectations lead to skillful interaction in social situations

A) Intense self-preoccupation during social situations, including attention to bodily responses and negative self-images.

What potential cycle may evolve for someone with social anxiety? A) Socially anxious individuals experience increasingly friendly interactions with others. B) Inward attention and awkward interactions lead to increased friendliness from others. C) A vicious cycle where inward attention and potentially awkward interactions result in others reacting in a less friendly fashion, confirming their expectations. D) Socially anxious individuals receive positive feedback, breaking the cycle.

C) A vicious cycle where inward attention and potentially awkward interactions result in others reacting in a less friendly fashion, confirming their expectations.

What cognitive bias is commonly observed in social anxiety regarding the interpretation of ambiguous social information? A) Socially anxious individuals tend to interpret ambiguous social information positively. B) Socially anxious individuals tend to interpret ambiguous social information negatively rather than benignly. C) There is no cognitive bias observed in the interpretation of ambiguous social information in social anxiety. D) Negatively biased interpretations in social anxiety are often related to a positive outcome.

B) Socially anxious individuals tend to interpret ambiguous social information negatively rather than benignly.

What is identified as the most important temperamental variable of social anxiety, sharing characteristics with both neuroticism and introversion? A) Sociability B) Extraversion C) Behavioral inhibition D) Conscientiousness

C) Behavioral inhibition

In a study involving children at risk for anxiety due to their parents having an emotional disorder, what was the finding regarding behavioral inhibition? A) Children with low behavioral inhibition were three times more likely to develop social anxiety disorder. B) Children with high behavioral inhibition between 2 and 6 years were nearly three times more likely to be diagnosed with social anxiety disorder in middle childhood. C) Behavioral inhibition had no significant impact on the development of social anxiety disorder. D) Children with high sociability between 2 and 6 years were more likely to develop social anxiety disorder.

B) Children with high behavioral inhibition between 2 and 6 years were nearly three times more likely to be diagnosed with social anxiety disorder in middle childhood.

What do results from twin and other genetic studies suggest about the contribution of genetics to social anxiety? A) There is a substantial genetic contribution, accounting for over 50% of the variance in social anxiety. B) Genetic factors play a minimal role, contributing less than 5% to the variance in social anxiety. C) There is a modest genetic contribution, with estimates ranging between 12 and 30% of the variance in liability to social anxiety. D) Nonshared environmental factors are the sole contributors to the development of social anxiety.

C) There is a modest genetic contribution, with estimates ranging between 12 and 30% of the variance in liability to social anxiety.

what is the typical approach to treatment for social anxiety? A) Treatment combines both cognitive and behavior therapies and may involve medication. B) Treatment emphasizes behavioral therapy exclusively, excluding cognitive interventions. C) Treatment combines both cognitive and behavior therapies and no use of medications. D) Medication is the primary intervention, with minimal emphasis on cognitive and behavioral approaches.

A) Treatment combines both cognitive and behavior therapies and may involve medication.

hat treatment approach has proven to be very effective for social anxiety, incorporating both behavioral and cognitive techniques? A) Exclusively using medication without any exposure to feared situations. B) Prolonged and graduated exposure to feared social situations, combined with cognitive restructuring C) Focusing solely on cognitive restructuring techniques without exposure therapy. D) Applying only behavioral techniques without addressing distorted cognitions.

B) Prolonged and graduated exposure to feared social situations, combined with cognitive restructuring, forming a cognitive-behavioral therapy.

What is the primary goal of cognitive restructuring in the context of treating social anxiety? A) Identifying clients' positive automatic thoughts. B) Reinforcing automatic negative thoughts to increase self-awareness. C) Encouraging clients to accept and embrace their automatic negative thoughts. D) Helping clients change their underlying negative automatic thoughts and beliefs through logical reanalysis.

D) Helping clients change their underlying negative automatic thoughts and beliefs through logical reanalysis.

What is the next step in the therapeutic process after clients with social anxiety understand that their automatic thoughts involve cognitive distortions? A) Assisting clients in changing their inner thoughts and beliefs through logical reanalysis. B) Prompting clients to further dwell on their automatic thoughts for self-reflection. C) Encouraging clients to embrace and accept their automatic thoughts without questioning them D) Suggesting clients avoid addressing their automatic thoughts to reduce stress.

A) Assisting clients in changing their inner thoughts and beliefs through logical reanalysis.

In a highly effective version of treatments for social anxiety, clients may be assigned exercises to manipulate their focus of attention (internally versus externally). What is the goal of these exercises? A) To reinforce and intensify internal self-focus. B) To demonstrate to clients the beneficial effects of internal self-focus. C) To increase clients' awareness of external stimuli. D) To show clients the adverse effects of internal self-focus

D) To show clients the adverse effects of internal self-focu

In treating social anxiety, a highly effective version of cognitive therapy involves exercises where clients manipulate their focus of attention. What sets this variant apart, according to some studies? A) It relies on exposure therapy exclusively. B) It may be more effective than exposure therapy. C) It emphasizes group therapy sessions. D) It incorporates mindfulness meditation.

B) It may be more effective than exposure therapy.

In treating social anxiety, a highly effective version of cognitive therapy involves exercises where clients manipulate their focus of attention. What additional technique is mentioned to help clients modify distorted self-images? A) Role-playing with other clients B) Guided meditation C) Receiving videotaped feedback D) Exposure to feared situations

C) Receiving videotaped feedback

n contrast to specific phobias, what distinguishes the treatment approach for social anxiety? A) Social anxiety can be effectively treated with medications, particularly certain categories of antidepressants. B) Social anxiety is not responsive to medication. C) Specific phobias are exclusively treated with medications. D) Medications are ineffective in treating both specific phobias and social anxiety.

A) Social anxiety can be effectively treated with medications, particularly certain categories of antidepressants.

In the treatment of social anxiety, studies have compared the effects of antidepressant medications and cognitive-behavioral treatments. What is the conclusion drawn from these studies? A) Medication is the preferred and more effective approach in all cases. B) The newer version of cognitive-behavior therapy consistently produces more substantial improvement than medication. C) The effects of antidepressant medications and cognitive-behavioral treatments are comparable. D) Antidepressant medications consistently outperform cognitive-behavioral treatments.

B) The newer version of cognitive-behavior therapy consistently produces more substantial improvement than medication.

What distinguishes behavioral and cognitive-behavioral therapies from medications in treating social anxiety? A) Medications produce more immediate improvement than therapies. B) Therapies usually have higher relapse rates compared to medications. C) Medications offer more sustained improvement compared to therapies. D) Therapies often result in more enduring improvement with low relapse rates, even after treatment ends.

D) Therapies often result in more enduring improvement with low relapse rates, even after treatment ends.

In the context of social anxiety treatment, what has research suggested about the addition of D-cycloserine to exposure therapy? A) D-cycloserine has no impact on exposure therapy outcomes. B) Exposure therapy is less effective when combined with D-cycloserine. C) The addition of D-cycloserine to exposure therapy leads to slower and less substantial treatment gains. D) Studies suggest that when D-cycloserine is added to exposure therapy, the treatment gains occur more quickly and are more substantial.

