~~~ANXIETY DISORDERS TEST BANK Flashcards
(145 cards)
1
Q
biological components of anxiety disorders include the following EXCEPT
A) autonomic nervous system (ANS)
B) neurotransmitters
C) behavioural inhibition system (BIS)
D) biological predisposition
A
D) biological predisposition
2
Q
the Autonomic Nervous system comprises the ______ which produces physiological responses to threats,and the _________ which is responsible for returning the system to normal after a physiological response
A) parasympathetic nervous system; sympathetic nervous system
B) sympathetic nervous system ; somatic nervous system
C) parasympathetic nervous system; somatic nervous system
D) sympathetic nervous system ; parasympathetic nervous system
A
D) sympathetic nervous system ; parasympathetic nervous system
3
Q
if Joes physiological response included an increased heart rate and dilated pupils, his ______ would responsible
A) parasympathetic nervous system
B) sympathetic nervous system
C) somatic nervous system
D) peripheral nervous system
A
B) sympathetic nervous system
4
Q
one physical symptom that can occur in anxiety is tachycardia which means
A) rapid breathing
B) heart racing and pounding
C) dry mouth
D) dizziness and shortness of breath
A
B) heart racing and pounding
5
Q
one physical symptom that can occur in anxiety is tachypnoea which mean
A) rapid breathing
B) heart racing and pounding
C) dry mouth
D) dizziness and shortness of breath
A
A) rapid breathing
6
Q
what is one of the key features with many anxiety disorders?
A) fear
B) panicking
C) avoidance
D) all of the above
A
C) avoidance
7
Q
‘an irrational fear of a specific object or situation that markedly interferes with an individual’s ability to function’
A) panic disorder
B) generalised anxiety disorder
C) OCD
D) phobia
A
D) phobia
8
Q
under the DSM-5, how many main categories of phobias are there?
A) two
B) eleven
C) three
D) eight
A
C) three
9
Q
agoraphobia is
A) fear of entering public places
B) social phobia
C) fear of inability to escape places or situations
D) both A and C
A
D) both A and C
10
Q
in the diagnostic criteria of specific phobia in the DSM-5, the specification part is coded based on; animal, natural environment, blood injection injury, other and
A) performance
B) situational
C) with dissociation
D) mood
A
B) situational
11
Q
how long does the average panic attack last?
A) 1 hour
B) 10 minutes
C) 30 minutes
D) up to 2 hours
A
B) 10 minutes
12
Q
in terms of aetiology of panic disorders from a cognitive perspective, it is proposed that sufferers
A) readily experience pronounced physiological reactions to stress
B) are already hypersensitive to stress
C) are very prone to giving bodily sensations the most dire interpretation possible
D) all the above
A
D) all the above
13
Q
those with panic disorder is most likely to develop
A) OCD
B) GAD
C) social anxiety disorder
D) agoraphobia
A
D) agoraphobia
14
Q
_____ involves excessive and uncontrollable worry that lasts at least six months and occurs more days than not
A) panic disorder
B) GAD
C) anxiety
D) OCD
A
B) GAD
15
Q
the physical symtoms of GAD differ from fear or anxiety because
A) thoughts are associated with actions or activity they represent in GAD
B) activation of the autonomic systems cannot be sustained for six months for those with GAD
C) those with GAD have more tolerance than those with fear or anxiety
D) those with GAD are more responsive to stress
A
B) activation of the autonomic systems cannot be sustained for six months
16
Q
GAD sufferers show
A) tolerance for uncertainty in everyday life
B) less responsiveness to stress
C) a constant state of arousal
D) unawareness for potential threat
A
B) less responsiveness to stress
17
Q
in OCD, obsessions involve
A) thoughts that equate with actions of activities that they represent
B) obvious negative outcomes
C) thoughts or actions that are used to suppress thoughts, or images and provide relief from them
D) intrusive and mostly nonsensical thoughts, images or urges that the individual tries to resist or eliminate
A
D) intrusive and mostly nonsensical thoughts, images or urges that the individual tries to resist or eliminate
18
Q
In OCD, compulsions involve
A) thoughts that equate with actions of activities that they represent
B) obvious negative outcomes
C) thoughts or actions that are used to suppress thoughts, or images and provide relief from them
D) intrusive and mostly nonsensical thoughts, images or urges that the individual tries to resist or eliminate
A
C) thoughts or actions that are used to suppress thoughts, or images and provide relief from them
19
Q
______ are something that an individual finds offensive in some way, causing distress
A) anxiety
B) phobias
C) obsessions
D) compulsions
A
C) obsessions
20
Q
OCD sufferers can experience thoughts that are equated with the actions of activity that they represent, what is this known as ?
