PSYCHOLOGICAL TREATMENTS Flashcards by Jordan Crystal

what conviction underlying all psychotherapy or psychological treatment

A) That psychological problems are solely determined by genetics

B) That psychological problems are incurable

C) That people with psychological problems can change—can learn more adaptive ways of perceiving, evaluating, and behaving

D) That psychological problems are solely determined by environmental factors

C) that people with psychological problems can change—can learn more adaptive ways of perceiving, evaluating, and behaving

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what kind of people are more likely to receive treatment?

A) Those with minor concerns that don’t impact daily functioning

B) Those with serious conditions in which there is considerable impairment in daily functioning

C) Individuals with no psychological concerns

D) People with moderate psychological issues

B) Those with serious conditions in which there is considerable impairment in daily functioning

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

why would men be less likely to seek help, consider a therapist of ask questions when they do seek professional help?

A) Men are more likely to self-diagnose and treat their emotional issues independently

B) They are less able than women to recognize and label feelings of distress and to identify these feelings as emotional problems

C) Men typically prefer to cope with emotional problems through social support networks

D) Men are inherently less inclined to seek help or discuss their emotions

B) They are less able than women to recognize and label feelings of distress and to identify these feelings as emotional problems

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what strategy might be useful to use to treat men soldiers with PTSD?

A) Exposure therapy

B) Virtual reality therapy

C) Aversion therapy

D) Systematic reinforcement

B) virtual reality therapy

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

which of the following is a group of people who would be less likely to enter therapy?

A) a man who prides himself on being emotionally stoic

B) parents who demands that their child’s problematic behavior be fixed.

C) those who sense that they have not lived up to their own expectations and realized their own potential

D) one who has been court-ordered to do so by a judge because of substance abuse

A) a man who prides himself on being emotionally stoic

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

how would a typical client who enters therapy be described?

A) one who was mandated by court

B) there is no typical client

C) one who suffers severe disorder impacing their daily life

D) women

B) there is no typical client

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what do most authorities agree on as variables important to the outcome of therapy?

A) The duration of therapy sessions and the therapist’s experience

B) Motivation to change and severity of symptoms

C) The cost of therapy and the therapist’s theoretical orientation

D) The client’s social status and the therapist’s personal characteristics

B) Motivation to change and severity of symptoms

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what groups deal extensively with emotional problems

A) clergy

B) trained trusted adviser

C) general-practice physicians

D) all of the above

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

which of the following is a professional who often administers psychological treatment?

A) general-practice physicians

B) psychiatric social workers

C) clergy

D) none of the above

B) psychiatric social workers

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

This approach ideally involves the coordinated efforts of medical, psychological, social work, and other mental health personnel working together as the needs of each case warrant

A) Holistic therapy

B) Integrated therapy

C) Collaborative care

D) Team approach

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Although definitions of the therapeutic alliance vary, what are NOT one of its key elements

A) Agreement between patient and therapist about the goals and tasks of therapy

B) A sense of working collaboratively on the problem

C) A focus on immediate symptom relief without considering long-term goals

D) Development of a positive bond or relationship between patient and therapist

C) A focus on immediate symptom relief without considering long-term goals

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what is often sufficient in itself to bring about substantial improvement

A) Medication

B) Expectation

C) Insight

D) Social support

B) Expectation

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

a client’s reports of change in their symptoms or functioning, a clinician’s ratings of changes that have occurred, and reports from the client’s family or friends is used for what?

A) Assessing therapy costs

B) Estimating clients’ gains in therapy

C) Evaluating therapist performance

D) Determining the duration of therapy

B) Estimating clients’ gains in therapy

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

comparison of pretreatment and posttreatment scores on instruments designed to measure relevant facets of psychological functioning, and measures of change in selected overt behaviors are used for what?

A) Assessing therapy costs

B) Estimating clients’ gains in therapy

C) Evaluating therapist performance

D) Determining the duration of therapy

B) Estimating clients’ gains in therapy

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what is widely used to measure the degree of severity of a client’s depression and is a standard in the pretherapy and post-therapy assessment of depression.

A) Beck Depression Inventory

B) Montgomery-Åsberg Depression Rating Scale

C) Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9)

D) Zung Self-Rating Depression Scale

A) Beck Depression Inventory

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what is a key issue in the measurement of client ratings?

A) scores tend to drift toward the average of their own distributions

B) they are not necessarily a reliable
source of information on therapeutic outcomes.

C) they may be biased in favor of seeing themselves as competent and successful

D) they are likely to focus on the theoretical predictions of the therapist or researcher

B) they are not necessarily a reliable
source of information on therapeutic outcomes.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what is a rating scale used by clinicians to measure the severity of a patient’s depression similar to the Beck Depression Inventory, but completed by the clinician rather than the client

A) Clinician Administered PTSD Scale

B) Hamilton Rating Scale for Depression

C) Kutcher Adolescent Depression Scale

D) Major Depression Inventory

B) Hamilton Rating Scale for Depression

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what is a key issue in the measurement of clinician ratings?

B) they are not necessarily a reliable
source of information on therapeutic outcomes.

C) they may be biased in favor of seeing themselves as competent and successful

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what do trained independent evaluators do

A) Provide therapy to patients

B) Conduct clinical interviews and rate the amount of clinical change that has occurred in a patient

C) Administer psychological tests

D) Prescribe medication for patients

B) Conduct clinical interviews and rate the amount of clinical change that has occurred in a patient

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

when would independent evaluators be used frequently in rigorous studies of treatment effectiveness

A) In routine clinical practice

B) when they know what sort of treatment a person received

C) when they do not know what kind of treatment a person received

D) In non-clinical settings

C) when they do not know what kind of treatment a person received

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what is NOT a key issue in using objective measures of client change using various psychological tests?

A) they are likely to focus on the theoretical predictions of the therapist or researcher

B) they are not necessarily valid predictors of the changes

C) scores drifting toward the average of their own distributions

D) the client may be biased in favor of seeing themselves as competent and successful

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what is used in research settings to examine brain activity before and after treatment?

A) CT

B) fMRI

C) MRI

D) PET

B) fMRI

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what is the most direct way to know if someone has improved in treatment

A) Covert behaviour

B) Overt behaviour

C) Emotional expression

D) Internal thought processes

B) Overt behaviour

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

which of the following examples would be a downside of using overt behaviour to infer improvement in treatment?

A) client faking change

B) telling the therapist how we feel

C) suicidal thoughts

D) having a sad expression

C) suicidal thoughts

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

when the therapist behaves in ways that exploit the trust of the patient or engages in behavior that is highly inappropriate A) Therapeutic alliance B) Treatment effectiveness C) Ethical concerns D) Boundary violations

D) Boundary violations

randomized clinical trials (RCTs) are used when A) Conducting case studies B) Demonstrating a drug has efficacy C) Assessing treatment acceptability D) Investigating the history of a specific therapeutic approach

B) Demonstrating a drug has efficacy

what is one way researchers have minimised the the variability in patients’ clinical outcomes that might result from characteristics of the therapist themselves A) Focusing on therapist's personal experiences B) Using subjective measures of therapy outcomes C) Incorporating therapist's personal biases into treatment D) Manualized therapies

D) Manualized therapies

randomized clinical trials (RCTs) typically focus on A) Patients with multiple comorbidities B) Non-clinical populations C) Individuals with undiagnosed mental health conditions D) Patients with a single DSM diagnosis

D) Patients with a single DSM diagnosis

Efficacy, or RCT, studies of psychosocial treatments involve two or more treatment or control (e.g., wait list) conditions, where at least one of the treatment conditions is A) B) Biological C) Sociocultural D) Psychosocial

D) Psychosocial

what are considered the most rigorous type of evaluation researchers have for establishing that a given therapy “works” for clients with a given diagnosis A) Clinical case studies B) Efficacy studies C) Non-controlled qualitative research D) Longitudinal observational studies

B) Efficacy studies

what is a good example of the biopsychosocial perspective that best describes current thinking about mental disorders A) Strictly biological explanations B) Integration of medication and psychotherapy C) Exclusively psychosocial perspectives D) Reductionist approaches to treatment

B) Integration of medication and psychotherapy

D-cycloserine activates a receptor that is critical in facilitating extinction of A) personality disorders B) Sexual dysfunction C) Depression D) Anxiety

D) Anxiety

patients with social anxiety disorder who receive__________ do much better if they are given an oral dose of D-cycloserine before each session A) CBT B) Exposure therapy C) systematic reinforcement D) in vivo therapy

B) Exposure therapy

what do Hollon and Fawcett (1995) note in relation to pharmacotherapy and psychotherapy A) Pharmacotherapy appears to provide rapid, reliable relief from acute distress and and psychotherapy appears to provide broad and enduring change B) Pharmacotherapy appears to pro-vide broad and enduring change and psychotherapy appears to provide rapid, reliable relief from acute distress C) Both pharmacotherapy and psychotherapy are equally effective for all mental disorders. D) The effectiveness of pharmacotherapy and psychotherapy is entirely dependent on the severity of the mental disorder.