D) Studies suggest that when D-cycloserine is added to exposure therapy, the treatment gains occur more quickly and are more substantial.

according to the DSM-5 criteria for panic disorder, the person must have experienced recurrent, unexpected attacks and must have been persistently concerned about having another attach for the duration of A) 2 weeks B) 3 months C) 1 month D) 6 month

C) 1 month

for an event to qualify as a panic attack, there must be abrupt onset of A) all 13 symptoms B) 4 out of 13 symptoms C) A specific subset of symptoms related to fear of specific objects or situations D) At least 7 out of 13 symptoms

B) 4 out of 13 symptoms

out of the 13 panic attack symptoms in the DSM-5, how many are cognitive symptoms? A) 12 B) 8 C) none D) 3

D) 3

what of the following is true regarding the duration of a panic attack symptoms? A) they peak intensity within 10 minutes and persist for an average of an hour before subsiding B) they typically last less than 5 minutes C) they peak intensity within 10 minutes; the attacks often subside in 20 to 30 minutes and rarely last more than an hour D) The duration varies widely, ranging from a few minutes to several hours.

C) they peak intensity within 10 minutes; the attacks often subside in 20 to 30 minutes and rarely last more than an hour

How do panic attacks differ from periods of anxiety in terms of duration and onset? A) Panic attacks are longer-lasting and have a gradual onset, while periods of anxiety are brief and abrupt. B) Panic attacks are brief but intense, with symptoms developing gradually, while periods of anxiety are more abrupt and brief. C) panic attacks are brief but intense developing abruptly, while periods of anxiety do not typically have such an abrupt onset and are more long-lasting. D) Panic attacks and periods of anxiety have the same duration and onset characteristics.

C) panic attacks are brief but intense developing abruptly, while periods of anxiety do not typically have such an abrupt onset and are more long-lasting.

What term represents the distinction between panic attacks and periods of anxiety based on their duration and onset? A) Gradual anxiety B) Prolonged panic C) Abrupt distress D) Temporal intensity

D) Temporal intensity

How are panic attacks described in terms of their predictability and occurrence? A) Predictable and always provoked by identifiable aspects of the immediate situation. B) Unexpected or uncued, often occurring in situations where they are least expected, such as during relaxation or sleep (nocturnal panic). C) Always situationally predisposed, occurring consistently in specific situations like driving a car or being in a crowd. D) Consistently provoked by external stressors and identifiable triggers.

B) Unexpected or uncued, often occurring in situations where they are least expected, such as during relaxation or sleep (nocturnal panic).

How are situationally predisposed panic attacks characterized? A) They consistently occur in specific situations. B) They are always unexpected and uncued. C) They are never associated with identifiable triggers. D) They occur only sometimes while the person is in a particular situation.

D) They occur only sometimes while the person is in a particular situation.

Why do many individuals experiencing panic attacks often seek medical attention at emergency departments or physicians' offices? A) To obtain prescription medications for anxiety. B) Due to the predominant of physical symptoms C) Due to the predominance of psychological symptoms D) To receive counseling and therapy for panic disorder.

B) Due to the predominant of physical symptoms

What is the relationship between patients with cardiac problems and the risk of developing panic disorder? A) Patients with cardiac problems have a decreased risk of developing panic disorder. B) There is no correlation between cardiac problems and the development of panic disorder. C) Patients with cardiac problems are at nearly twofold elevated risk for developing panic disorder. D) Cardiac problems completely mitigate the risk of panic disorder development.

C) Patients with cardiac problems are at nearly twofold elevated risk for developing panic disorder.

Why is prompt diagnosis and treatment crucial for panic disorder? A) Panic disorder does not cause impairment in social and occupational functioning. B) Panic disorder has less impact on functioning compared to major depressive disorder. C) Panic disorder causes approximately as much impairment in social and occupational functioning as major depressive disorder. D) Prompt treatment is not necessary for panic disorder.

C) Panic disorder causes approximately as much impairment in social and occupational functioning as major depressive disorder.

Which of the following is true regarding the most commonly feared and avoided situations in agoraphobia? A) Avoidance is primarily related to natural outdoor environments. B) The most commonly feared situations are confined spaces. C) Streets and crowded places such as shopping malls, movie theaters, and stores are the most commonly feared and avoided situations. D) Agoraphobia is not associated with specific feared situations.

C) Streets and crowded places such as shopping malls, movie theaters, and stores are the most commonly feared and avoided situations.

in the DSM-5 criteria for agoraphobia, the fear or avoidance is persistent typically lasting for A) Less than a month B) 6 months or more C) 3 months D) 1 year or more

B) 6 months or more

Why is agoraphobia now listed as a distinct disorder in DSM-5? A) Because it always co-occurs with panic disorder. B) Many patients with agoraphobia do not experience panic, leading to its recognition as a separate disorder. C) It was previously listed as a subtype of social anxiety disorder. D) The symptoms of agoraphobia are less severe than other anxiety disorders.

B) Many patients with agoraphobia do not experience panic, leading to its recognition as a separate disorder.

Which form of panic disorder is more common in the adult population? A) Panic disorder with agoraphobia B) Panic disorder without agoraphobia C) Both forms have equal prevalence D) Panic disorder is not prevalent in the adult population

B) Panic disorder without agoraphobia

At what age range does panic disorder with or without agoraphobia typically begin? A) Childhood, before the age of 10 B) Late teens to early 20s C) 40s to 60s D) Late adulthood, after the age of 60

B) Late teens to early 20s

What is the gender prevalence of panic disorder? A) Equal prevalence in men and women B) More prevalent in men than in women C) About twice as prevalent in men as in women D) About twice as prevalent in women as in men

D) About twice as prevalent in women as in men

What is the gender distribution of agoraphobia, especially in severe cases? A) More prevalent in men than in women B) About equal prevalence in men and women C) More prevalent in women than in men, with an increasing percentage of women as agoraphobic avoidance increases D) Approximately 50 percent of cases occur in men and 50 percent in women

C) More prevalent in women than in men, with an increasing percentage of women as agoraphobic avoidance increase

What is the most common explanation for the pronounced gender difference in agoraphobia? A) Biological factors B) Socioeconomic factors C) Cultural and societal expectations D) Familial factors

) Cultural and societal expectations

How might men with panic disorder differ in coping strategies compared to women? A) Men are more likely to seek professional help for panic attacks. B) Men are more likely to develop agoraphobic avoidance. C) Men may self-medicate with nicotine or alcohol as a way of coping with and enduring panic attacks. D) Men are less prone to use substances for coping.

C) Men may self-medicate with nicotine or alcohol as a way of coping with and enduring panic attacks.

The vast majority of people with panic disorder (83 per-cent) have at least one comorbid disorder, which disorder is especially common in those with panic disorder? A) PTSD B) depression C) specific phobia D) social anxiety

B) depression

Which personality disorders are individuals with panic disorder more likely to meet criteria for? A) Antisocial or narcissistic personality disorder B) Schizoid or histrionic personality disorder C) Dependent or avoidant personality disorder D) Obsessive-compulsive or borderline personality disorder

C) Dependent or avoidant personality disorder

How is panic disorder associated with the risk of suicidal ideation and attempts? A) Panic disorder is associated with an increased risk for suicidal ideation and attempts independent of its relationship with comorbid disorders. B) The risk is decreased in individuals with panic disorder. C) Panic disorder does not influence the risk of suicidal ideation or attempts. D) The risk is only increased when panic disorder is comorbid with other psychiatric conditions.