A) sustained action fusion
B) compulsions
C) thought action fusion
D) action sensitivity
A
C) thought action fusion
21
Q
Wolpe and Rachman (1960) developed an account based on learning theory, which sought to explain the development of phobic behavior through
A) vicarious conditioning
B) classical conditioning
C) operant conditioning
D) unconscious conditioning
A
B) classical conditioning
22
Q
in _____ conditioning, we would expect that once a fear response is acquired, phobic fears would generalise to other, similar objects or situations
A) vicarious
B) classical
C) operant
D) unconscious
A
B) classical
23
Q
when joey was a boy, he witnessed his grandfather vomit while dying and soon after developed an intense persistent fear of vomiting and this fear continued on into middle age , what would Joey be diagnosed with?
A) “other” phobia
B) blood-injection injury phobia
C) situational phobia
D) none of the above
A
A) “other” phobia
24
Q
when joey was a boy, he witnessed a traumatic event of his grandfather in distress and vomiting while dying. Soon after developed an intense persistent fear of vomiting and this fear continued on into middle age, to the point that he contemplated suicide one time when he was nauseated and feared vomiting. What is this an example of?
A) vicarious conditioning
B) classical conditioning
C) observational learning
D) unconscious conditioning
A
A) vicarious conditioning
25
in terms of risk factors for phobias, a toddler who watches their mother react positively to a snake will most likely
A) develop a fear of snakes
B) be traumatised by the weird response by his mother
C) not develop a fear of snakes
D) none of the answers are correct
C) will not develop a fear of snakes
26
which of the following is an example of cognitive bias in maintaining or strengthening phobic fears?
A) underestimating the probability that a feared object will be followed by frightening events
B) overestimating the probability that a feared object will be followed by frightening events
C) directing one's attention away from threatening stimuli
D) thinking that a feared event that happened recently will not happen again
B) overestimating the probability that a feared object will be followed by frightening events
27
people more readily develop fears of snakes and spiders if they are paired with aversive events, than they are to develop fears of knives or guns is an example of
A) evolutionary preparedness
B) agoraphobia
C) Selective association
D) Sensory desensitization
A) evolutionary preparedness
28
if Rachel was treating Luis, who has social anxiety and provided cues for Luis to use to challenge her thought such as “Do I know for certain that I won’t have anything to say?” “Does being nervous have to lead to or equal looking stupid?”, what process is Rachel using?
A) Cognitive exposure therapy
B) Logical reanalysis in cognitive restructuring
C) Aversion therapy
D) Mindfulness training
B). logical reanalysis process of cognitive restructuring
29
After enduring a panic attack in an elevator at work, Joe began experiencing the attacks more frequently when he was at work. Joe begun having difficulty standing in line at the coffee shop at work and had marked fear of going to work due to the fear of having a panic attack. He begun to avoid going in to work and asked his Boss if he could work from home, which reinforced his isolation behaviour. Eventually Joe was working from home everyday of the week and eventually begun avoiding going to social work events. The most likely diagnosis for Joe is:
A) agoraphobia without history of panic disorder.
B) social phobia.
C) specific phobia, situation type.
D) panic disorder with agoraphobia.
D) panic disorder with agoraphobia.
30
If Joe was treating a patient for panic disorder, having the patient engage in the exercise of hyperventilation, while simultaneously having the patient stick with the sensations brought about by the exercise until they subside, Joe would be using what type of therapy?
A) interoceptive exposure
B) prolonged exposure
C) CBT
D) panic control treatment
A) interoceptive exposure
31
If luis was treating Joe, who had agoraphobia, and had Joe gradually face the situation he feared, what treatment would Luis be using?
A) interoceptive exposure
B) prolonged exposure
C) CBT
D) panic control treatment
B) prolonged exposure
32
if Ross was treating a patient for panic disorder and educated the client about the nature of anxiety and panic and how the capacity to experience both is adaptive and then teaching the client to control their breathing following the teaching of the logical errors and learn subject their own automatic thoughts to logical reaanlysis before exposing them to the feared situation, Ross would be using what sort of therapy?
A) fear avoidance therapy
B) interoceptive exposure
C) panic control treatment
D) cognitive restructuring
C) panic control treatment
33
Rodney worried about his own and his parents health. He was also very worried about his future which made it difficult for him to complete his master thesis. also worried excessively about getting a bad grade even though he had never had one either in college or in graduate school. In classes he worried excessively about what the professor and other students thought of him and he was shy about dating. Rodney also reported muscle tension and becoming easily fatigued. He also reported great difficulty concentrating and a considerable amount of restlessness and pacing and he had experienced panic attacks in the past. At times he had difficulty falling asleep. what would the likely diagnosis be for Rodney?
A) social anxiety disorder
B) agoraphobia
C) panic disorder
D) GAD
D) GAD
34
what is the most common anxiety disorder in older adults?
A) social anxiety disorder
B) agoraphobia
C) panic disorder
D) GAD
D) GAD
35
what disorder appeared as the most difficult of the anxiety disorders to treat and is still to some extent still the most difficult to treat?
A) social anxiety disorder
B) GAD
C) OCD
D) panic disorder
B) GAD
36
for a diagnosis of OCD, the presence of obsessions and compulsions
A) be present for at least 6 months
B) not occur at the same time
C) can occur separately or together
D) occur together
C) can occur separately or together
37
why are compulsive behaviours performed?