A) Pharmacotherapy appears to provide rapid, reliable relief from acute distress and and psychotherapy appears to provide broad and enduring change

what therapy is a direct and active treatment that recognizes the importance of behavior, acknowledges the role of learning, and includes thorough assessment and evaluation A) Cognitive B) Psychodynamic C) Behaviour D) Family

C) Behaviour

what do behavior therapists focus on A) Unconscious conflicts and early childhood experiences B) Deep-seated personality traits C) Presenting problem—the problem or symptom that is causing the patient great distress D) Exploring the patient's emotions and feelings

C) presenting problem—the problem or symptom that is causing the patient great distress

what is a a behavior therapy technique that is widely used in the treatment of anxiety disorders A) Aversion B) Exposure C) Modeling D) Systematic reinforcement

B) Exposure

during exposure therapy, if a patient or client is confronted with the fear-producing stimulus in a very controlled, slow, and gradual way this would be known as A) Aversion therapy B) Systematic desensitization C) Flooding D) Cognitive restructuring

B) Systematic desensitization

during exposure therapy, if a patient or client is confronted with the fear-producing stimulus in which the patient directly confronts the feared stimulus at full strength, this is accomplished using A) Aversion therapy B) Systematic desensitization C) Flooding D) Cognitive restructuring

C) Flooding

what technique would a therapist be using is a house-bound patient with agoraphobia being accompanied outdoors by the therapist A) Exposure therapy - Systematic desensitization B) Exposure therapy - Flooding C) Exposure therapy - in vivo exposure D) Exposure therapy - imaginal exposure

B) Exposure therapy - Flooding

what is the rational behind systematic desensitization A) Exposure to the feared stimulus in a highly intense and overwhelming manner B) Find a behavior that is incompatible with being anxious and repeatedly pair this with the stimulus that provokes anxiety in the patient C) Identifying and challenging irrational thoughts associated with anxiety D) Encouraging the patient to avoid the feared stimulus to reduce anxiety

B) Find a behavior that is incompatible with being anxious and repeatedly pair this with the stimulus that provokes anxiety in the patient

if someone with a fear of snakes is instructed to handle a snake, what sort of form is this exposure A) Virtual reality exposure B) In vivo exposure C) Interoceptive exposure D) Imaginal exposure

B) in vivo exposure

what strategy is aimed at teaching a person, while in the presence (real or imagined) of the anxiety-producing stimulus, to relax or behave in some other way that is inconsistent with anxiety A) Exposure therapy - Systematic desensitization B) Exposure therapy - Flooding C) Exposure therapy - in vivo exposure D) Exposure therapy - imaginal exposure

A) Exposure therapy - Systematic desensitization

what type of therapy did Mary Cover Jones (1924) use in which she successfully eliminated a small boy’s fears of a white rabbit and other furry animals. She began by bringing the rabbit just inside the door at the far end of the room while the boy, Peter, was eating. On successive days, the rabbit was gradually brought closer until Peter could pat it with one hand while eating with the other A) Exposure therapy - Systematic desensitization B) Exposure therapy - Flooding C) Exposure therapy - in vivo exposure D) Exposure therapy - imaginal exposure

A) Exposure therapy - Systematic desensitization

what therapy occurs when A client is first taught to enter a state of relaxation, typically by progressive concentration on relaxing vari-ous muscle groups. Meanwhile, patient and therapist collaborate in constructing an anxiety hierarchy that con-sists of imagined scenes graded as to their capacity to elicit anxiety A) Exposure therapy - Systematic desensitization B) Exposure therapy - Flooding C) Exposure therapy - in vivo exposure D) Exposure therapy - imaginal exposure

A) Exposure therapy - Systematic desensitization

for a patient with a dog pho-bia, a low-anxiety step might be imagining a small dog in the distance being walked on a leash by its owner, what would a high anxiety step be? A) Watching a video of a calm dog lying down B) Visiting a friend who has a well-behaved dog in a controlled environment C) Imagining a medium-sized dog playing in a park D) Imagining a large and exuberant dog running toward the patient

D) imagining a large and exuberant dog running toward the patient

these therapy sessions consist of the patient’s repeatedly imagining, under conditions of deep relaxation, the scenes in the hierarchy, begining with low anxiety images and gradually working toward those in the more extreme ranges A) systematic desensitization B) flooding C) in vivo exposure D) modeling

A) systematic desensitization

when does treatment using systematic desensitisation and imaginal exposure continue until A) Until the client becomes completely comfortable with the feared stimulus B) Until the therapist decides it is no longer necessary C) Until the client experiences extreme distress and panic D) Until all items in the hierarchy can be imagined without notable discomfort, at which point the client’s real-life difficulties typically have shown substantial improvement.

D) Until all items in the hierarchy can be imagined without notable discomfort, at which point the client’s real-life difficulties typically have shown substantial improvement.

what therapy involves modifying undesirable behavior by the old-fashioned method of punishment A) Negative punishment B) Positive reinforcement C) Operant therapy D) Aversion therapy

D) Aversion therapy

drugs that have noxious effects, such as Antabuse, which induces nausea and vomiting when a person who has taken it ingests alcohol would be used in what sort of therapy A) Negative punishment B) Positive reinforcement C) Operant therapy D) Aversion therapy

D) Aversion therapy

if a client is instructed to wear a substantial elastic band on the wrist and to “snap” it when temptation arises, thus administering self-punishment, what sort of therapy would be used? A) Negative punishment B) Positive reinforcement C) Operant therapy D) Aversion therapy

D) Aversion therapy

A younger client may be exposed to behaviors or roles in peers who act as assistants to the therapist and then be encouraged to imitate and practice the desired new responses A) Aversion B) Exposure C) Modeling D) Systematic reinforcement

C) Modeling

what therapy would be used for the learning of simple skills such as self-feeding for a child with profound intellectual disability A) Aversion B) Exposure C) Modeling D) Systematic reinforcement

C) Modeling

what type of therapy would be used to increase effectiveness in social situations for a shy, withdrawn adolescent A) Aversion B) Exposure C) Modeling D) Systematic reinforcement

C) Modeling

In work with children especially, effective decision making and problem solving may be modeled when the therapist A) Provides direct instructions B) Encourages the child to solve problems independently C) Utilizes only written materials D) Thinks out loud

D) Thinks out loud

what did Bandura find in relation to what was the most effective treatment for snake phobia A) Exposing individuals to live snakes in a controlled environment eliminated the phobic reactions B) Live modeling of fearlessness, combined with instruction and guided exposure resulted in the elimination of phobic reactions C) Cognitive restructuring without any exposure to snakes is the most effective treatment D) Administering medication to reduce anxiety during snake encounters reduces the distress when thinking about a snake

B) live modeling of fearlessness, combined with instruction and guided exposure resulted in the elimination of phobic reactions

Billy, a 6-year-old first grader, was brought to a psychological clinic by his parents because his teacher had told them that his behav-ior at school was inappropriate and no longer acceptable. Specifi-cally, he had a long pattern of disrupting the class, talking back to his teacher, and being aggressive toward other children. It became apparent in observing Billy and his parents during the initial interview that both his mother and his father were uncritical and approving of everything Billy did. After further assessment, a three-phase pro-gram of therapy was undertaken: (1) Billy’s parents were helped to discriminate between disruptive behavior and appropriate behavior on Billy’s part (each type of behavior was defined and described in a very detailed way for the parents so they would be consistent in classifying each type of behavior). (2) They were instructed to ignore Billy when he engaged in disruptive behavior while vocally showing their approval of appropriate behavior. (3) Billy’s teacher was also instructed to ignore Billy, insofar as it was feasible, when he engaged in disruptive behavior and to devote her attention at those times to children who were behaving more appropriately. Although Billy’s disruptive behavior in class increased during the first few days of this behavior therapy program, it diminished markedly after his parents and teacher no longer reinforced it. As his maladaptive behavior diminished, he was better accepted by his classmates. what sort of therapy was used A) Token economies B) Response shaping C) Systematic reinforcement D) Systematic desensitisation

C) Systematic reinforcement

in this technique, positive reinforcement is used to establish, by gradual approximation, a response that is actively resisted or is not initially in an individual’s behavioral repertoire. A) Token economies B) Response shaping C) Systematic reinforcement D) Systematic desensitisation

B) Response shaping

what technique has been used extensively in working with children’s behavior problems A) Token economies B) Response shaping C) Systematic reinforcement D) Systematic desensitisation

B) Response shaping

a child who refuses to speak in front of others (selective mutism) may be first rewarded (with praise or a more tangi-ble treat) for making any sound. Later, only complete words, and later again only strings of words, would be rewarded. what tehcnique has been used? A) Token economies B) Response shaping C) Systematic reinforcement D) Systematic desensitisation

B) Response shaping

what technique is based on the principles of operant conditioning A) Aversion therapy B) Response shaping C) Systematic reinforcement D) Modeling

C) Systematic reinforcement

what techniques remain a relevant treatment approach for individuals with serious mental illness and those with developmental disabilities A) Token economies B) Response shaping C) Systematic reinforcement D) Systematic desensitisation

A) Token economies

why does behavioural therapy usually achieve results in a short period of time A) It addresses unconscious conflicts and early childhood experiences B) It is generally directed to specific symptoms C) It relies heavily on exploring deep-seated personality traits D) It involves a lengthy and comprehensive analysis of past experiences