A) Panic disorder is associated with an increased risk for suicidal ideation and attempts independent of its relationship with comorbid disorders.

What often precedes the first occurrence of a panic attack? A) Joyful or positive life circumstances B) Feelings of distress or highly stressful life circumstances C) Routine daily activities D) No specific antecedent, as panic attacks come "out of the blue"

B) Feelings of distress or highly stressful life circumstances

What does family and twin studies suggest about the heritability of panic disorder? A) Panic disorder is not influenced by genetic factors. B) There is a strong heritable component to panic disorder. C) Panic disorder has a moderate heritable component. D) Heritability is only relevant in cases of severe panic disorder.

C) Panic disorder has a moderate heritable component.

Which personality trait is associated with the genetic vulnerability for panic disorder? A) Extraversion B) Conscientiousness C) Neuroticism D) Agreeableness

C) Neuroticism

What does the evidence from twin studies suggest about the genetic vulnerability factors for panic disorder? A) There is no overlap with genetic vulnerability factors for other anxiety disorders. B) There is some overlap in the genetic vulnerability factors for panic disorder and both phobias and separation anxiety. C) Genetic vulnerability factors for panic disorder are entirely distinct from those for other anxiety disorders. D) Panic disorder is not influenced by genetic factors.

B) There is some overlap in the genetic vulnerability factors for panic disorder and both phobias and separation anxiety.

an early prominent theory of panic attacks in neurobiology implicated the _______ in the brain A) locus coeruleus B) amygdala C) hippocampus D) cerebellum

A) locus coeruleus

Which brain structure is now recognized to play a more central role in panic attacks than the locus coeruleus? A) hypothalamus B) amygdala C) hippocampus D) cerebellum

B) amygdala

the anticipatory anxiety that people develop about having another panic attack is though to arise from activity in the _____ which is known to be involved in the learning of emotional responses A) hypothalamus B) amygdala C) hippocampus D) cerebellum

C) hippocampus

A variety of biological challenge procedures that provoke panic attacks at higher rates in people with panic disorder than in people without panic disorder. A) panic provocation procedures B) anxiety-inducing techniques C) stress induction methods D) fear-triggering protocols

A) panic provocation procedures

what are the two primary neurotransmitter systems most implicated in panic attacks? A) dopaminergic and endocrine system B) noradrenergic and the serotonergic systems C) GABAergic system and serotonergic systems D) dopaminergic and serotonergic systems

B) he noradrenergic and the serotonergic systems

Noradrenergic activity in certain brain areas can stimulate cardiovascular symptoms associated with panic. Increased ______ activity also decreases this activity. A) Noradrenergic B) serotonergic C) GABAergic D) dopaminergic

B) Serotonergic

what neurotransmitter has implicated in the anticipatory anxiety that many people with panic disorder have about experiencing another attack A) serotonin B) GABA C) norepinephrine D) dopamine

B) GABA

what theory of panic disorder proposes that people with panic disor-der are hypersensitive to their bodily sensations and are very prone to giving them the most dire interpretation possible A) Psychodynamic theory B) Behavioral theory C) biological theory D) cognitive theory

D) cognitive theory

hypersensitivity to their own bodily sensation and interpreting them as dire in those with panic attack was referred to by Clark 1986 as A) the tendency to catastrophize about the meaning of their bodily sensations B) somatic hypervigilance C) a heightened autonomic arousal system D) a higher tendency for one to have emotional dysregulation

A) the tendency to catastrophize about the meaning of their bodily sensations

what term did Beck use to describe the catastrophic interpretations as thoughts just barely out of awareness in those with panic disorder A) conscious thoughts B) subconscious thoughts C) automatic thoughts D) triggered thoughts

C) automatic thoughts

what does the cognitive model of panic disorder propose? A) That panic attacks are solely caused by biological factors B) That panic attacks are random and unpredictable C) That only people with the tendency to catastrophize go on to develop panic disorder D) That panic attacks are caused by external stressors

C) that only people with the tendency to catastrophize go on to develop panic disorder

if the cognitive model of panic disorder proposes that people with the tendency to catastrophize go on to develop the disorder, then it would also predict A) That changing their cognitions about their bodily symptoms should reduce or prevent panic B) That panic attacks are solely caused by biological factors C) That panic attacks are random and unpredictable D) That only external stressors contribute to panic disorder

A) That changing their cognitions about their bodily symptoms should reduce or prevent panic

a comprehensive learning theory of panic disorder suggest that initial panic attacks become associated with what kinds of conditioning? A) Social and environmental conditioning B) Cognitive and emotional conditioning C) Biological and neurological conditioning D) Interoceptive and exteroceptive conditioning

D) Interoceptive and exteroceptive conditioning

What does the comprehensive learning theory of panic disorder propose about the association between panic attacks and cues? A) panic attacks become associated with initially neutral internal and external cues through an interoceptive and exteroceptive conditioning B) heightened physiological responses are linked to both internal and external cues, forming the basis for panic attacks C) panic attacks are random and unrelated to any specific cues, internal or external D) avoidance behaviors develop exclusively due to internal cues, unrelated to external factors

A) panic attacks become associated with initially neutral internal and external cues through an interoceptive and exteroceptive conditioning

According to the comprehensive learning theory of panic disorder, what role does the intensity of a panic attack play in the conditioning process? A) The intensity of a panic attack has no impact on conditioning. B) Intense panic attacks lead to weaker conditioning. C) The more intense the panic attack, the more robust the conditioning that will occur. D) Intense panic attacks only condition external cues, not internal cues.

C) The more intense the panic attack, the more robust the conditioning that will occur.

conditioning of anxiety to the internal or external cues associated with panic sets the stage for the devel-opment of what two of the three components of panic disorder A) Catastrophic thoughts and depressive symptoms B) Anticipatory anxiety and agoraphobia C) Obsessive-compulsive symptoms and social withdrawal D) Sleep disturbances and irritability

B) Anticipatory anxiety and agoraphobia

Due to the conditioning of anxiety to specific cues in panic disorder, what might develop in a subset of individuals? A) Enhanced ability to cope with stressors B) Decreased sensitivity to environmental stimuli C) Agoraphobic avoidance of certain contexts D) Improved overall mood and well-being

C) Agoraphobic avoidance of certain contexts

studies have shown that once an individual has developed panic disorder, that person shows A) Decreased sensitivity to anxiety-inducing cues B) Enhanced ability to cope with stressors C) Improved mood and overall well-being D) Greater generalization of conditioned responding to similar cues

D) Greater generalization of conditioned responding to similar cues

why does extinction of conditioned anxiety occur more slowly in those with panic disorder than in normal controls? A) Enhanced inhibitory learning B) Impaired inhibitory learning C) Improved ability to distinguish safety cues D) Faster habituation to anxiety

B) Impaired inhibitory learning

Individuals with panic disorder are likely to show impaired discriminative conditioning due to: A) Enhanced inhibitory learning B) Improved ability to distinguish safety cues C) Impaired inhibitory learning D) Strong discriminative responses to safety cues