A) To enhance pleasure and positive emotions
B) To prevent or reduce distress, events, or situations
C) To increase physical activity and exercise
D) To express creativity and spontaneity
B) to prevent of reduce distress, event or situation
38
which of the following is one of the most disabling disorder in that it leads to lower quality of life and a great deal of functional impairement?
A) social anxiety disorder
B) GAD
C) OCD
D) panic disorder
C) OCD
39
in terms of the diagnostic criteria for OCD
A) the obsessions and compulsions only take up a couple of minutes per day and cause distress
B) the obsessions and compulsions take up more than 1 hour per day and cause. clinically significant distress
C) Obsessions are not distressing, but compulsions are
D) Compulsions are not distressing, but obsessions are
B) the obsessions and compulsions take up more than 1 hour per day
40
Mark had severe thoughts and images about causing harm to others such as running over pedestrians while he was driving. he also had severe thoughts that he would commit a crime or poison family members or friends. one day he thought he had caused an accident and hit a pedestrian at an inter-section, and he felt compelled to spend several hours driving and walking around all parts of that intersection to find evidence of the accident. what would be the likely diagnosis for Mark?
A) social anxiety disorder
B) GAD
C) OCD
D) panic disorder with agoraphobia
C) OCD
41
Joes thoughts focused on the possibility that he would be implicated in some crime that he had not committed; later, they evolved to the point where he was afraid that he might actually commit a crime and confess to it. what would be the likely diagnosis for Joe?
A) social anxiety disorder
B) GAD
C) OCD
D) panic disorder with agoraphobia
C) OCD
42
Howard stern describes behaviors such as turning pages in magazines only with his pinky finger, walking through doors with the right side of his body leading, and flipping through television stations in a particular order before turning the set off.
what would be the likely diagnosis for Howard?
A) social anxiety disorder
B) GAD
C) OCD
D) panic disorder with agoraphobia
C) OCD
43
from this perspective, touching a doorknob or shaking hands might become associated with the "scary" idea of contamination. once having this association, the person may discover that the anxiety producing behavior can be reduced by hand washing. Washing his or her hands extensively reduces the anxiety, and so the washing response is reinforced, which makes it more likely to occur again in the future when other situations evoke anxiety about contamination
A) Classical conditioning theory of OCD
B) Operant conditioning theory of OCD
C) Habituation theory of OCD
D) Two-process theory of avoidance learning
D) two-process theory of avoidance learning
44
If Rachel was treating someone with OCD and having them exposed to stimuli that provoke their obsessions and then refrain from engaging in the rituals they ordinarily would perform to reduce their anxiety. Rachel would be using what sort of treatment ?
A) Cognitive restructuring
B) Exposure and response prevention
C) Medication therapy
C) Systematic desensitization
B) exposure and response prevention
45
what is at the core of exposure and response prevention ?
A) social learning theory
B) the preparedness concept
C) two-process theory of avoidance learning
D) operant conditioning theory
C) two-process theory of avoidance learning
46
intensive versions of this treatment, clients who, for example, are used to spending 2 to 3 hours a day shower-ing and hand washing may be asked to not shower at all for 3 days at a time (and when they finally do, to spend no more than 10 minutes in the shower). Later in treatment they are encouraged to shower for only 10 minutes a day, with no more than five 30-second hand washings at meal-times, after bathroom use, and after touching clearly soiled objects
A) Cognitive restructuring
B) Exposure and response prevention
C) Medication therapy
C) Systematic desensitization
B) exposure and response prevention
47
Jenny began to have sudden attacks of anxiety and dread and thus began to avoid public situations. Which disorder did Jenny probably have?
a) Panic disorder
b) Mood disorder
c) Specific phobic disorder
d) Avoidance disorder
a) Panic disorder
48
The difference between anxiety and fear is that
a) anxiety is a response to immediate danger, while fear is defined as apprehension over an anticipated problem.
b) anxiety is immediate and fear is anticipated.
c) anxiety is apprehension over an anticipated problem, while fear is defined as a response to immediate danger.
d) anxiety is always adaptive, whereas fear is not.
c) anxiety is apprehension over an anticipated problem, while fear is defined as a response to immediate danger.
49
Dylan is walking through the jungles of Africa, and he suddenly comes across a ferocious tiger. Which of the following reactions is most adaptive in this scenario?
a) anxiety
b) anger
c) panic
d) fear
d) fear
50
Anxiety often involves __________ arousal, and fear involves __________ arousal.
a) high; low
b) high; moderate
c) moderate; low
d) moderate; high
d) moderate; high
51
To improve performance on laboratory tests, it is best for participants to
a) experience a great deal of anxiety.
b) experience a small degree of anxiety.
c) experience no anxiety.
d) experience a small amount of anxiety as well as fear.
b) experience a small degree of anxiety.