B) It is generally directed to specific symptoms

when is behavior therapy less likely to be used? A) When the therapist prefers a long-term treatment approach B) When the client prefers medication as the primary treatment C) When the client's problems are specific and well-defined D) When the client's problems are more pervasive and vaguely defined

D) When the client's problems are more pervasive and vaguely defined

what techniques remain central to the treatment of anxiety disorders A) psychodynamic B) humanistic C) cognitive D) behavioural

D) behavioural

In this treatment the patient and the therapist work together to help the patient find ways to become more active and engaged with life. A) Transference focused psychotherapy B) Behavioural activation C) Rational emotive therapy D) Systematic desensitization

B) Behavioural activation

two main themes are important for this therapy: (1) the conviction that cognitive processes influence emotion, motivation, and behavior; and (2) the use of action change and thought techniques in a pragmatic (hypothesis-testing) manner A) Mindfulness-based cognitive therapy B) rational emotive behavior therapy C) Cognitive restructuring D) CBT

D) CBT

The first form of behaviorally oriented cognitive therapy was developed by Albert Ellis and called A) Mindfulness-based cognitive therapy B) rational emotive behavior therapy C) Cognitive restructuring D) CBT

B) rational emotive behavior therapy

what therapy attempts to change a client’s maladaptive thought processes, on which maladaptive emotional responses and, thus, behavior are presumed to depend A) Mindfulness-based cognitive therapy B) Rational emotive behavior therapy C) Cognitive restructuring D) behavioural therapy

B) rational emotive behavior therapy

The task of this technique is to restructure an individual’s belief system and self-evaluation, especially with respect to the irrational “shoulds,” “oughts,” and “musts” that are preventing the individual from having a more positive sense of self-worth and an emotionally satisfying, fulfilling life. A) Mindfulness-based cognitive therapy B) Rational emotive behavior therapy C) Cognitive restructuring D) behavioural therapy

B) Rational emotive behavior therapy

the philosophy underlying rational emotive behavior therapy has something in common with that underlying humanistic therapy because A) both challenge irrational beliefs B) both take a clear stand on personal worth and human values. C) Both emphasize self-exploration. D) both encourages individuality.

B) both take a clear stand on personal worth and human values.

“Why should your failure to get the promotion you wanted mean that you are worthless?” would be heard in what sort of therapy A) Mindfulness-based cognitive therapy B) Rational emotive behavior therapy C) Cognitive restructuring D) Motivational interviewing

B) Rational emotive behavior therapy

Rational emotive behavior therapy aims to increase an individual’s feelings of self-worth and an emotionally satisfying, fulfilling life by A) Identifying logical errors in thinking B) Disputing a person’s false beliefs through confrontation C) Removing the constraints and restrictions that grow out of unrealistic demands D) resolving their ambivalence about change and make a commitment to treatment

B) Disputing a person’s false beliefs through confrontation

a fundamental assumption from the perspective of the cognitive model is A) All psychological problems are rooted in early childhood experiences. B) Problems result from biased processing of external events or internal stimuli. C) Emotional difficulties are primarily caused by unconscious conflicts. D) Behavior is determined solely by reinforcement history.

B) problems result from biased processing of external events or internal stimuli.

according to this perspective, biases distort the way that a person makes sense of the experiences that she or he has in the world, leading to cognitive error A) Psychodynamic B) Humanistic C) Behavioral D) Cognitive

D) Cognitive

According to Beck, what underlies biases A) External environmental factors B) A relatively stable set of cognitive structures or schemas C) Unconscious desires and conflicts D) Genetic predispositions

B) a relatively stable set of cognitive structures or schemas

in what therapy would a client be taught to identify their own automatic thoughts and to keep records of their thought content and their emotional reactions A) Mindfulness-based cognitive therapy B) Humanistic C) Rational emotive behavior therapy D) CBT

D) CBT

if a therapist helped a client to identify the logical errors in their thinking and learn to challenge the validity of these automatic thoughts, they would be using which therapy A) Mindfulness-based cognitive therapy B) Humanistic C) Rational emotive behavior therapy D) Cognitive therapy

D) Cognitive therapy

what is the distinction between Beck’s cognitive therapy and Rational emotive behavior therapy A) clients are asked to gather information about themselves in RBT B) clients do not change their beliefs by debate and confrontation in RBT C) clients do not change their beliefs by debate and confrontation in cognitive therapy D)

C) clients do not change their beliefs by debate and confrontation in cognitive therapy

in what therapy are clients are encouraged to gather information about themselves A) Mindfulness-based cognitive therapy B) Humanistic C) Rational emotive behavior therapy D) Cognitive therapy

D) Cognitive therapy

a young man who believes that he will be rejected by any attractive woman he approaches would be led to a searching analysis of the reasons why he holds this belief. The client might then be assigned the task of “testing” this dysfunctional “hypothesis” by actually approaching seemingly appropriate women whom he admires, what therapy is this A) Mindfulness-based cognitive therapy B) Humanistic C) Rational emotive behavior therapy D) Cognitive therapy

D) Cognitive therapy

in what therapy is the client encouraged to discover the faulty assumptions or dysfunctional schemas that may be leading to problem behaviors and self-defeating tenden-cies A) Mindfulness-based cognitive therapy B) Humanistic C) Rational emotive behavior therapy D) Cognitive therapy

D) Cognitive therapy

what phase of treatment is considered essential in ensuring resistance to relapse when the client faces stressful life events in the future A) Identifying and challenging automatic thoughts B) Discovering faulty assumptions or dysfunctional schemas C) Implementing behavioral interventions D) Establishing rapport and building trust

B) Discovering faulty assumptions or dysfunctional schemas

in what therapy would a client be assigned the task of “testing” a dysfunctional “hypothesis” A) Mindfulness-based cognitive therapy B) Humanistic C) Rational emotive behavior therapy D) Cognitive therapy

D) Cognitive therapy

for someone with panic disorder, what approach would be used to identify the automatic thoughts about feared bodily sensations and on teaching the client to “decatastrophize” the experience of panic A) Mindfulness-based cognitive therapy B) Humanistic C) Rational emotive behavior therapy D) Cognitive therapy

D) Cognitive therapy

for someone with bulimia, what approach would be used to center on the person’s overvalued ideas about body weight and shape, which are often fueled by low self-esteem and fears of being unattractive A) Mindfulness-based cognitive therapy B) Humanistic C) Rational emotive behavior therapy D) Cognitive therapy

D) Cognitive therapy

what approach would be used in someone with bulimia in which faulty cognitions about which foods are “safe” and which are “dangerous” are explored A) Mindfulness-based cognitive therapy B) Humanistic C) Rational emotive behavior therapy D) Cognitive therapy

D) Cognitive therapy

With respect to controlled research studies with carefully diagnosed clinical populations, REBT shows what sort of effects in the treatment of a range of mental disor-ders such as anxiety and depression, as well as psychological and behavioral problems such as poor quality of life and school performance A) No significant effects B) Inconsistent and unreliable effects C) weak to moderate D) moderate to strong effects

D) moderate to strong effects

what approach may be most useful in helping people to cope better with everyday stress and perhaps in preventing them from developing full-blown anxiety or depressive disorders A) Mindfulness-based cognitive therapy B) Humanistic C) Rational emotive behavior therapy D) Cognitive therapy

C) Rational emotive behavior therapy

what is the treatment of choice for bulimia A) Behavioural therapy B) Cognitive therapy C) Exposure therapy D) CBT

D) CBT

which of the following has NOT been found in relation to the use of CBT to treat depression A) female patients benefit more from treatment than do men B) the effectiveness of CBT seems to be decreasing over time C) more experienced clinicians have better treatment effects than less experienced ones D) CBT is equally effective across various age groups

D) CBT is equally effective across various age groups

what therapies see psychopathology as stemming in many cases from problems of alienation, depersonalization, loneliness, and a failure to find meaning and genuine fulfillment A) Humanistic B) Cognitive C) Behavioural D) Family

A) Humanistic

what therapies emerged as significant treatment approaches after World War II. A) Family B) Behavioural C) Humanistic-experiential therapies D) Cognitive

C) Humanistic-experiential therapies

what l therapies are based on the assumption that people have both the freedom and the responsibility to control their own behavior—that they can reflect on their problems, make choices, and take positive action A) Family B) Behavioural C) Humanistic-experiential therapies D) Cognitive

C) Humanistic-experiential therapies

what do Humanistic-experiential therapists feel that a client must take A) a passive role in therapy B) responsibility for the direction and success of therapy C) a secondary role in the therapeutic process D) a dependent stance in therapy

B) responsibility for the direction and success of therapy

Although humanistic-experiential therapies differ in their details, their central focus is always expanding a client’s A) Self B) Awareness C) Others D) Consciousness

B) Awareness

what therapy focuses on the natural power of the organism to heal itself A) Maslows Hierarchy of needs B) Rogers client centred therapy C) Gestalt therapy D) Motivational interviewing (MI)

B) Rogers client centred therapy

According to Rogers, how does therapy function in relation to individuals' self-imposed constraints and unrealistic demands? A. Therapy reinforces individuals' unrealistic demands to build self-worth. B. Rogers believed therapy is about instilling new constraints to reshape self-perception. C. The therapeutic process involves removing constraints arising from unrealistic demands individuals place on themselves. D. Rogers emphasized that therapy should encourage individuals to suppress certain feelings for better mental health.