C) Impaired inhibitory learning

What contributes to the occurrence of panic attacks that seemingly come "out of the blue" in panic disorder? A) Improved ability to distinguish safety cues B) Habituation to anxiety C) Impaired inhibitory learning D) Conditioning of panic attacks to internal cues

D) Conditioning of panic attacks to internal cues

What trait places some individuals at a higher risk of developing panic attacks and panic disorder by making them more prone to believe that certain bodily symptoms may have harmful consequences? A) Anxiety sensitivity B) Extroversion C) Emotional resilience D) Cognitive flexibility

A) anxiety sensitivity

In individuals with low perceived control, what trait has a greater effect on panic symptoms? A) Extroversion B) Anxiety sensitivity C) Emotional resilience D) Cognitive flexibility

B) Anxiety sensitivity

What factor may protect individuals with panic disorder against the development of agoraphobic avoidance? A) Low levels of perceived control B) High levels of anxiety sensitivity C) High levels of perceived control D) Emotional volatility

C) High levels of perceived control

what is true regarding the occurrence of nocturnal panic A) they occur in non-REM stage 4 and REM sleep B) they occur in non-REM stage 2 and stage 3 sleep C) they occur in non-REM stage 2 only D) they occur in REM sleep only

B) they occur in stage 2 and stage 3 sleep

How do nocturnal panic attacks differ from night terrors? A) Nocturnal panic attacks occur during Stage 4 sleep, while night terrors occur during REM sleep. B) Night terrors are usually experienced by adults, while nocturnal panic attacks are common in children. C) Nocturnal panic attacks involve waking up in fear, while night terrors typically do not lead to waking up. D) Night terrors are usually characterized by laughter, while nocturnal panic attacks involve screaming.

C) Nocturnal panic attacks involve waking up in fear, while night terrors typically do not lead to waking up.

How do nocturnal panic attacks differ from isolated sleep paralysis? A) Nocturnal panic attacks occur during REM sleep, while sleep paralysis occurs during Stage 4 sleep. B) Sleep paralysis involves a sense of terror and inability to move, while nocturnal panic attacks do not. C) Sleep paralysis is characterized by laughter, while nocturnal panic attacks involve screaming. D) Nocturnal panic attacks are more common in children, while sleep paralysis is usually experienced by adults.

B) Sleep paralysis involves a sense of terror and inability to move, while nocturnal panic attacks do not.

According to the cognitive perspective, why might the catastrophic thought about having a heart attack persist in individuals with panic disorder? A) The disconfirmation process is impaired in individuals with panic disorder. B) People with panic disorder tend to forget the outcomes of their panic attacks. C) Individuals with panic disorder do not experience disconfirmation. D) Safety behaviors, such as breathing slowly, reinforce the catastrophic thought.

D) Safety behaviors, such as breathing slowly, reinforce the catastrophic thought.

which of the following is an example of biases that occur in the maintenance of panic disorder? A) having one’s attention automatically drawn to threatening cues in the environment B) Avoiding all situations that might trigger anxiety. C) Developing a strong preference for neutral stimuli. D) Ignoring internal bodily sensations completely.

A) having one’s attention automatically drawn to threatening cues in the environment

what was the original behavioural treatment for agoraphobia? A) Medication-based therapy. B) Hypnotherapy. C) Cognitive restructuring. D) prolonged exposure to feared situations

D) prolonged exposure to feared situations

what was one limitation of early treatments of panic disorder? A) Lack of professional expertise. B) High cost. C) Focus on physical exercise. D) they did not specifically target panic attacks

D) they did not specifically target panic attacks

an invariant on exposure therapy that focuses on the deliberate exposure to feared internal sensations A) CBT B) interoceptive exposure C) panic control treatment D) cognitive restructuring

B) interoceptive exposure

cognitive restructuring techniques developed in the recognition that A) Panic attacks are solely biological in nature. B) catastrophic automatic thoughts may help maintain panic attacks C) Cognitive restructuring is unnecessary for panic disorder. D) The primary cause of panic attacks is external stimuli.

B) catastrophic automatic thoughts may help maintain panic attacks

a kind of integrative CBT for panic disorder that targets both agoraphobic avoidance and panic attacks A) fear avoidance therapy B) interoceptive exposure C) panic control treatment D) cognitive restructuring

C) panic control treatment

In panic control treatment, what is the second part of the treatment that involves teaching people with panic disorder? A) Exposing them to feared situations. B) Subjecting their automatic thoughts to a logical reanalysis. C) Educating them about the nature of anxiety. D) Teaching them to control their breathing.

D) Teaching them to control their breathing.

which of the following statement is NOT true regarding cognitive and behavioral treatments for panic disorder and agoraphobia? A) they show maintenance of panic free episodes for up to 1-2 years B) they are useful in treating nocturnal panic C) they show greater improvement compared with medications D) they are less effective than medications

D) they are less effective than medications

Many people with panic disorder are prescribed, however also come with physiological dependence A) Antidepressants B) Antipsychotics C) Mood stabilizers D) Anxiolytics

D) Anxiolytics

what medication is useful in the treatment of panic disorder and agoraphobia A) Antidepressants B) Antipsychotics C) Mood stabilizers D) Anxiolytics

A) Antidepressants

why are SSRIs more widely prescribed than tricyclics A) they work more quickly B) better tolerated C) they are less rates of relapse D) they do not create physiological dependence

B) better tolerated

for a diagnosis of GAD, worry about different aspects of life must occur for more days than not for at least A) 1 month B) 6 months C) 12 months D) less than 1 month

B) 6 months

for a diagnosis of GAD, the subjective experience of excessive worry must be accompanied by how many of the six other symtoms listed in the DSM-5 ? A) just two B) all of them C) three or more D) none

C) three or more

The essence of Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) is characterized by: A) Panic attacks B) Agoraphobia C) Anticipatory anxiety D) Social anxiety

C) Anticipatory anxiety

Barlow and others refer to GAD as the _______ because of anxious apprehension/ anticipatory anxiety is the essence of GAD A) "Fundamental" anxiety disorder B) "Basic" anxiety disorder C) "Primary" anxiety disorder D) "Core" anxiety disorder

B) "basic" anxiety disorder

In terms of GAD, it tends to be A) episodic B) transient C) intermittent D) chronic

D) chronic

Which of the following statements is supported by the evidence? A) After age 50, symptoms of generalized anxiety disorder tend to increase. B) After age 50, symptoms of generalized anxiety disorder seem to decrease for many people. C) Generalized anxiety disorder symptoms remain constant throughout a person's life. D) There is no correlation between age and symptoms of generalized anxiety disorder.

B) After age 50, symptoms of generalized anxiety disorder seem to decrease for many people.

although symptoms of GAD decrease after the age of 50, it is known now that these symptoms are often replaced by _______ A) Emotional symptoms B) Cognitive symptoms C) Somatic symptoms D) Behavioral symptoms

C) Somatic symptoms

Regarding sex differences in GAD, which of the following statements is true? A) It is twice as common in women as in men. B) It is more prevalent in men than in women. C) There is no significant difference in prevalence between men and women. D) The prevalence in men and women is highly variable.