52
Which of the following is NOT an anxiety disorder?
a) panic disorder
b) phobic disorder
c) generalized fear disorder
d) social anxiety disorder
c) generalized fear disorder
53
In the DSM-5, all of the following are separate chapters EXCEPT
a) anxiety disorders.
b) obsessive-compulsive and related disorders.
c) panic disorders.
d) trauma- and stress-related disorders.
c) panic disorders.
54
As a group, anxiety disorders
a) are unlikely to be comorbid.
b) are one of the least costly psychiatric disorders to society.
c) cause few interpersonal problems.
d) are the most common type of psychiatric diagnosis.
d) are the most common type of psychiatric diagnosis.
55
Which of the following statements is true?
a) Those with anxiety disorders have no greater risk for medical illness than those without anxiety disorders.
b) Those with anxiety disorders are more likely to be employed than those without anxiety disorders.
c) All of the anxiety disorders are associated with decrements in quality of life.
d) None of the anxiety disorders are associated with decrements in interpersonal concerns.
c) All of the anxiety disorders are associated with decrements in quality of life.
56
Anxiety disorders all share
a) high fear and high anxiety.
b) excessively frequent or severe anxiety that results in marked impairment or distress.
c) the same set of anxiety symptoms.
d) panic.
b) excessively frequent or severe anxiety that results in marked impairment or distress.
57
John is persistently and excessively afraid of snakes. Whenever he sees a snake, he feels intense anxiety and thus avoids them at all costs. John realizes, however, that this fear is unrealistic. John most likely has
a) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
b) social anxiety disorder.
c) a specific phobia.
d) panic disorder.
c) a specific phobia.
58
An individual diagnosed with social anxiety disorder
a) exhibits paranoid symptoms, believing others are plotting to hurt him or her.
b) exhibits anxiety about having panic attacks in public.
c) is terrified of being in public places and may become housebound.
d) becomes extremely anxious when in certain situations that involve activities done in the presence of other people.
d) becomes extremely anxious when in certain situations that involve activities done in the presence of other people.
59
Ted is fearful of interactions with others and avoids eating in public. Ted most likely has
a) specific phobia.
b) panic disorder with agoraphobia.
c) social anxiety disorder.
d) paranoia.
c) social anxiety disorder.
60
What was the rationale behind the DSM-5 change in the name of the diagnosis “social phobia” to “social anxiety disorder”?
a) Social phobias tend to be more pervasive and cause more interference with daily routines than other phobias.
b) A social phobia was termed “social anxiety disorder” in the DSM-III.
c) Many people with social phobias also meet criteria for Avoidant Personality Disorder.
d) Social phobias cause minimal impairment and tend to be of short duration
a) Social phobias tend to be more pervasive and cause more interference with daily routines than other phobias.
61
Bill is fearful of most social situations, whereas Andreas is only fearful of giving speeches. Given this, one could infer that
a) Bill’s fear began at an earlier age.
b) Bill may be more likely to abuse alcohol.
c) Andrea has less impairment.
d) All of the above.
d) All of the above.
62
Social anxiety disorder generally begins during:
a) early childhood
b) middle childhood
c) adolescence
d) early adulthood
c) adolescence
63
Depersonalization and derealization are common symptoms of which disorder?
a) obsessive-compulsive disorder
b) specific phobia
c) social anxiety disorder
d) panic disorder
d) panic disorder
64
Agoraphobia is characterized by a fear of
a) being in unfamiliar places.
b) being embarrassed by saying or doing something foolish in front of others.
c) strangers misinterpreting their symptoms as a heart attack.
d) having a panic attack in places in which escape would be difficult or embarrassing.
d) having a panic attack in places in which escape would be difficult or embarrassing.
65
Edna does not currently have panic disorder. However, she cannot leave her house and had required home sessions when she began therapy. It is likely that
a) Edna has agoraphobia, but does not meet criteria for panic disorder.
b) Edna does not have agoraphobia.
c) Edna is faking her symptoms.
d) Edna has more severe panic but is able to cope with the symptoms.
a) Edna has agoraphobia, but does not meet criteria for panic disorder.
66
Panic attacks
a) occur only in people with panic disorder, by definition.
b) can occur in people who do not have panic disorder.
c) occur in greatest frequency among people with schizophrenia.
d) occur primarily in people with agoraphobia.
b) can occur in people who do not have panic disorder.
67
The DSM-5 differs from the DSM-IV-TR in that
a) agoraphobia is a distinct disorder rather than a subtype of panic disorder.
b) agoraphobia is a subtype of panic disorder rather than a distinct disorder.
c) agoraphobia is a subtype of phobic disorders rather than a distinct disorder.
d) none of the above.
a) agoraphobia is a distinct disorder rather than a subtype of panic disorder.