B) as a process of removing the constraints that grow out of unrealistic demands that people place on themselves

according to Rogers, what negative outcomes may arise when individuals deny and become unaware of their genuine feelings? A. Increased integration and improved personal relationships. B. Enhanced self-awareness and emotional well-being. C. Lowered integration, impaired personal relationships, and various forms of maladjustment. D. Denial of feelings leads to better mental health and adaptability.

C. Lowered integration, impaired personal relationships, and various forms of maladjustment.

What is the primary objective of Rogerian therapy A. Encouraging clients to deny their genuine feelings for improved mental health. B. Enhancing clients' self-awareness of their "gut" reactions. C. Resolving incongruence by helping clients accept and be themselves. D. Imposing realistic demands on clients for better self-worth.

C. Resolving incongruence by helping clients accept and be themselves.

What kind of psychological climate do client-centered therapists aim to establish A. A climate of judgment and criticism to challenge clients. B. A climate of strict expectations and demands for personal growth. C. A climate of unconditional acceptance, understanding, and valuing of clients as people. D. A climate of indifference to encourage clients to self-reflect.

C. A climate of unconditional acceptance, understanding, and valuing of clients as people.

In the context of client-centered therapy, what are some nondirective techniques employed by therapists A. Encouraging clients to follow specific directives for problem-solving. B. Using empathic reflecting and restating clients' descriptions of life difficulties. C. Providing clear instructions on how clients should address their issues. D. Offering solutions and advice to guide clients through their challenges

B. Using empathic reflecting and restating clients' descriptions of life difficulties.

What positive outcomes are described when client-centered therapy is successful? A. Clients become more guarded and less open to new experiences. B. Clients develop a self-concept that is incongruent with their actual experience. C. Clients become more self-accepting and open to new experiences and perspectives. D. Clients are discouraged from exploring their real feelings and thoughts.

C. Clients become more self-accepting and open to new experiences and perspectives.

How does the approach of client-centered therapy differ from most other forms of therapy A. Client-centered therapists provide direct answers and interpretations to clients. B. In client-centered therapy, therapists actively probe for unconscious conflicts. C. Client-centered therapists steer clients toward specific topics during sessions. D. Client-centered therapists avoid giving answers, interpreting client statements, probing for unconscious conflicts, or steering clients toward certain topics.

D. Client-centered therapists avoid giving answers, interpreting client statements, probing for unconscious conflicts, or steering clients toward certain topics.

What is the primary role of client-centered therapists in terms of communication during sessions A. To actively guide and direct the conversation based on therapist expertise. B. To interrupt and provide interpretations to guide the client's thoughts. C. To listen attentively and acceptingly, interrupting only to restate in different words what the client is saying. D. To probe deeply into unconscious conflicts to uncover hidden meanings.

C) To listen attentively and acceptingly, interrupting only to restate in different words what the client is saying.

What is the purpose of the therapist's restatements in client-centered therapy, A. To provide judgments and interpretations of the client's feelings and ideas. B. To guide the client toward specific topics of discussion. C. To interrupt the client and redirect the conversation. D. To help the client clarify further their feelings and ideas, encouraging exploration and acknowledgment.

D. To help the client clarify further their feelings and ideas, encouraging exploration and acknowledgment.

what techniques are being used in the following excerpt JENNY: I was thinking about how I always try to make people around me feel at ease. It’s so important for me to make things go along smoothly. THERAPIST: In other words, you are always trying to make other people feel better and to do all you can to keep things on an even keel and going well. JENNY: Yes. That’s right. I mean, it’s not because I am such a kind person and all I want to see is other people being happy. I think the reason I do it is probably because that has always been the role that has felt the easiest for me to play. It’s the role I played at home. I didn’t stand up for my own convic-tions. And now I’m at the point where I don’t really know whether I have any convictions to stand up for. A) Role-playing and behavioral interventions B) Reflection and clarification C) Cognitive restructuring and reframing D) Active listening and interpretation

B) Reflection and clarification

what is a brief form of therapy that can be delivered in one or two sessions. It was developed as a way to help people resolve their ambivalence about change and make a commitment to treatment A) Interpersonal therapy B) Gestalt therapy C) Rational emotive behaviour therapy D) Motivational interviewing

D) Motivational interviewing

What is the primary purpose of Motivational Interviewing (MI) A. To provide in-depth, long-term therapy for individuals. B. To help people explore their ambivalence about change and commit to treatment. C. To deliver therapy in a brief form over one or two sessions. D. To focus on interpreting unconscious conflicts in individuals.

B. To help people explore their ambivalence about change and commit to treatment.

How does Motivational Interviewing (MI) differ from client-centered counseling, according to the passage? A. MI employs a more indirect approach in exploring the client's reasons for change. B. MI focuses solely on the therapist's interpretations of the client's desire for change. C. MI uses a more direct approach to explore the client's own reasons for wanting to change. D. MI avoids discussing the client's desire, ability, reasons, and need for change.

C. MI uses a more direct approach to explore the client's own reasons for wanting to change.

How does Motivational Interviewing (MI) work to strengthen clients' commitment to change A. By avoiding direct discussions about the client's reasons for change. B. By summarizing the therapist's interpretations of the client's thoughts. C. By encouraging "change talk" and having the client discuss their desire, ability, reasons, and need for change. D. By minimizing the client's involvement in discussing their motivation for change.

C. By encouraging "change talk" and having the client discuss their desire, ability, reasons, and need for change.

How does the therapist utilize reflective techniques in Motivational Interviewing (MI) to support the client's commitment to change A. The therapist provides direct solutions and advice to guide the client's change. B. The therapist refrains from summarizing the client's motivational statements. C. The therapist encourages the client to avoid discussing their thoughts about change. D. The therapist reflects back change talk, providing periodic summaries of the client's motivational statements and thoughts about change.

D. The therapist reflects back change talk, providing periodic summaries of the client's motivational statements and thoughts about change.

In which areas is motivational interviewing most often used A. In the treatment of anxiety disorders. B. In addressing relationship issues. C. In the areas of substance abuse and addiction. D. In managing sleep disorders.

C. In the areas of substance abuse and addiction.

What does the term "gestalt" mean in German, and what aspect of integration does gestalt therapy emphasize A. "Gestalt" means "fragmented," and gestalt therapy emphasizes the disintegration of mind and body. B. "Gestalt" means "fragmented," and gestalt therapy emphasizes the importance of keeping thoughts, feelings, and actions separate. C. "Gestalt" means "whole," and gestalt therapy emphasizes the unity of mind and body, highlighting the need to integrate thought, feeling, and action. D. "Gestalt" means "disconnected," and gestalt therapy emphasizes the need to keep thoughts, feelings, and actions disconnected.

C. "Gestalt" means "whole," and gestalt therapy emphasizes the unity of mind and body, highlighting the need to integrate thought, feeling, and action.

Who developed Gestalt therapy, and what is the main goal of this therapeutic approach A. Developed by Carl Rogers; the main goal is to explore unconscious conflicts. B. Developed by Fritz Perls; the main goal is to increase self-awareness and self-acceptance by recognizing blocked bodily processes and emotions. C. Developed by Sigmund Freud; the main goal is to promote personal growth through dream analysis. D. Developed by B.F. Skinner; the main goal is to modify behavior through reinforcement.

B. Developed by Fritz Perls; the main goal is to increase self-awareness and self-acceptance by recognizing blocked bodily processes and emotions.

hat techniques might be employed to bring aspects of the individual's self or world into awareness in gestalt therapy A. express themselves simultaneously and dream analysis. B. discussing dreams and exploring unconscious conflicts. C. acting out fantasies, representing conflicts, and using the chair technique. D. behavioral modification through reinforcement.

C. acting out fantasies, representing conflicts, and using the chair technique.

in what therapy would an individual be asked to act out fantasies concerning feelings and conflicts or to represent one side of a conflict while sitting in one chair and then switch chairs to take the part of the adversary A) solution-focused therapy B) Client centred therapy C) Motivational interviewing (MI) D) Gestalt

D) Gestalt

in what therapy would you hear “What are you aware of in your body now?” and “What does it feel like in your gut when you think of that?” A) solution-focused therapy B) Client centred therapy C) Motivational interviewing (MI) D) Gestalt

D) Gestalt

How does gestalt theory view the elements of a dream A. The elements of a dream are considered random and unrelated to the dreamer's self. B. Only the central themes of a dream are seen as representations of unacknowledged aspects of the dreamer's self. C. All elements of a dream, including seemingly inconsequential, impersonal objects, are considered representations of unacknowledged aspects of the dreamer's self. D. Gestalt theory does not emphasize the interpretation of dreams.

C. All elements of a dream, including seemingly inconsequential, impersonal objects, are considered representations of unacknowledged aspects of the dreamer's self.