A) It is twice as common in women as in men.

why is the age of onset of GAD difficult to determine? A) It is not associated with any specific age group. B) People with GAD rarely remember the onset of their symptoms. C) GAD typically has a sudden onset. D) those with GAD remember having been anxious nearly all their lives, and report a slow and insidious onset

D) those with GAD remember having been anxious nearly all their lives, and report a slow and insidious onset

according to the psychoanalytical viewpoint, GAD results from A) excessive demands from external sources B) an unconscious conflict between ego and id impulses that is not adequately dealt with because the person’s defense mechanisms have either broken down or have never developed. C) Prolonged exposure to adverse experiences during childhood, such as trauma or stress, may contribute to the development of chronic anxiety, persisting over time. D) the presence of a genetic predisposition can influence the regulation of emotions, potentially impacting an individual's ability to manage and cope with various emotional states.

B) an unconscious conflict between ego and id impulses that is not adequately dealt with because the person’s defense mechanisms have either broken down or have never developed.

According to the psychoanalytical viewpoint, GAD results from: A) unconscious neurological abnormalities in the limbic system. B) An unconscious conflict between primal desires and moral constraints that persists without resolution due to the breakdown or insufficient development of defense mechanisms. C) Prolonged exposure to adverse experiences during childhood, such as trauma or stress, may contribute to the development of chronic anxiety, persisting over time. D) The presence of a genetic predisposition can influence the regulation of emotions, potentially impacting an individual's ability to manage and cope with various emotional states.

B) An unconscious conflict between primal desires and moral constraints that persists without resolution due to the breakdown or insufficient development of defense mechanisms.

what did Freud believe with relation to the factors that cause GAD A) The influence of early childhood experiences, particularly in the context of familial relationships, contributing to the development of free-floating anxiety. B) The impact of social factors and societal pressures on individuals, resulting in the manifestation of free-floating anxiety. C) A combination of genetic factors and neurobiological abnormalities leading to the emergence of free-floating anxiety. D) Primarily sexual and aggressive impulses that had been either blocked from expression or punished upon expression that led to free-floating anxiety

D) Primarily sexual and aggressive impulses that had been either blocked from expression or punished upon expression that led to free-floating anxiety

Which of the following statements best aligns with the impact of frequent and extreme anxiety on defense mechanisms, as suggested by psychoanalytic theory? A) Enhanced adaptability and resilience of defense mechanisms under persistent anxiety. B) Diminished influence of defense mechanisms due to recurrent anxiety, making them overwhelmed. C) Strengthened suppression of id impulses in response to frequent anxiety. D) Heightened effectiveness of defense mechanisms in managing recurrent anxiety.

B) Diminished influence of defense mechanisms due to recurrent anxiety, making them overwhelmed.

What is the primary difference between specific phobias and GAD according to the psychoanalytic view? A) Both specific phobias and GAD result from the failure of defense mechanisms to cope with anxiety. B) Specific phobias involve a general sense of unease, while GAD is characterized by a distinct fear of a specific object or situation. C) GAD is exclusively rooted in unconscious conflicts, whereas specific phobias have conscious triggers. D) In specific phobias, defense mechanisms like repression and displacement effectively manage anxiety, while in GAD, these defense mechanisms are ineffective.

D) In specific phobias, defense mechanisms like repression and displacement effectively manage anxiety, while in GAD, these defense mechanisms are ineffective.

which of the following is true based on evidence found in those with GAD A) people with GAD have more tolerance for uncertainty than non anxious controls or those with panic disorder B) people with GAD are less likely to have had a history of trauma in childhood compared to other anxiety disorders C) the unpredictable and uncontrollable events involved in GAD are comparable with the severity and trauma as those involved in the origins of posttraumatic stress disorder D) people with GAD are more likely to have had a history of trauma in childhood compared to other anxiety disorders

D) people with GAD are more likely to have had a history of trauma in childhood compared to other anxiety disorders

which of the following is NOT a significant experiential variable strongly affecting reactions to anxiety provoking situations? A) a history of experiencing many events as uncontrollable and unpredictable B) a persons history of control over their environment C) having intrusive, over controlling parents D) Recent changes in sleep patterns or dietary habits

D) Recent changes in sleep patterns or dietary habits

what process is considered the central feature of GAD and has been the central focus of much research in the past 20 years? A) worry B) rumination C) obsession D) avoidance

A) worry

what do Borkovec and colleagues suggest about the function of worrying for those with GAD A) worrying serves as a form of procrastination B) worrying serves to prepare one for future events C) worrying is a form of self-punishment D) worrying is a way to avoid making decisions

B) worrying serves to prepare one for future events

The positive belief that "Worrying makes it less likely that the feared event will occur" corresponds to which perceived benefit commonly associated with GAD? A) Avoidance of deeper emotional topics B) Superstitious avoidance of catastrophe C) Coping and preparation D) None of the above

B) Superstitious avoidance of catastrophe

People with GAD who believe that worrying about most things serves as a way to distract themselves from contemplating more emotional issues are primarily seeking: A) Avoidance of deeper emotional topics B) Superstitious avoidance of catastrophe C) Coping and preparation D) None of the above

A) Avoidance of deeper emotional topics

Individuals with GAD who think that worrying helps them prepare for predicted negative events are seeking which perceived benefit? A) Avoidance of deeper emotional topics B) Superstitious avoidance of catastrophe C) Coping and preparation D) None of the above

C) Coping and preparation

In the context of GAD, positive beliefs about worry, particularly in the early phases of the disorder's development, may contribute to: A) Reduction in emotional avoidance B) Enhancement of emotional expression C) Maintenance of high levels of anxiety and worry D) None of the above

C) Maintenance of high levels of anxiety and worry

Which of the following is a potential consequence of positive beliefs about worry in GAD, particularly in its early phases? A) Decreased levels of anxiety and worry B) Increased emotional openness C) Maintenance of high levels of anxiety and worry D) None of the above

C) Maintenance of high levels of anxiety and worry

What is the potential consequence of worry in individuals with GAD on their emotional and physiological responses to aversive imagery? A) Enhancement of aversive emotional and physiological responses leading to reinforcement of the process of worry B) Suppression of aversive emotional and physiological responses leading to reinforcement of the process of worry C) Inhibition of worry probability, leading to extinction of the worry process D) Facilitation of topic processing leading to extinction of the worry process

B) Suppression of aversive emotional and physiological responses

Why does worry in GAD hinder the full processing and extinction of anxiety related to the worried-about topic? A) It enhances physiological responding B) It facilitates emotional responses C) It insulates the person from fully experiencing the topic D) It accelerates the extinction process

C) It insulates the person from fully experiencing the topic

in those who have GAD, people who worry about something tend to have A) more intense positive emotions B) less intense negative emotions C) less negative intrusive thoughts D) more negative intrusive thoughts

D) more negative intrusive thoughts

which of the following is an example of cognitive bias in people with GAD A) Selective attention to positive information B) Overestimation of their ability to control future events C) Ignoring potential threats in the environment D) Objective and unbiased interpretation of ambiguous situations