68
The worries of people with GAD
a) are generally limited to physiological concerns.
b) are similar to worries of most people, just more excessive.
c) typically are driven by another Axis-I disorder.
d) all of the above.
b) are similar to worries of most people, just more excessive
69
GAD is not diagnosed if
a) the person only worries about concerns driven by another psychological disorder.
b) the symptoms are present for over a year.
c) the patient reports excessive worrying and feeling on edge.
d) the patient experiences pervasive anxiety and worry.
a) the person only worries about concerns driven by another psychological disorder.
70
More than __________ of people with one anxiety disorder meet the criteria for another anxiety disorder at some point in their lifetime.
a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 100%
b) 50%
71
The most common disorder comorbid with anxiety disorders is
a) borderline personality disorder.
b) obsessive compulsive disorder.
c) avoidant personality disorder.
d) major depression.
d) major depression.
72
Women are more likely to be diagnosed with anxiety disorders because they are more
a) likely to face their fears directly.
b) physiologically vulnerable.
c) willing to report their symptoms.
d) exposed to social discrimination.
c) willing to report their symptoms
73
According to the text, which of the following is NOT a theory on why women are more likely to develop anxiety disorders than men?
a) Women may show more biological reactivity to stress than men.
b) Women tend to be more nervous than men in general.
c) Men may be raised to believe more in personal control over situations.
d) Men may experience more social pressure than women to face fears.
b) Women tend to be more nervous than men in general.
74
If you lived in Taiwan or Japan, you would
a) be more likely to be diagnosed with an anxiety disorder.
b) be less likely to be diagnosed with an anxiety disorder.
c) be more likely to have kayak-angst.
d) never receive a formal psychiatric diagnosis.
b) be less likely to be diagnosed with an anxiety disorder.
75
In Japan, taijin kyofusho involves
a) the fear of embarrassing others.
b) the fear of going outside.
c) the fear of rice.
d) the fear of closed spaces
a) the fear of embarrassing others.
76
In Eastern Asia, the fear that one’s genitals will recede into the body is called
a) koro.
b) kayak-angst.
c) shenkui.
d) susto.
a) koro.
77
In Latin America, the fright-illness is also known as
a) susto.
b) koro.
c) kayak-angst.
d) shenkui
a) susto.
78
Heritability estimates tend to be the highest for
a) panic disorder.
b) GAD.
c) PTSD.
d) arachnophobia.
a) panic disorder.
79
Q
Individuals with anxiety disorders
a) have weak fear circuits.
b) have fear circuits that do not activate correctly when they are fearful or anxious.
c) have an overactive fear circuit.
d) have an underactive amygdala.
c) have an overactive fear circuit.
80
Factors that may increase risk for more than one anxiety disorder include all of the following EXCEPT
a) behavioral conditioning.
b) genetic vulnerability.
c) culture of origin.
d) neuroticism.
c) culture of origin.
81
Mowrer’s two-factor model of anxiety disorders involves classical conditioning and
a) imitation.
b) operant conditioning.
c) observation.
d) none of the above.
c) observation.
82
Imagine that a man is bitten by a dog and then develops a phobia of dogs. The dog bite would be considered the
a) UCS
b) UCR
c) CS
d) CR
a) UCS
83
Q
Josie has panic disorder, while Herbie does not have an anxiety disorder. They are both shown pictures of sad and angry faces. The researchers studying Josie and Herbie’s brain responses while they look at the pictures will most likely note that
a) Josie’s amygdala is more active than Herbie’s.
b) Josie’s amygdala is less active than Herbie’s.
c) Herbie’s fear circuit is more active than Josie’s.
d) none of the above.
a) Josie’s amygdala is more active than Herbie’s.
84
Dana’s baby, Sophie, participated in a study that indicated that Sophie had high levels of behavioral inhibition. Compared with babies who demonstrated low levels of behavioral inhibition, Sophie is likely to develop
a) panic disorder.
b) social anxiety disorder.
c) OCD.
d) agoraphobia.
b) social anxiety disorder.
85
Behavioral inhibition is defined as the
a) tendency to experience neuroticism.
b) inability to inhibit one’s behavioral reactions.
c) tendency to become agitated and cry when faced with novel stimuli.
d) inability to regulate symptoms of anxiety.
c) tendency to become agitated and cry when faced with novel stimuli.
86
In terms of the social environment's role in the development of anxiety disorders, which of the following statements is true?
a) negative life events often buffer against the development of anxiety disorders.
b) negative life events often precede the onset of anxiety disorders.
c) negative life events are unrelated to the onset of anxiety disorders.
d) none of the above.
b) negative life events often precede the onset of anxiety disorders.
87
To protect against feared consequences of anxiety, people will often engage in
a) safety behaviors.
b) protection behaviors.
c) avoidant behaviors.
d) recessive behaviors.
a) safety behaviors.
88
People with low __________ appear to be at greater risk for developing anxiety disorders.
a) perceived control
b) perceived defense mechanisms
c) anxiety thresholds
d) defense disorders
a) perceived control
89
An individual with a snake phobia would be most likely to pay attention to the word
a) orange.
b) venom.
c) sad.
d) table.
b) venom.