A college professor was preoccupied with his academic promotion and tenure and found himself unable to experience any joy. He saw a therapist who had him conjure up a daydream rather than a dream. The day-dream that emerged spontaneously was one of skiing. The therapist asked him to be the mountain, and he began to experience how warm he was when he was at his base. As he got closer to the top, what looked so beautiful was also very cold and frozen. The therapist asked the professor to be the snow, and he experienced how hard and icy he could be near the top. But near the bottom, people ran over him easily and wore him out. When the session was finished, the professor did not feel like crying or shouting; he felt like skiing. So he went, leaving articles and books behind. In the sparkle of the snow and sun, he realized that joy in living emerges through deeds and not through words. In his rush to succeed, he had committed one of the cardinal sins against himself—the sin of not being active. what approach is the therapist taking A) solution-focused therapy B) Client centred therapy C) psychodynamic D) Gestalt

D) Gestalt

What is true a regarding humanistic-experiential therapies? A. The therapies are criticized for being too rigid in their therapeutic procedures. B. The therapies lack clarity about what is supposed to happen between the client and therapist. C. Critics argue that the therapies have too many agreed-on therapeutic procedures. D. The therapies are criticized for being overly prescriptive in their approach.

B. The therapies lack clarity about what is supposed to happen between the client and therapist.

a broad treatment approach that focuses on individual personality dynamics A) Cognitive-behavioral therapy B) Psychodynamic therapy C) Humanistic therapy D) Interpersonal therapy

B) Psychodynamic therapy

what is the oldest form of psychological therapy A) Cognitive-behavioral therapy B) Psychoanalytic therapy C) Humanistic therapy D) Integrative therapy

B) Psychoanalytic therapy

What is the primary focus and procedure of classical psychoanalysis A. The focus is on current life problems, and the procedure involves short-term interventions. B. The focus is on uncovering repressed memories and conflicts, and the procedure is intensive and long-term. C. The focus is on promoting adult life realities, and the procedure involves uncovering early psychosexual development. D. The focus is on addressing fears, and the procedure is brief and infrequent.

B. The focus is on uncovering repressed memories and conflicts, and the procedure is intensive and long-term.

How does psychoanalytically oriented psychotherapy differ from orthodox Freudian theory A. Psychoanalytically oriented psychotherapy strictly adheres to the principles and procedures of orthodox Freudian theory. B. The treatment and ideas guiding psychoanalytically oriented psychotherapy substantially depart from the principles of orthodox Freudian theory, although it is still loosely based on psychoanalytic concepts. C. Psychoanalytically oriented psychotherapy has no connection to psychoanalytic concepts and follows entirely different principles and procedures. D. Psychoanalytically oriented psychotherapy is identical to orthodox Freudian theory in all aspects.

B. The treatment and ideas guiding psychoanalytically oriented psychotherapy substantially depart from the principles of orthodox Freudian theory, although it is still loosely based on psychoanalytic concepts.

How does the therapeutic approach differ from the relatively passive stance of traditional psychoanalysis? A. The therapist remains passive and primarily listens to the client's free associations. B. The therapist adopts a more active conversational style, attempting to clarify distortions and gaps in the client's understanding of their problems. C. The therapist offers frequent interpretations of the client's free associations. D. The therapist challenges client defenses by reinforcing distortions and gaps.

B. The therapist adopts a more active conversational style, attempting to clarify distortions and gaps in the client's understanding of their problems.

What are the four basic techniques used in psychoanalysis, A. (1) Guided meditation, (2) analysis of daily activities, (3) cognitive restructuring, (4) role-playing. B. (1) Free association, (2) analysis of dreams, (3) mindfulness exercises, (4) positive affirmations. C. (1) Relaxation techniques, (2) analysis of family dynamics, (3) journaling, (4) goal-setting. D. (1) Free association, (2) analysis of dreams, (3) analysis of resistance, and (4) analysis of transference.

D. (1) Free association, (2) analysis of dreams, (3) analysis of resistance, and (4) analysis of transference.

What is the fundamental rule of free association A. Only positive thoughts should be shared during free association. B. Individuals should carefully choose what they say during free association. C. Individuals must say whatever comes into their mind, regardless of how personal, painful, or seemingly irrelevant it may be. D. Only thoughts related to current life events should be shared during free association.

C. Individuals must say whatever comes into their mind, regardless of how personal, painful, or seemingly irrelevant it may be.

what technique would reflect a client lieing in a relaxed position n a couch and gives a running account of all the thoughts, feelings, and desires that come to mind as one idea leads to another A) Analysis of Dreams B) Analysis of Transference C) Analysis of Resistance D) Free association

D) Free association

What is the purpose of free association A. To limit exploration to conscious thoughts. B. To encourage superficial exploration of the mind. C. To explore thoroughly the contents of the unconscious. D. To explore thoroughly the contents of the preconscious

D. To explore thoroughly the contents of the preconscious

What is involved in analytic interpretation A. Encouraging clients to keep their ideas, beliefs, and actions disconnected. B. Discouraging clients from gaining insight into the relationship between maladaptive behavior and unconscious events. C. The therapist ties together a client's often disconnected ideas, beliefs, and actions into a meaningful explanation D. Ignoring the client's maladaptive behavior and focusing solely on their conscious thoughts.

C. The therapist ties together a client's often disconnected ideas, beliefs, and actions into a meaningful explanation (this is done to help the client gain insight into the relationship between maladaptive behavior and unconscious events)

why are dreams often referred to as the "royal road to the unconscious," A. Dreams are considered a conscious expression of desires and feelings. B. Repressive defenses are heightened during sleep, allowing for better understanding of unconscious thoughts. C. Dreams provide an outlet for forbidden desires and feelings when repressive defenses are lowered during sleep. D. Dreams have no connection to the unconscious mind.

C. Dreams provide an outlet for forbidden desires and feelings when repressive defenses are lowered during sleep.

What are the two kinds of content in a dream A. (1) Unconscious content, (2) conscious content. B. (1) Manifest content, (2) unconscious content. C. (1) Dreamer's content, (2) therapist's interpretation. D. (1) Manifest content, (2) latent content.

D. (1) Manifest content, (2) latent content.

What does the term "manifest content" refer to in the context of a dream A. The actual motives seeking expression in a dream. B. The dream as it appears to the dreamer. C. Disguised and repressed content in a dream. D. The therapist's interpretation of a dream.

B. The dream as it appears to the dreamer.

What does the term "latent content" refer to in the context of a dream A. The dream as it appears to the dreamer. B. The therapist's interpretation of a dream. C. Disguised and repressed content in a dream. D. The actual motives seeking expression in a dream.

D) The actual motives seeking expression in a dream.

What is resistance in the context of psychoanalysis, A. An individual's willingness and ability to talk freely about any thoughts, motives, or experiences. B. An individual's active effort to promote self-awareness and exploration. C. An individual's unconscious expression of repressed desires in dreams. D. An unwillingness or inability to talk about certain thoughts, motives, or experiences during free association or associating to dreams.

D. An unwillingness or inability to talk about certain thoughts, motives, or experiences during free association or associating to dreams.

the redirection to a substitute, usually a therapist, of emotions that were originally felt in childhood A) Projection B) Transference C) Countertransference D) Sublimation

B) Transference

In psychoanalysis, how are affect-laden reactions emerging from transference typically interpreted A. The reactions are seen as accurate representations of the present situation. B. The reactions are dismissed as irrelevant to the client's life. C. The reactions are considered appropriate to the present situation. D. The reactions are interpreted as a type of projection, revealing central issues in the client's life but inappropriate to the present situation.

D. The reactions are interpreted as a type of projection, revealing central issues in the client's life but inappropriate to the present situation.

what would it mean when the client vehemently condemns the therapist for a lack of caring and attention from a psychoanalytic perspective A. The client accurately perceives the therapist's behavior. B. The client is projecting current feelings onto the therapist. C. This is considered an appropriate response to the therapist's actions. D. The client is engaging in transference, projecting attitudes acquired in childhood interactions with parents or other key individuals onto the therapist.

D. The client is engaging in transference, projecting attitudes acquired in childhood interactions with parents or other key individuals onto the therapist.

What is referred to as a "transference neurosis" A. The accurate recall of past relationships. B. The reliving of a pathogenic past relationship that recreates the neurosis in real life. C. A healthy and positive transfer of emotions from past relationships to present ones. D. The resolution of neurosis through therapeutic interventions.

B. The reliving of a pathogenic past relationship that recreates the neurosis in real life.

Psychodynamic concept that the therapist brings personal issues, based on his or her own vulnerabilities and conflicts, to the therapeutic relationship. A) Transference B) Countertransference. C) Resistance D) Transference neurosis

B) Countertransference.

What is considered the key element in effecting a psychoanalytic "cure," A. Accurate recall of past relationships. B. The reliving of pathogenic past relationships. C. The resolution of transference neurosis. D. The avoidance of countertransference pitfalls.

C. The resolution of transference neurosis.

resolution of the transference neurosis can occur only if an analyst successfully avoids A) countertransference. B) transference C) transference neurosis D) Interpretation

A) countertransference

he most extensive revisions of classical psychoanalytic theory undertaken within recent decades have been related to the A) Freudian drive theory B) Object-relations perspective C) The id perspective D) Behavioral perspective

B) Object-relations perspective

What is mentioned as the focus of object relations procedures in psychotherapy A. Individual thoughts and beliefs. B. Interpersonal relationship issues, particularly as they manifest in the client–therapist relationship. C. Past traumatic experiences. D. Current life events and challenges.