B) Overestimation of their ability to control future events

at what stage of information processing does attentional vigilance for threat cues occur in individuals with anxiety, even before entering conscious awareness? A) Late-stage processing B) Mid-stage processing C) Early-stage processing D) Post-conscious awareness

C) Early-stage processing

Why might attentional focus on threat cues in the environment, especially in early information processing stages, worsen anxiety in individuals who are already anxious? A) It promotes relaxation B) It has no impact on anxiety C) It maintains or exacerbates anxiety D) It leads to complete avoidance

C) It maintains or exacerbates anxiety

What complicates research on the heritability of Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) A) heritability estimates vary as a function of one’s definition of GAD B) Consistency in diagnostic criteria C) Lack of interest in twin studies D) Stability in the definition of GAD over time

A) heritability estimates vary as a function of one’s definition of GAD

What plays a pivotal role in determining whether individuals with a genetic predisposition for Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) or major depression develop either disorder? A) Genetic similarities with family members B) Shared environmental experiences C) Non-shared environmental experiences D) Development of coping mechanisms

C) Non-shared environmental experiences

the finding of benzodiazepines as a medication to reduce anxiety was followed by the finding that A) Identification of a new class of neurotransmitters B) These drugs likely exert their effects by stimulating the action of GABA C) Development of non-pharmacological interventions for anxiety D) A shift towards using antipsychotic medications

B) these drugs probably exert their effects by stimulating the action of GABA

which of the following is not a neurotransmitter involved in modulating anxiety? A) GABA B) dopamine C) norepinephrine D) serotonin

B) dopamine

what anxiety producing hormone has been strongly implicated as playing an important role in GAD? A) corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) B) adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) C) beta-2 receptor stimulation D) beta-1 receptor stimulation

A) corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)

when activated by stress or perceived threat, the corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) stimulates the release of ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone) from the pituitary gland, which in turn causes release of A) dopamine B) adrenaline C) insulin D) cortisol

D) cortisol

corticotropin-releas-ing hormone (CRH) may play an important role in GAD through its effects on the bed nucleus of the stria terminalis, which is now believed to be an important brain area ______ GAD A) causing B) mediating C) controlling D) diffusing

B) mediating

brain areas and neurotransmitters are most strongly implicated in fear and panic are ______ while neurotransmitters, and hormones are most strongly implicated in generalized anxiety (or anxious apprehension) are ______ A) Limbic system and GABA; Hippocampus and dopamine B) Amygdala and norepinephrine ; Limbic system, stria terminalis and GABA C) Hippocampus and serotonin; amygdala and serotonin D) Prefrontal cortex and dopamine; Bed nucleus of the stria terminalis and CRH

B) Amygdala and norepinephrine ; Limbic system and GABA

people with GAD have been found to have a smaller ________ region, similar to what is seen with major depression; this may represent a common risk factor for the two disorders A) left amygdala B) right amygdala C) right hippocampal D) left hippocampal

D) left hippocampal

fear an panic involve activation of the flight or fight response and brain areas and neurotransmitters that are strongly implicated in these emotional responses are A) amygdala, GABA and serotonin B) left hippocampus, GABA and CRH C) amygdala (and locus coeruleus), norepinephrine and serotonin D) limbic system, an extension of the amygdala, GABA and CRH

C) amygdala (and locus coeruleus), norepinephrine and serotonin

Generalized anxiety (or anxious apprehension) is a more dif-fuse emotional state than acute fear or phobia that involves arousal and a preparation for possible impending threat; and the brain area, neurotransmitters, and hormones that seem most strongly implicated are the A) amygdala, GABA and serotonin B) left hippocampus, GABA and CRH C) amygdala (and locus coeruleus), norepinephrine and serotonin D) limbic system, an extension of the amygdala, GABA and CRH

D) limbic system, an extension of the amygdala, GABA and CRH

most treatment for GAD involve A) panic control treatment B) a combination of behavioural and cognitive restructuring techniques C) exposure therapy D) interoceptive exposure

B) a combination of behavioural and cognitive restructuring techniques

why was OCD removed from the category of "anxiety disorders" in the DSM-5 to the new category of "“obsessive-compulsive and related disorders.” ? A) the neurobiological underpinnings of OCD appear to be rather different from those of other anxiety disorders B) anxiety is not generally used as an indicator of OCD severity C) for people with certain forms of OCD such as symmetry-related obsessions and compulsions, anxiety is not even a prominent symptom. D) all of the above

D) all of the above

in terms of medication for anxiety and OCD, compared with anxiety, OCD only responds selectively to A) tricyclics B) SSRI C) NDRI D) SNRI

B) SSRI

a distinction between OCD and schizophrenia is that in OCD thoughts are _____ while in schizophrenia thoughts are _______ A) Intrinsically meaningful; random and chaotic B) a product of their own mind ; influenced by external forces C) externally generated; internally generated D) Sudden and intrusive; gradual and intentional

B) a product of their own mind ; influenced by external forces

in those who have OCD, "insight" is A) absent most of the time for majority of cases B) a continuum about exactly how senseless and excessive their obsessions and compulsions are C) a constant awareness of the irrationality of their obsessions and compulsions D) present only during obsessive episodes but absent during compulsive rituals

B) a continuum about exactly how senseless and excessive their obsessions and compulsions are

which of the following is not one of the obsessive thoughts A) intrusitve thoughts of harming oneself or others B) contamination fears C) neutral thoughts D) pathological doubt

C) neutral thoughts

what is true regarding themes of obsessive thoughts? A) They are consistent cross-culturally and across the life span B) They vary significantly across different cultures but are stable across the life span C) They are influenced primarily by cultural factors and can change throughout the life span D) They are constant across different cultures but tend to change with age

B) they are consistent cross-culturally and across the life span

how many types of primary compulsive rituals are there? A) 5 B) 8 C) 10 D) 2

A) 5

cleaning and checking rituals in OCD are often performed A) Without any specific pattern or repetition B) A specific number of times and thus also involve repetitive counting C) In a haphazard manner with no particular sequence D) Exclusively in odd numbers to avoid bad luck

B) a specific number of times and thus also involve repetitive counting

what is the percent of treatment-seeking people with OCD experience who experience both obsessions and compulsions A) over 90% B) 50% C) below 60% D) 10%

A) over 90%

When mental rituals and compulsions such as counting are included as compulsive behaviors, what percent of treatment-seeking people with OCD experience both obsessions and compulsions A) 10% B) 55% C) below 65% D) 98%

what groups are overrepresented among people with OCD? A) divorced and unemployed B) Married and employed C) Single and employed D) Widowed and unemployed

A) divorced and unemployed

in terms of gender difference in those with OCD, what makes OCD different from the rest of the anxiety disorders? A) Women are more affected than men B) Men are more affected than women C) Gender differences are more pronounced in children with OCD D) there is little or no gender difference in adults

D) there is little or no gender difference in adults

What is the age of onset for OCD? A) middle adulthood but can occur in early adulthood B) adolescence or early adulthood, but can occur in childhood C) early adulthood and middle adulthood, but can occur in adolescence D) late adulthood, but can occur in middle adulthood

B) adolescence or early adulthood, but can occur in childhood

in terms of onset for childhood or early adolescence, what it true regarding gender differences in OCD? A) there are no gender differences in onset at this age and the severity is the same B) is it more common in boys than in girls and is associated with greater severity C) it is more common in girls than in boys and is associated with greater severity D) is it more common in boys than in girls and is associated with less severity

B) is it more common in boys than in girls and is associated with greater severity

in most cases, OCD has a _______ and once pronounced it becomes ______ A) continual onset; reduced in severity B) gradual onset; continues to be gradual C) chronic and serious onset ; gradual D) gradual onset; chronic and serious

D) gradual onset; chronic and serious

according to the dominant behavioral or learning view of OCD, Mowrer’s two-process theory of avoidance learning (1947), OCD occurs from A) Genetic factors B) Psychoanalytic conflicts C) Neurotransmitter imbalances D) neutral stimuli becoming associated with frightening thoughts or experiences through classical conditioning and come to elicit anxiety.