90
. Neuroticism is best defined as the tendency to
a) feel depressed.
b) feel anxious.
c) react to events with greater than average negative affect.
d) react in a pessimistic way.
c) react to events with greater than average negative affect
91
Lola is low in neuroticism. Compared with people who have high levels of neuroticism, Lola
a) is more likely to experience anxiety and depression.
b) is less likely to develop an anxiety disorder.
c) is probably characterized by a tendency to react to events with negative effect.
d) is more likely to have OCD.
b) is less likely to develop an anxiety disorder.
92
Which of the following puts people at greater risk for developing anxiety disorders?
a) having a perception that they have no control over their environment.
b) having a comorbid diagnosis of schizophrenia.
c) having low levels of neuroticism.
d) having low levels of activity in the fear circuit.
a) having a perception that they have no control over their environment.
93
Which of the following might buffer someone against developing an anxiety disorder?
a) repeated early life experiences of having control.
b) previous experiences of control during highly threatening circumstances.
c) being controlled by an understanding parent.
d) both a and b.
d) both a and b.
94
Dr. Francis randomly assigned puppies to one of two conditions. Group 1 grew up with the ability to choose when they would receive dog biscuits, while Group 2 had no control over when they would receive the dog biscuits. In this scenario, Group 2 would be
a) more likely to be aggressive.
b) less prone to neuroticism.
c) more likely to show high levels of behavioral inhibition.
d) more likely to display high levels of anxiety.
d) more likely to display high levels of anxiety.
95
Researchers training those with GAD to focus on a positive set of words over a long period of time using the dot probe task have found that participants
a) are more likely to report anxiety following the trainings.
b) do not experience any changes in their levels of anxiety following the trainings.
c) report less anxiety in both interview and self-report measures following the trainings.
d) report less anxiety in interview measures but more anxiety in self-report measures.
c) report less anxiety in both interview and self-report measures following the trainings.
96
The second factor of Mowrer’s two-factor model explains why
a) a man’s dog phobia never ceases.
b) a man develops a dog phobia.
c) a man reduces his fear of dogs.
d) a man who develops a dog phobia is able to expose himself to dogs.
a) a man’s dog phobia never ceases.
97
Laboratory studies, like those using the dot probe task, have provided evidence for the theory that
a) chronic anxiety creates negative cognitions.
b) fixating on dots for long periods of time may create anxiety.
c) the way we focus our attention can influence anxious mood.
d) none of the above.
c) the way we focus our attention can influence anxious mood.
98
One problem with Mowrer's original two-factor model of phobias is that phobias tend to develop
a) following traumatic experiences.
b) only with respect to certain stimuli.
c) equally in all age groups.
d) in people not otherwise anxious
b) only with respect to certain stimuli.
99
. Which of the following has NOT been proposed as a way that the development of anxiety through conditioning could take place?
a) direct experience
b) repressed memories
c) seeing someone else harmed
d) verbal instruction
b) repressed memories
100
What is a reason why people typically do not fear coconuts, flowers, or strawberries?
a) During evolution, exposure to such stimuli was not life threatening.
b) They are not poisonous.
c) They are not as common as stimuli such as blood or spiders.
d) People developed prepared learning in response to such stimuli.
a) During evolution, exposure to such stimuli was not life threatening.
101
. After viewing tapes of monkeys apparently showing fear of snakes, lambs, and flowers, monkeys who viewed these tapes were only fearful of snakes. This provides only partial support for __________ but better support for __________.
a) modeling; classical conditioning
b) vicarious learning; avoidance learning
c) modeling; prepared learning
d) prepared learning; diathesis
c) modeling; prepared learning
102
Doug was frightened by a rat coming into his bedroom when he was a child, and he now has a rat phobia. However, despite having been severely shocked by putting her finger in an electric outlet, Martha has no fear of light sockets. This inconsistency is explained by the theory of
a) prepared learning.
b) systematic desensitization.
c) irrational beliefs.
d) avoidance conditionin
a) prepared learning.
103
. Ivan reported a traumatic history with dogs, resulting in his fear of dogs. However, Sven also reported a traumatic history with dogs, but does not have a fear of dogs. This provides support for
a) a diathesis for phobia.
b) a preparedness view of phobia.
c) a psychoanalytic theory of phobia.
d) the two-factor theory.
a) a diathesis for phobia.
104
Which of the following is an example of a safety behavior?
a) seeking treatment.
b) avoiding snakes.
c) exposing oneself to a feared stimulus in a controlled environment.
d) avoiding eye contact.
d) avoiding eye contact.
105
Why is avoidance behavior so often maintained?
a) People do not want to overcome their fears.
b) Such behavior reduces the amount of fear a person experiences.
c) Friends and family members generally encourage it.
d) People fail to use safety behaviors.
b) Such behavior reduces the amount of fear a person experiences.