B. Interpersonal relationship issues, particularly as they manifest in the client–therapist relationship.

what do most object relation therapies seek to do A) Expose, bring to awareness, and modify the effects of the remote developmental sources of the difficulties the client is currently experiencing B) Provide immediate solutions to current issues without delving into past experiences C) Emphasize the exploration of unconscious desires and conflicts D) Focus exclusively on symptom management and behavioral interventions

A) Expose, bring to awareness, and modify the effects of the remote developmental sources of the difficulties the client is currently experiencing

What do object relations in psychotherapy ignore A. Staged libidinal energy transformations. B. Entirely internal (and impersonal) drives. C. Psychoanalytic notions of symptom formation. D. Interpersonal relationship issues.

A. Staged libidinal energy transformations.

what practice is routinely criticized for being relatively time consuming and expensive and for being based on a questionable and sometimes cult-like approach to human nature A) transference-focused psychotherapy B) object relations C) classical psychoanalysis D) behavioural

C) classical psychoanalysis

who argue that manualized treatments unduly limit treatment for a disorder. A) Psychoanalysts B) Cognitive-behavioral therapists C) Humanistic therapists D) Behaviorists

A) Psychoanalysts

is a key construct in psychodynamic theory and involves cognitive and emotional understanding of inner conflicts A) Projection B) Insight C) Defense mechanisms D) Transference

B) Insight

this treatment approach uses such techniques as clarification, confrontation, and interpretation to help the patient understand and correct the distortions that occur in his or her perception of other people, including the therapist A) transference-focused psychotherapy B) object relations C) classical psychoanalysis D) behavioural

A) transference-focused psychotherapy

a family systems approach reflects the assumption that A) Individual behavior is solely determined by genetic factors. B) The between-family behavior of any particular family member is subject to the influence of the behaviors and communication patterns of other family members. C) The within-family behavior of any particular family member is subject to the influence of the behaviors and communication patterns of other family members. D) Family dynamics have little impact on individual mental health.

C) The within-family behavior of any particular family member is subject to the influence of the behaviors and communication patterns of other family members.

what are noted as the primary reasons that couples report as seeking treatment A) Lack of affection and communication problems B) Sexual dysfunction and fighting C) Financial issues and parenting conflicts D) Lack of shared interests and differing political views

A) Lack of affection and communication problems

what form of couple therapy has been the gold standard A) marriage counselling B) traditional behavioral couple therapy C) emotionally focused therapy D) integrative behavioral couple therapy

B) traditional behavioral couple therapy

what is traditional behavioral couple therapy based on A) providing immediate solutions to current issues B) cognitive and emotional understanding of inner conflicts C) clarification, confrontation, and interpretation D) social learning models and reinforcement

D) social learning models and reinforcement

what is the goal of traditional behavioral couple therapy A) to focus solely on individual therapy for each partner and their behavioural responses B) to enhance emotional attachment between partners C) to teach partners to resolve their conflicts in a more constructive way D) to teach the partners that both need to alter their reactions

C) to teach partners to resolve their conflicts in a more constructive way

what sort of approach does traditional behavioral couple therapy take A) insight-oriented B) acceptance C) change-focused D) mediation-oriented

C) change-focused

what sort of approach does integrative behavioral couple therapy (IBCT) take A) insight-oriented B) acceptance C) change-focused D) mediation-oriented

B) acceptance

How does IBCT (Integrative Behavioral Couple Therapy) differ from traditional behavioral couple therapy? A) IBCT emphasizes ending relationships that are not working. B) IBCT combines acceptance strategies with change strategies. C) IBCT focuses solely on individual therapy for each partner. D) IBCT avoids addressing long-standing patterns of conflicts.

B) IBCT combines acceptance strategies with change strategies.

What led to the development of family therapy? A) The need for individual treatment in institutional settings. B) The relapse of individuals after showing improvement in individual treatment. C) The emergence of cognitive-behavioral therapy. D) The success of psychoanalysis in treating families

B) The relapse of individuals after showing improvement in individual treatment.

structural family therapy is based on what theory A) ecological theory B) conflict theory C) complexity theory D) systems theory

D) systems theory

According to structural family therapy, what is the belief about changing the family context? A) Changing the family context has no impact on individual members. B) Altering the family context leads to unchanged experiences for individuals. C) Individual members will behave differently if the family context is changed. D) The family context has no influence on individual behavior.

C) Individual members will behave differently if the family context is changed.

What is a significant goal of structural family therapy? A) Maintaining the existing organization of the family. B) Promoting pathological behaviors among family members. C) Changing the organization of the family for more supportive behavior. D) Encouraging individual autonomy within the family.

C) Changing the organization of the family for more supportive behavior.

What is the approach of a therapist in structural family therapy? A) Non-interventionist. B) Directive C) Active but not directive. D) Change focused

C) Active but not directive.

What is the term used to describe the willingness of therapists to explore differing ways of approaching clinical problems in today's clinical practice? A) Unimodal therapy B) Multimodal therapy C) Monomodal therapy D) Bipodal therapy

B) Multimodal therapy

How do most psychotherapists today describe their orientation when asked? A) Monolithic B) Singular C) Eclectic D) Dogmatic

C) Eclectic

What does the term "eclectic" typically mean in the context of how psychotherapists describe their orientation? A) Inflexible B) Singular C) Diverse D) Specialized

C) Diverse

What is the central idea of interpersonal therapy (IPT)? a. Cognitive restructuring b. Schemas from early interactions c. Psychodynamic exploration d. Behavioral conditioning

b. Schemas from early interactions

According to interpersonal therapy, individuals involuntarily invoke schemas acquired from: a. Recent experiences b. Childhood interactions c. Academic learning d. Genetic predispositions

b. Childhood interactions

According to Kazdin and Blaise (2011), what term is used to describe the recent changes in psychotherapy research and practice? a. Retrograding b. Upgrading c. Rebooting d. Standardizing

c. Rebooting

In what way have recent changes in psychotherapy been described as a "rebooting" by Kazdin and Blaise (2011)? a. A complete overhaul and restart b. A subtle modification c. A temporary trend d. A return to traditional methods

a. A complete overhaul and restart

What criticism has been raised regarding psychotherapy from both inside and outside the mental health professions? a. Lack of scientific basis b. Overemphasis on medication c. Adjustment to a "sick" society d. Incompatibility with modern technology

c. Adjustment to a "sick" society

According to the criticism about psychotherapy, what might psychotherapy be perceived as attempting to achieve? a. Encouraging social activism b. Facilitating individual improvement c. Challenging societal norms d. Promoting conformity to a "sick" society

d. Promoting conformity to a "sick" society

What role has psychotherapy often been accused of playing in relation to societal dynamics? a. Catalyst for change b. Guardian of the status quo c. Advocate for social justice d. Revolutionary force

b. Guardian of the status quo

From both inside and outside the mental health professions, what alternative goal is suggested for psychotherapy? a. Embracing societal dysfunction b. Fostering individual stagnation c. Encouraging social reform d. Maintaining the status quo

c. Encouraging social reform

In terms of medication safety, what does a black box warning emphasize? a. Positive benefits of the medication b. Potential side effects and dangers c. Generic alternatives d. Brand recognition

b. Potential side effects and dangers

What is a black box warning in the context of medication packaging? a. A label indicating the expiration date b. A warning about potential dangers that appears inside a black box c. A recommendation for proper storage d. A promotional message for the medication

b. A warning about potential dangers that appears inside a black box

What is a significant risk associated with antipsychotic medications in patients with dementia? a. Decreased cognitive function b. Increased rates of death c. Decreased memory retention d. Reduced risk of dementia progression

b. Increased rates of death

What population is specifically mentioned as being at great risk when prescribed antipsychotic medications? a. Children b. Adults without dementia c. Patients with anxiety disorders d. Patients with dementia

d. Patients with dementia

What is a potential challenge faced by some patients in medication adherence? a. Resistance to medication b. Forgetfulness in taking medications daily c. Preference for alternative treatments d. Lack of access to medications

b. Forgetfulness in taking medications daily

In cases where patients have difficulty remembering to take daily medications, what is mentioned as a helpful alternative? a. Intravenous administration b. Depot neuroleptics c. Over-the-counter supplements d. Homeopathic remedies

a. Intravenous administration

What is the specific advantage of using depot neuroleptics for patients with medication adherence issues? a. Reduced effectiveness b. Daily convenience c. Increased side effects d. Extended-release formulations

d. Extended-release formulations

What is emphasized as a benefit of depot neuroleptics in the context of medication management? a. Increased patient autonomy b. Improved cognitive function c. Facilitated medication adherence d. Minimal side effects

c. Facilitated medication adherence

What is a potential side effect of conventional antipsychotic medications, such as chlorpromazine? a. Enhanced cognitive function b. Tardive dyskinesia c. Increased sleep quality d. Improved mood stability

b. Tardive dyskinesia

Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by: a. Enhanced motor coordination b. Involuntary and repetitive movements c. Increased alertness d. Improved muscle tone

b. Involuntary and repetitive movements

Which class of medications is specifically implicated in the development of tardive dyskinesia? a. Antibiotics b. Antidepressants c. Antipsychotics d. Antihypertensives

c. Antipsychotics

In the context of antipsychotic medications, what does the term "tardive" refer to? a. Rapid onset of symptoms b. Delayed onset of symptoms c. Temporary nature of symptoms d. Severity of symptoms