D) neutral stimuli become associated with frightening thoughts or experiences through classical conditioning and come to elicit anxiety.

which theory posits that OCD occurs due to neutral stimuli being associated with frightening thoughts or experiences through classical conditioning? A) The preparedness concept. B) Mowrer’s two-process theory of avoidance learning. C) The social learning theory. D) The cognitive-behavioral theory.

B) Mowrer’s two-process theory of avoidance learning

from the perspective of the two-process theory of avoidance learning on OCD, once an association is learned between an anxiety producing behavior and the compulsion to reduce the anxiety, what occurs? A) A decrease in anxiety sensitivity B) Reinforced avoidance responses C) Spontaneous recovery of conditioned responses D) Enhanced extinction learning

B) reinforced avoidance responses

from the perspective of the two-process theory of avoidance learning, once an association is learned between an anxiety producing behavior and the compulsion to reduce the anxiety, what is the implication with the avoidance responses? A) They become less resistant to extinction over time B) They are highly responsive to counterconditioning C) They tend to be easily replaced by alternative behaviors D) They are extremely resistant to extinction

D) they are extremely resistant to extinction

In the context of the two-process theory of avoidance learning, what did Rachman and Hodgson's (1980) classic experiments reveal regarding the relationship between exposure to obsession-provoking situations and compulsive rituals in individuals with OCD? A) Exposure to obsession-provoking situations consistently led to a permanent reduction in anxiety B) Compulsive rituals were found to be unnecessary for anxiety reduction in OCD C) Anxiety reduction occurred more effectively without engaging in compulsive rituals D) Exposure to obsession-provoking situations resulted in temporary distress, alleviated by engaging in compulsive rituals

D) Exposure to obsession-provoking situations resulted in temporary distress, alleviated by engaging in compulsive rituals

what did Rachman and Hodgson's (1980) find in relation to the distress in those with OCD who were exposed to a situation that provoked an obsession but did not engage in compulsive rituals A) it would continue for a moderate amount of time and gradually dissipate B) the anxiety would decrease rapidly C) the distress would increase over time D) the distress would be unaffected

A) it would continue for a moderate amount of time and gradually dissipate

what did Rachman and Hodgson's (1980) find in relation to the distress in those with OCD who were exposed to a situation that provoked an obsession but were allowed to engage in compulsive ritual? A) it would continue for a moderate amount of time and gradually dissipate B) the anxiety would decrease rapidly C) the distress would increase over time D) the distress would be unaffected

B) the anxiety would decrease rapidly

in terms of therapy, what does the two-process theory of avoidance learning model predict? A) that avoidance behaviors should be reinforced to increase the likelihood of successful therapy outcomes B) that exposure to feared objects or situations should be useful in treating OCD if the exposure is followed by prevention of the ritual C) that reinforcement of avoidance behaviors is the most effective approach in treating avoidance learning disorders D) that avoidance behaviors should be punished to eliminate them and promote successful therapy outcomes

B) that exposure to feared objects or situations should be useful in treating OCD if the exposure is followed by prevention of the ritual

based on the predictions, this model is at the core of the most effective form of behavioural therapy for OCD A) Freud's psychoanalytic theory of OCD B) Bandura's social learning theory of OCD C) Skinner's operant conditioning theory of OCD D) Mowrer’s two-process theory of avoidance learning

D) Mowrer’s two-process theory of avoidance learning

what is a limitation of Mowrer’s two-process theory of avoidance learning A) Fails to consider the role of genetics in the development of avoidance behaviors B) Does not explain why people with OCD develop obsessions in the first place and why some people never develop compulsive behaviours C) Overemphasizes the influence of early childhood experiences on the formation of avoidance learning D) Neglects the impact of cultural factors on the manifestation of avoidance behaviors

B) does not explain why people with OCD develop obsessions in the first place and why some people never develop compulsive behaviours

according to the preparedness concept, the fact that many people with OCD have obsessions and compulsions focused on dirt, contamination, and other potentially dangerous situations has led many researchers to conclude that these features of the disorder likely have A) emerged due to recent cultural influences and societal expectations B) deep evolutionary roots and that obsessions resemble displacement seen in animals C) developed as a consequence of random genetic mutations D) evolved as a result of conscious decision-making processes

B) deep evolutionary roots and that obsessions resemble displacement seen in animals

according to some theorists, ______ activities often involve grooming or nesting under conditions of high conflict or frustration in animals and these might be related to _______ in humans A) aggression; avoidance behaviors B) displacement; compulsions C) mating; social anxiety D) displacement; impulsive

B) displacement; compulsions

which of the following is a factor that can contribute to the frequency of obsessive thoughts in those with OCD? A) genetic predisposition B) attempts to suppress C) adopting a positive mindset D) exposure to stressors

B) attempts to suppress

thought action fusion is the tendency for individuals to assume that A) morality is independent of thoughts and actions B) thinking certain thoughts will lead to neutral consequences C) engaging in certain actions will automatically result in positive outcomes D) certain thoughts either imply the immorality of their character or increase the likelihood of catastrophic events

D) certain thoughts either imply the immorality of their character or increase the likelihood of catastrophic events

What does evidence from twin studies suggest about the heritability of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)? A) OCD has a low concordance rate for both monozygotic and dizygotic twins. B) There is no significant difference in the concordance rates between monozygotic and dizygotic twins for OCD. C) OCD has a moderately high concordance rate for monozygotic twins and a lower rate for dizygotic twins. D) The concordance rate for OCD is higher in dizygotic twins compared to monozygotic twins.

C) OCD has a moderately high concordance rate for monozygotic twins and a lower rate for dizygotic twins.