106
Regina has social anxiety disorder. Now, in an effort to overcome her social fear, she is awkward, frequently commits faux pas by avoiding eye contact, and struggles to respond effectively when given compliments. This is an illustration of
a) a predisposing biological factor.
b) preparedness.
c) social skill deficits in social anxiety disorder.
d) cognitive bias in social anxiety disorder.
c) social skill deficits in social anxiety disorder.
107
Both Lindsay and Nicole just completed a solo in a musical competition. The judges awarded them both 9 out of 10. Lindsay has social anxiety disorder and Nicole does not. Based on this information,
a) Lindsay is less likely to worry about how others perceived her performance.
b) Nicole is more likely to have higher standards than Lindsay.
c) Lindsay is more likely to think she sang more poorly than Nicole.
d) None of the above.
c) Lindsay is more likely to think she sang more poorly than Nicole.
108
. There is evidence that social anxiety disorder is related to placing more attention to __________ cues and less attention to __________ cues.
a) external; internal
b) social; personal
c) internal; external
d) personal; social
c) internal; external
109
In regard to panic, the locus coeruleus
a) is likely to be under-sensitive.
b) decreases panic by decreasing activity.
c) shows increased activity.
d) exhibits lower glucose metabolism.
c) shows increased activity.
110
When triggering panic attacks experimentally through the use of drugs, researchers have found that
a) such drugs produce panic in people without a history of panic attacks as often as they produce panic in people with a history of panic attacks.
b) more than a dozen different types of drugs can trigger panic attacks among people with a history of panic attacks.
c) it is nearly impossible to actually replicate the physiological symptoms that occur during a real panic attack.
d) people with a history of panic attacks are more likely to report physiological symptoms than emotional symptoms.
b) more than a dozen different types of drugs can trigger panic attacks among people with a history of panic attacks.
111
Panic attacks can be triggered by which of the following?
a) caffeine.
b) exercise.
c) adrenaline.
d) all of the above.
d) all of the above.
112
According to the cognitive perspective, social anxiety is related to all of the following EXCEPT:
a) unrealistic negative beliefs about the consequences of their social behaviors.
b) attention to how they are doing in social interactions and their own internal sensations.
c) formation of negative visual images of how others will react to them.
d) all of the above.
d) all of the above.
113
Classical conditioning of panic attacks in response to bodily sensations is called
a) interoceptive conditioning.
b) systematic desensitization.
c) two-factor model.
d) exposure.
a) interoceptive conditioning.
113
The fear circuit that is particularly important in explaining panic disorder is called the
a) locus coeruleus
b) amygdala
c) hippocampus
d) thalamus
a) locus coeruleus
114
As opposed to people without a history of panic disorder, those with a history of panic disorder
a) are quicker to extinguish their conditioned fears.
b) are slower to extinguish their conditioned fears.
c) fail to develop conditioned fears.
d) none of the above.
b) are slower to extinguish their conditioned fears.
115
A major psychological hypothesis regarding the onset of panic involves
a) a fundamental problem with breathing control.
b) difficulties in relaxing.
c) a concern with, and misinterpretation of, bodily sensations.
d) excessive attempts to relax that fail.
c) a concern with, and misinterpretation of, bodily sensations.
116
The Anxiety Sensitivity Index
a) has been important in determining panic-proneness.
b) measures fear of bodily sensations.
c) allows tests of the concern with control over bodily symptoms as a hypothesis of panic.
d) all of the above.
c) allows tests of the concern with control over bodily symptoms as a hypothesis of panic.
117
What is the main symptom of GAD?
a) increased heart rate.
b) fear of dying.
c) worry.
d) dizziness.
c) worry.
117
The principal cognitive explanation for the etiology of agoraphobia is the
a) fear-of-fear hypothesis.
b) interoceptive conditioning
c) two-factor model
d) operant conditioning
a) fear-of-fear hypothesis.
118
In the cognitive view, which anxiety disorder develops when anxiety is reinforced by distracting people from other, more powerful, negative emotions and images?
a) phobias
b) panic disorder
c) generalized anxiety disorder
d) obsessive-compulsive disorder
c) generalized anxiety disorder
119
According to Borkovec and colleagues, worry
a) serves as an avoidance mechanism.
b) is adaptive.
c) increases psychophysiological signs of arousal.
d) helps people remember traumatic images.
a) serves as an avoidance mechanism.
120
A common focus of most effective psychological treatments for the anxiety disorders is
a) response prevention.
b) exposure.
c) muscle relaxation.
d) behavioral activation.
b) exposure.
121
while a therapist might consider adding cognitive therapy to treatment of _________, research suggests that outcomes are no better when cognitive therapy is added in the treatment of ________
a) depression, social anxiety disorder.
b) anxiety disorders; depression.
c) specific phobias, social anxiety disorder.
d) social anxiety disorder; specific phobias.
d) social anxiety disorder; specific phobias.
122
. Based on research of effective treatments for social anxiety disorder, a therapist should consider
a) exposure and cognitive therapy.
b) exposure only.
c) systematic desensitization.
d) cognitive therapy only.
a) exposure and cognitive therapy.