b. Delayed onset of symptoms

What is a characteristic feature of atypical antipsychotic medications like clozapine and olanzapine in terms of movement-related side effects? a. They commonly cause movement-related side effects b. They rarely cause movement-related side effects c. They have no impact on movement d. They worsen movement-related side effects

b. They rarely cause movement-related side effects

What is a notable advantage of atypical antipsychotic medications over conventional antipsychotics in terms of side effects? a. They have fewer side effects overall b. They are more potent c. They have a faster onset of action d. They are less effective in managing symptoms

a. They have fewer side effects overall

Why are atypical antipsychotic medications often preferred in the clinical management of schizophrenia a. They are more affordable b. They have a longer duration of action c. They are associated with fewer movement-related side effects d. They are only used as a last resort

c. They are associated with fewer movement-related side effects

What is the potentially life-threatening side effect associated with clozapine? a. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome b. Tardive dyskinesia c. Agranulocytosis d. Serotonin syndrome

c. Agranulocytosis

What is agranulocytosis, the serious side effect of clozapine a. A drop in white blood cell count b. Elevated heart rate c. Liver dysfunction d. Respiratory distress

a. A drop in white blood cell count

How frequently must patients have their blood tested during the first 6 months of clozapine treatment to monitor for agranulocytosis? a. Every day b. Every 2 weeks c. Every month d. Every 3 months

b. Every 2 weeks

What is the recommended frequency for blood tests for patients on clozapine after the initial 6 months of treatment? a. Every week b. Every 2 weeks c. Every month d. Every 3 months

c. Every month

what are the most commonly prescribed psychiatric medications A) Stimulants B) Anxiolytics and sedatives C) Antipsychotics D) Antidepressants

D) antidepressants

What is the primary function of SSRIs (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors)? a. Enhance the release of serotonin b. Inhibit the synthesis of serotonin c. Inhibit the reuptake of serotonin d. Increase the breakdown of serotonin

c. Inhibit the reuptake of serotonin

How do SSRIs differ from tricyclic antidepressants in terms of neurotransmitter reuptake inhibition? a. SSRIs inhibit the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine b. SSRIs enhance the release of serotonin and norepinephrine c. SSRIs inhibit the reuptake of serotonin only d. SSRIs inhibit the synthesis of serotonin and norepinephrine

c. SSRIs inhibit the reuptake of serotonin only

How does the mechanism of SSRIs contribute to their therapeutic effect in treating depression? a. By increasing neurotransmitter synthesis b. By blocking neurotransmitter receptors c. By enhancing neurotransmitter release d. By prolonging the presence of serotonin in the synapse

d. By prolonging the presence of serotonin in the synapse

What is the unique feature of Viibryd that distinguishes it from other antidepressants? a. Monoamine oxidase inhibitor b. Combination of an SSRI and a serotonin receptor agonist c. Tricyclic antidepressant d. Dopamine reuptake inhibitor

b. Combination of an SSRI and a serotonin receptor agonist

Viibryd's combination of an SSRI and a serotonin receptor agonist suggests that it may: a. Increase serotonin synthesis b. Block serotonin receptors c. Enhance serotonin release d. Have dual effects on serotonin pathways

d. Have dual effects on serotonin pathways

In mental health treatment, when is a patient considered to be in remission? a. When they experience a few symptoms b. When all symptoms are removed c. When they show improvement d. When they achieve insight into their condition

b. When all symptoms are removed

How long does a sustained period of remission need to last for a patient to be considered as having recovered? a. 1 to 3 months b. 3 to 6 months c. 6 to 12 months or more d. 12 to 24 months

c. 6 to 12 months or more

What is the key criterion for considering a patient to have recovered from mental health symptoms? a. Complete absence of symptoms b. Improvement in daily functioning c. Medication compliance d. Reduction in symptom severity

a. Complete absence of symptoms

How is the term "response" defined in the context of treating depression? a. Complete elimination of symptoms b. At least a 25 percent improvement in symptoms c. At least a 50 percent improvement in symptoms d. Stabilization of symptoms without improvement

c. At least a 50 percent improvement in symptoms

What term is used to describe a state in which symptoms are completely eliminated? a. Recovery b. Remission c. Response d. Relapse

b. Remission

what is the minimum improvement required for a treatment to be considered a response in depression? a. 25 percent b. 50 percent c. 75 percent d. 100 percent

b. 50 percent

what was the first antidepressant drugs to be developed A) Tricyclic B) SNRis C) SSRIs D) Monoamine oxidase inhibitors

D) Monoamine oxidase inhibitors

What is the role of monoamine oxidase in the synaptic cleft? a. Enhancing neurotransmitter release b. Breaking down monoamine neurotransmitters c. Facilitating receptor binding d. Increasing synaptic vesicle production

b. Breaking down monoamine neurotransmitters

Which neurotransmitters are mentioned as being broken down by monoamine oxidase in the synaptic cleft? a. GABA and glutamate b. Serotonin and norepinephrine c. Dopamine and acetylcholine d. Endorphins and enkephalins

b. Serotonin and norepinephrine

How do MAOIs impact the levels of serotonin and norepinephrine in the synaptic cleft? a. Increase their breakdown b. Decrease their release c. Prolong their presence d. Block their receptors

c. Prolong their presence

what is the consequence of inhibiting monoamine oxidase with MAOIs in the synaptic cleft? a. Increased neurotransmitter breakdown b. Enhanced neurotransmitter release c. Prolonged presence of neurotransmitters d. Reduced synthesis of neurotransmitters

c. Prolonged presence of neurotransmitters

How do dietary restrictions related to tyramine impact the clinical usefulness of MAOIs? a. They enhance clinical effectiveness b. They have no impact on clinical utility c. They limit the drugs' clinical usefulness d. They improve patient adherence

c. They limit the drugs' clinical usefulness

when are Monoamine oxidase inhibitors typically used? A) depersonalisation/derealisation B) seasonal affective depression C) atypical depression characterised by hypersomnia and overeating D) social anxiety disorder in which the person avoids any social events

C) atypical depression characterised by hypersomnia and overeating

What is a potential consequence of consuming tyramine-rich foods while on MAOIs? a. Increased drug absorption b. Hypertensive crisis c. Enhanced mood stabilization d. Improved sleep quality

b. Hypertensive crisis

What is the primary function of tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) in the synapse? a. Increase the synthesis of norepinephrine b. Enhance the release of serotonin c. Inhibit the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin d. Block serotonin receptors

c. Inhibit the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin

What role does the reuptake process play in the synaptic cleft? a. Enhancing neurotransmitter release b. Breaking down neurotransmitters c. Recycling neurotransmitters d. Reducing synaptic vesicle production

c. Recycling neurotransmitters

How do TCAs differ from selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) in terms of neurotransmitter reuptake inhibition? a. TCAs inhibit the reuptake of both norepinephrine and serotonin b. TCAs exclusively inhibit the reuptake of serotonin c. TCAs do not affect neurotransmitter reuptake d. TCAs enhance neurotransmitter release

a. TCAs inhibit the reuptake of both norepinephrine and serotonin

How do tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) alter cellular functioning after several weeks of use? a. They inhibit neurotransmitter synthesis b. They enhance receptor activity c. They have no impact on cellular functioning d. They alter receptor function and cellular responses

d. They alter receptor function and cellular responses

what changes in cellular functioning are associated with long-term use of Tricyclic antidepressants? a. Increased neurotransmitter breakdown b. Enhanced synaptic vesicle production c. Alterations in receptor function and cellular responses d. Inhibition of receptor activity

c. Alterations in receptor function and cellular responses

what was the first antidepressant drug to be introduced that was not lethal when taken in overdose? A) Lithium B) Valium C) SSRI D) Trazodone

D) Trazodone

how does trazodone work to improve the symtoms of depression A) B) inhibits the reuptake of serotonin C) D)

B) inhibits the reuptake of serotonin

what limits the usefulness of Trazodone? A) sexual dysfunction B) sedating C) nausea D) sleepiness

B) it has heavy sedating properties

what is often used in combination with SSRIs to counter the adverse effects SSRIs have on sleep A) melatonin B) cognitive-behavioral therapy for insomnia C) sleep hygiene interventions D) Trazodone

D) Trazodone

what is a significant but rare side effect men can experience when taking Trazodone A) prolonged erection in the absence of sexual stimulation B) inability to become aroused or excited during sexual activity C) lack of sexual desire or interest in sex D) delay or absence of orgasm

A) prolonged erection in the absence of sexual stimulation

what is the reaction mechanism of bupropion A) inhibit the activity of monoamine oxidase B) inhibits the reuptake of norepinephrine and dopamine C) enhances the activity of GABA receptors D) none of the above

B) inhibits the reuptake of norepinephrine and dopamine

in addition to being an antidepressant, what can Bupropion (wellbutrin) be used for A) mood disorders B) nicotine cravings and smoking withdrawal C) panic disorders and stress D) elevated heart rate

B) nicotine cravings and smoking withdrawal

what is a clinical advantage of Bupropion (wellbutrin) compared to some SSRIs A) B) C) D) does not inhibit sexual functioning

D) does not inhibit sexual functioning

what research on therapeutic drugs were shut down in the 1950s but have now resumed as potential for effectiveness in having antidepressant properties A) antibiotics and antivirals B) antipsychotics and mood stabilizers C) analgesics and psychedelics D) anxiolytics and stimulants