PET scans have shown that people with OCD have abnormally high levels of activity in which two parts of the frontal cortex linked to the limbic area A) the orbital frontal cortex and the cingulate cortex/gyrus B) the parietal cortex and the occipital cortex C) the temporal cortex and the amygdala D) the precentral gyrus and the postcentral gyrus

A) the orbital frontal cortex and the cingulate cortex/gyrus

when the cortico–basal–ganglionic–thalamic circuit is not functioning properly what might occur in those with OCD? A) B) repeated sets of behaviors stemming from territorial and social concerns (e.g., checking and aggressive behavior) and from hygiene concerns (e.g., cleaning). C) D)

B) repeated sets of behaviors stemming from territorial and social concerns (e.g., checking and aggressive behavior) and from hygiene concerns (e.g., cleaning).

in terms of brain areas involved in OCD, which of the following statement is true? A) B) C) there is a general agreement about most of the brain areas involved D)

which neurotransmitter is strongly implicated in OCD? A) GABA B) dopamine C) norepinephrine D) serotonin

D) serotonin

what is the most effective treatment for OCD? A) Cognitive restructuring B) Exposure and response prevention C) Medication therapy C) Systematic desensitization

B) exposure and response prevention

OCD seems to respond best to medications that affect the A) norepinephrine system B) GABA system C) dopamine system D) serotonin system

D) serotonin system

in approximately one-third of people who fail to respond to serotonergic medications, small doses of certain _________ medications may produce significantly greater improvement A) Benzodiazepines B) Antipsychotic C) Antidepressants D) Stimulants

B) antipsychotic

what is a major disadvantage of medication treatment for OCD, as for other anxiety disorders A) Rapid onset of side effects B) Inability to cross the blood-brain barrier C) When the medication is discontinued, relapse rates are generally very high D) Requirement for frequent dosage adjustments

C) when the medication is discontinued relapse rates are generally very high

In studies with adults, combining medication with exposure and response prevention has generally not been found to be much more effective than: A) Medication alone B) Behavior therapy alone C) Placebo treatment D) Support groups alone

B) Behavior therapy alone

Before neurosurgical techniques for the treatment of severe, intractable OCD, the person must have had severe OCD for at ______ and must not have responded to any of the known medication or behaviour therapy A) 1 year B) 5 years C) 3 years D) 6 months

B) 5 years

Body dysmorphic disorder (BDD) was moved out of the somatoform category in the DSM-IV-TR and into what category in the DSM-5? A) stayed in the somatic symptom disorder category B) OCD and related disorders category C) anxiety disorders category D) personality disorder category

B) OCD and related disorders category

why was Body dysmorphic disorder (BDD) moved out of the somatoform disorder in DSM-IV-TR to the OCD and related disorders category in DSM-5? A) It primarily involves physical symptoms rather than cognitive obsessions. B) It has very strong similarities with OCD. C) It is characterized by functional neurological symptoms. D) It is exclusively associated with somatic complaints.

B) It has very strong similarities with OCD.

what symptom of Body dysmorphic disorder (BDD) usually occurs but is not necessary for a diagnosis? A) Preoccupation with one or more perceived defects or flaws in physical appearance B) Compulsive checking behaviors C) Avoidance of usual activities D) all are required for a diagnosis

B) compulsive checking behaviors

what is the average employment rate of those who have Body dysmorphic disorder (BDD) A) 90% B) 50% C) 10% D) none of the above

B) 50%

interference with social functioning (e.g., with friends, family, or intimate relationships) due to BDD occurs in what percent of people A) 10% B) 99% C) 50% D) 30%

B) 99%

What is a notable trend regarding the prevalence of Body Dysmorphic Disorder (BDD)? A) It is more prevalent in women compared to men. B) It is more prevalent in men compared to women. C) The prevalence tends to be approximately equal in men and women. D) Prevalence is higher in older age groups compared to younger age groups.

C) The prevalence tends to be approximately equal in men and women.

when does the age of onset usually occur for Body Dysmorphic Disorder (BDD)? A) Early childhood B) Adolescence C) Adulthood D) Middle age

B) adolescence

What diagnosis is commonly found in individuals with Body Dysmorphic Disorder (BDD)? A) Generalized Anxiety Disorder B) Bipolar Disorder C) Depressive Diagnosis D) Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder

C) Depressive Diagnosis

In terms of obsessions, compared with people diagnosed with OCD, those diagnosed with Body Dysmorphic Disorder (BDD) are: A) Less likely to experience obsessions B) Even more convinced that their obsessive beliefs are accurate C) More likely to have neutral or positive obsessions D) Equally convinced of the irrationality of their obsessions

B) Even more convinced that their obsessive beliefs are accurate

what neurotransmitter is believed th be implicated in Body Dysmorphic Disorder (BDD)? A) Norepinephrine B) Dopamine C) GABA D) serotonin

D) serotonin

which of the following are NOT potential overlapping causes between OCD and Body Dysmorphic Disorder (BDD) A) serotonin B) socioeconomic status C) treatments D) brain structures

B) socioeconomic status

Which eating disorder is commonly noted for its similarities with Body Dysmorphic Disorder (BDD)? A) Bulimia Nervosa B) Binge-Eating Disorder C) Anorexia Nervosa D) Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder

C) Anorexia Nervosa

which of the following suggested as a reason for why Body Dysmorphic Disorder (BDD) has been understudied A) Lack of prevalence in the population B) Limited interest from researchers C) Most people with this condition never seek psychological or psychiatric treatment. D) Difficulty in diagnosing the disorder

C) Most people with this condition never seek psychological or psychiatric treatment.

research on the biased attention interpretation of information in those with Body Dysmorphic Disorder (BDD) has shown that A) They exhibit a preference for neutral facial expressions. B) They tend to interpret ambiguous facial expressions as contemptuous or angry. C) They show no significant differences in interpreting facial expressions compared to controls. D) Their attention is exclusively focused on positive facial expressions.

B) They tend to interpret ambiguous facial expressions as contemptuous or angry.

one study has shown that when patients with body dysmorphic disorder are shown a picture of their own face, they demonstrate greater activation than do healthy controls in brain regions associated with A) Visual perception and sensory processing B) Inhibitory processes and the rigidity of behavior and thinking C) Emotional regulation and empathy D) Auditory processing and memory retrieval

B) Inhibitory processes and the rigidity of behavior and thinking

in terms of compulsive hoarding, those with this disorder A) Often have fewer comorbidities than individuals with OCD. B) Typically exhibit lower levels of distress compared to individuals with depression. C) Are significantly more disabled than people with OCD. D) Generally experience less impairment in daily functioning than those with social anxiety disorder.

C) Are significantly more disabled than people with OCD.

this disorder has its primary symptom as the urge to pull out one’s hair A) Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) B) Bipolar Disorder C) Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) D) Trichotillomania

D) Trichotillomania

lifetime risk for social anxiety disorder, generalized anxiety disorder, and panic disorder is somewhat lower among _____ groups than among _____ A) african americans ; ethnic minority groups B) ethnic minority groups ; non-Hispanic white C) non-Hispanic whites; ethnic minority groups D) asians; whites

B) ethnic minority groups ; non-Hispanic white

ataque de nervios is one variant of panic disorder seen in people from the Caribbean, although it has the same symptoms as seen in a panic attack, symptoms of this disorder also include A) Nausea and vomiting B) Bursting into tears, anger, and uncontrollable shouting C) Elevated heart rate and shortness of breath D) Physical weakness and fatigue

B) Bursting into tears, anger, and uncontrollable shouting

in a culture of Nigeria, generalised anxiety is associated with three primary clusters of symptoms, one of these symptoms is thought to be a major source of anxiety because they are thought to indicate that one may be bewitched, which symptom is this? A) worry B) dreams C) bodily complaints D) insomnia

B) dreams

ANXIETY DISORDERS Flashcards

(236 cards)