123
Social interactions and role-play situations are used in the treatment of
a) specific phobias.
b) social anxiety disorder.
c) panic disorder.
d) obsessive-compulsive disorder
b) social anxiety disorder.
124
the goal of panic control therapy for panic disorder is to help clients
a) re-experience the trauma that led to the panic attacks.
b) relax when symptoms of a panic attack appear.
c) experience attacks fully so the panic extinguishes.
d) view their symptoms as harmless and controllable.
d) view their symptoms as harmless and controllable.
125
Which of the following has NOT been shown to be effective for the treatment of panic disorder?
a) Panic control therapy
b) Psychodynamic therapy
c) Internet-based cognitive therapy
d) Logo therapy
d) Logo therapy
125
Exposure treatment is effective in __________ of clients.
a) 20-30%
b) 40-50%
c) 55-65%
d) 70-90%
d) 70-90%
126
The first widely used exposure treatment for anxiety disorders was called
a) systematic desensitization
b) flooding
c) operant conditioning
d) reinforcement training
a) systematic desensitization
127
. The effects of ___________ appear to endure when follow-up assessments are conducted six months after treatment.
a) CBT
b) flooding
c) reinforcement
d) psychoanalysis
a) CBT
128
__________ is sometimes used to simulate feared situations such as flying.
a) Virtual reality
b) Visual simulation
c) Memory flooding
d) Operant conditioning
a) Virtual reality
128
Extinction involves
a) completely erasing any conscious memory of a specific phobia.
b) a system like an eraser.
c) learning new associations to stimuli that inhibit activation of the fear response.
d) flooding of memories.
c) learning new associations to stimuli that inhibit activation of the fear response.
129
. In-vivo exposure to feared objects simulates
a) real life.
b) memories of trauma.
c) social anxiety disorder.
d) anxiety developed in the womb.
a) real life.
130
. Which of the following statements is true regarding treatment for GAD?
a) Success rates are generally higher for GAD treatment than they are for other anxiety disorders.
b) Success rates are generally lower for GAD treatment than they are for other anxiety disorders.
c) Success rates are about the same for GAD
treatment as they are for other anxiety disorders.
d) Success rates for GAD are more variable than they are for other anxiety disorders.
b) Success rates are generally lower for GAD treatment than they are for other anxiety disorders.
131
Which of the following is a prominent behavioral technique for the treatment of GAD?
a) cognitive restructuring
b) imaginal exposure
c) relaxation training
d) SSRIs
c) relaxation training
132
Which of the following treatments has been shown to be more effective than either medication or supportive psychotherapy in treating posttraumatic stress disorder?
a) Progressive muscle relaxation.
b) Exposure that focuses on trauma-related events.
c) EMDR.
d) Group psychotherapy with other trauma victims.
b) Exposure that focuses on trauma-related events
133
Treatment of acute stress disorder is
a) unnecessary, as most people recover anyway with time.
b) dangerous, as reliving the event increases the trauma.
c) important, as it reduces the risk of developing PTSD.
d) difficult, as it is hard to recreate the original trauma.
c) important, as it reduces the risk of developing PTSD.
134
The two types of medications most commonly used to treat anxiety are
a) mood stabilizers and antidepressants.
b) antidepressants and benzodiazepines.
c) benzodiazepines and anticonvulsants.
d) anticonvulsants and beta-blockers.
b) antidepressants and benzodiazepines.
135
Some of the most commonly prescribed medications for social anxiety disorder are __________, which are proposed to work by ____________.
a) mood stabilizers; inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin.
b) beta blockers; diminishing the effects of endogenous opiates.
c) mood stabilizers; diminishing agitation.
d) beta blockers; diminishing the effects of adrenaline on the body.
d) beta blockers; diminishing the effects of adrenaline on the body.
136
Which of the following medications, when used in combination with exposure therapy, may bolster learning and thus aid in treatment of specific phobias?
a) SSRIs
b) beta blockers
c) D-cycloserine
d) TCAs
c) D-cycloserine
137
SSRI stands for
a) selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.
b) selective serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibiters.
c) systematics serotonin reuptake infusion.
d) none of the above.
a) selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.
138
The combination of medication and CBT for anxiety disorders leads to __________ treatment outcomes.
a) improved
b) no difference in
c) a worsening of
d) none of the above
a) improved
139
The diagnosis of Generalized Anxiety Disorder requires that symptoms be present for at least
a) 6 months
b) 3 months
c) 2 months for adolescents, 6 months for adults
d) 3 months for adults, 6 months for children
a) 6 months
140
The diagnosis of Generalized Anxiety Disorder requires that_______ criteria be met in children than in adults.
a) fewer
b) more
c) the same number of
d) different
a) fewer
141
The central feature of Generalized Anxiety Disorder in children is ________.
a) uncontrollable worry
b) panic attacks
c) social anxiety
d) avoidance
a) uncontrollable worry