C) analgesics and psychedelics

what drugs have clinical usefulness in reducing binge eating and purging A) antipsychotics B) benzodiazepines C) SSRIs and TCAs D) SNRIs and TCAs

C) SSRIs and TCAs

what drugs have little place in the treatment of psychosis A) B) C) D) anti anxiety medications

D) anti anxiety medications

what are the most widely used class of antianxiety mediations A) benzodiazepines B) barbiturates C) buspirone D) SSRis

A) benzodiazepines

when would barbiturates be used A) B) to control seizures or as anesthetics during electroconvulsive therapy C) D)

B) to control seizures or as anesthetics during electroconvulsive therapy

what is one problem with using benzodiazepines A) B) psychological and physiological dependence C) D)

B) psychological and physiological dependence

what is an extremely high outcome in people who discontinue benzodiazepines A) withdrawl B) reoccurance C) relapse D) none of the above

C) relapse

what is the reaction mechanims of benzodiazepines A) B) C) inhibits the reuptake of GABA D) enhancing the binding of GABA to its receptor

D) enhancing the binding of GABA to its receptor

what is the role of GABA A) B) inhibitory neurotransmitter that plays a role in the way our brain inhibits anxiety in stressful situations. C) D)

B) inhibitory neurotransmitter that plays a role in the way our brain inhibits anxiety in stressful situations.

what anti anxiety medication is thought to act in complex ways on serotonergic functioning rather than on GABA A) benzodiazepines B) barbiturates C) buspirone D) SSRis

C) buspirone

who would respond best to the effects of buspirone (Buspar) A) patients who are on SNRIs B) patients who are on SSRIs C) patients who have previously taken benzodiazepines D) patients who have not previously taken benzodiazepines

D) patients who have not previously taken benzodiazepines

how long doesbuspirone (Buspar) take to exert any anxiolytic effects A) 2 to 4 weeks B) within 30 minutes C) 1 week D) when taken in conjunction with SSRIs

A) 2 to 4 weeks

why cant buspirone (Buspar) be used to treat insomnia A) B) it is nonsedating C) D)

B) it is nonsedating

what is NOT one of the reasons why there was a delay in the introduction of lithium treatment for manic episodes A) because it is a naturally occurring compound, it is unpatentable B) lithium had been used in the 1940s and 1950s as a salt substitute for patients with hypertension before its toxic side effects were known C) tragic deaths resulted, making the medical community very wary of using it for any reason D) all are reasons why

D) all are reasons why

As many as 70 to 80 percent of patients in a clear manic state taking lithium show marked improvement after A) 1 week B) 2 to 3 weeks C) 4 months D) 6 months

B) 2 to 3 weeks

what has evidence suggested in relation to lithium and its clinical effectiveness with mania A) B) C) it is less reliable at preventing future episodes D)

C) it is less reliable at preventing future episodes

What is the estimated increase in the probability of relapse after withdrawal compared to when the patient is on lithium? a. 5 times higher b. 10 times higher c. 20 times higher d. 28 times higher

d. 28 times higher

How does the probability of relapse compare between being on lithium and after withdrawal, based on the information? a. It remains the same b. It decreases after withdrawal c. It increases after withdrawal d. It is not specified in the information

c. It increases after withdrawal

What is the critical time frame mentioned regarding the likelihood of relapse after withdrawal from lithium? a. 1 month b. 3 months c. 6 months d. 12 months

c. 6 months

if not treated, Lithium toxicity can cause A) B) C) D) neuronal damage or even death

D) neuronal damage or even death

what types of drugs can be used clinically as treatments for rapid cycling bipolar disorders A) anticonvulsant agents B) SSRI C) antipsychotics D) SNRI

A) anticonvulsant agents

what drug for bipolar disorder has the fewest and mildest side effects A) topiramate B) SSRIs C) Valproate D) lithium

C) Valproate

what is NOT a change that occured in the DSM that are likely to have an impact on prevalence rates and medication usage in the years to come A) raising the age of symptoms that one develops ADHD to age 12 B) the diagnosis of disruptive mood dysregulation disorder. C) lowering the threshold for the diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder D) not accepting a threshold for lowering GAD to one symptom

C) lowering the threshold for the diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder

what disorder is characterized by temper tantrums in a child older than 6 years of age. A) Conduct disorder B) Oppositionaldefiant disorder C) ADHD D) Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder

D) disruptive mood dysregulation disorder

in order for a diagnosis of disruptive mood dysregulation disorder to be made, how often do angry outbursts need to occur A) at least three times a week B) at least once a week C) at least once per month D) at least twice per week

A) at least three times a week

To be diagnosed with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) in DSM-5, symptoms had to develop before the child reached the A) age of 10 B) age of 2 C) age of 12 D) age of 7

C) age of 12

What methods does psychotherapy primarily use to modify a person's environment and experience? a. Chemical interventions b. Genetic modifications c. Words, exposures, role-playing, etc. d. Surgical procedures

c. Words, exposures, role-playing, etc.

In contrast to psychotherapy, how do biological changes attempt to change the brain? a. By modifying a person's environment and experience b. By using words, exposures, and role-playing c. By introducing chemicals into the brain d. By altering cognitive processes

c. By introducing chemicals into the brain

What is the primary distinction between psychotherapy and biological changes? a. Psychotherapy focuses on altering genetic factors, while biological changes focus on chemicals. b. Psychotherapy involves surgical procedures, while biological changes involve cognitive processes. c. Psychotherapy modifies the environment and experience, while biological changes introduce chemicals into the brain. d. Psychotherapy and biological changes use the same methods to change the brain.

c. Psychotherapy modifies the environment and experience, while biological changes introduce chemicals into the brain

what is a safe and effective form of treatment for patients who are severely depressed or suicidal and have failed to respond to other forms of treatment A) neurosurgery B) electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) C) transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS). D) SSRIs

B) electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)

what is the treatment of choice for pregnant women who are severely depressed A) SSRIs B) electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) C) transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS). D) neurosurgery

B) electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)

what structural change in the brain occurs with Electroconvulsive therapy A) increases the functional availability of serotonin B) decreases the functional availability of serotonin C) decreases the functional availability of norepinephrine D) increases the functional availability of norepinephrine

D) increases the functional availability of norepinephrine

in this type of ECT, electrodes are placed on either side of the patient’s head, and brief constant-current electrical pulses of either high or low intensity are passed from one side of the head to the other for up to about 1.5 seconds. A) bilateral ECT B) unilateral ECT C) Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation D) Vagus Nerve Stimulation

A) bilateral ECT

type of ECT involves limiting current flow to one side of the brain, typically the non dominant side (right side, for most people) A) bilateral ECT B) unilateral ECT C) Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation D) Vagus Nerve Stimulation

B) unilateral ECT

what experiences does a patient have following an electroconvulsive therapy treatment A) amnesia immediately preceding the therapy B) amnesia immediately for an hour or so following C) D)

A) amnesia immediately preceding the therapy

what form of electroconvulsive therapy is more effective A) bilateral ECT B) unilateral ECT C) Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation D) Vagus Nerve Stimulation

A) bilateral ECT

what form of electroconvulsive therapy is associated with cognitive side effects and memory problems A) bilateral ECT B) unilateral ECT C) Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation D) Vagus Nerve Stimulation

A) bilateral ECT

patients often have difficulty forming new memories (anterograde amnesia) for approximately how long after ECT ends A) forever B) 12 months C) 3 months D) 1 week

C) 3 months

a treatment in which a physician places a pulsed magnetic coil on the patients scalp in which an electical field is created to increase or decrease brain activity in specific regions A) bilateral ECT B) unilateral ECT C) Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation D) Vagus Nerve Stimulation

C) Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation

what occurs during Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation A) current flow to one side of the brain is limited B) an electrical field increases or decreases neuronal activity in the brain C) a brief constant-current electrical pulses of either high or low intensity are passed from one side of the head to the other D)

B) an electrical field increases or decreases neuronal activity in the brain

what treatment has lesser and fewer side effects than electroconvulsive therapy A) bilateral ECT B) deep brain stimulation (DBS C) transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) D) Vagus Nerve Stimulation (VNS)

C) transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS)

what are the most commonly reported side effects from repeated TMS sessions A) dizziness and high risk of seizures B) vomiting and dizziness C) memory problems D) mild headache and a small risk of seizure

D) mild headache and a small risk of seizure

what caused an immediate decrease in the widespread use of psychosurgery, especially prefrontal lobotomy A) Electroconvulsive therapy B) Antipsychotic drugs C) Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation D) Vagus Nerve Stimulation

B) Antipsychotic drugs

what is sometimes used for patients with debilitating OCD, treatment-resistant severe self-injuryor even intractable anorexia nervosa A) Electroconvulsive therapy B) Psychosurgery C) Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation D) Vagus Nerve Stimulation

B) Psychosurgery

in this treatment, electrodes are implanted into the brain and are stimulated by pulse generators implanted into the chest region A) Electroconvulsive therapy B) Deep brain stimulation C) Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation D) Vagus Nerve Stimulation

B) Deep brain stimulation

PSYCHOLOGICAL TREATMENTS Flashcards

(272 cards)