Causal factors of anxiety disorders

Question 1

what does the cognitive theory of panic disorder propose

A) Panic attacks are solely triggered by external stimuli.

B) Panic disorder is caused by a chemical imbalance in the brain.

C) People are hypersensitive to their bodily sensations and are prone to giving them dire interpretations.

D) Panic attacks are an innate, unlearned response to stress.

Answer 1

C) people are hypersensitive to their bodily sensations and are prone to giving them dire interpretations

Question 2

what perspective would suggest that a person who develops panic disorder might notice that his heart is racing and conclude that he is having a heart attack

A) Biological perspective

B) Cognitive theory of panic disorder

C) Psychoanalytic perspective

D) Comprehensive learning theory of panic disorder

Answer 2

B) cognitive theory of panic disorder

Question 3

the cognitive model proposes that only people with what tendency go on to develop panic disorder

A) Strong resilience to stressors.

B) Catastrophize about the meaning of their bodily sensations.

C) Limited awareness of their bodily sensations.

D) Lack of emotional sensitivity

Answer 3

B) catastrophize about the meaning of their bodily sensations.

Question 4

This term refers to a learning process that is similar to classic conditioning. It involves two conditioned stimuli and one unconditioned response.

A) Sensitization

B) Interoceptive conditioning

C) Exteroceptive conditioning

D) Higher-order conditioning

Answer 4

B) Interoceptive conditioning

Question 5

This term relates to external cues that modify the perception of environmental stimuli acting on the body.

A) Sensitization

B) Interoceptive conditioning

C) Exteroceptive conditioning

D) Higher-order conditioning

Answer 5

C) Exteroceptive conditioning

Question 6

A comprehensive learning theory of panic disorder developed during the past few decades suggests that initial panic attacks become associated with what?

A) Social and environmental conditioning

B) Cognitive and emotional conditioning

C) Biological and neurological conditioning

D) Interoceptive and exteroceptive conditioning

Answer 6

D) Interoceptive and exteroceptive conditioning

Question 7

What would the comprehensive learning theory of panic disorder suggest, if a young man with panic disorder who was particularly frightened of signs that his heart was racing experienced a surprising and unexpected panic attack after hearing that his favorite presidential candidate had won

A) This event has no relevance to his panic disorder.

B) Because the man was excited, his heart was racing, which probably served as an internal conditioned stimulus (CS) that triggered the panic.

C) The panic attack was likely unrelated to the news about the presidential candidate.

D) The panic attack was probably caused by an unrelated external stimulus.

Answer 7

B) Because the man was excited, his heart was racing, which probably served as an internal conditioned stimulus (CS) that triggered the panic.

Question 8

what has been shown to predict the development of panic attacks

A) Somatic symptom disorder.

B) Anxiety sensitivity.

C) Panic disorder.

D) Hypochondriasis.

Answer 8

B) anxiety sensitivity

Question 9

a trait-like belief that certain bodily symptoms may have harmful consequences

A) Somatic symptom disorder.

B) Anxiety sensitivity.

C) Panic disorder.

D) Hypochondriasis.

Answer 9

B) Anxiety sensitivity.

Question 10

what does evidence suggest about the reason why, despite someone having panic attacks over and over, without having a heart attack, that the catastrophic thought would have been proved wrong so many times has not disconfirmed such catastrophic thoughts

A) Lack of cognitive abilities.

B) Repeated exposure to panic attacks diminishes cognitive dissonance.

C) Frequent engagement in safety behaviors.

D) Inability to recognize bodily sensations.

Answer 10

C) Frequent engagement in safety behaviors.

Question 11

according to the __________ view, phobias represent a defence against anxiety that stems from repressed impulses

A) psychoanalytic

B) behavioural

C) cognitive

D) psychosocial

Answer 11

A) psychoanalytic

Question 12

which type of phobia appears to be highly heritable?

A) agoraphobia

B) blood-injection-injury phobia

C) animal phobia

D) natural environment phobia

Answer 12

B) blood-injection-injury phobia

Question 13

The view that people are biologically prepared through evolution to more readily acquire fears of certain objects or situations that may once have posed a threat to our early ancestors

A) classical conditioning

B) prepared learning

C) behavioural learning

D) spontaneous recovery

Answer 13

B) prepared learning

Question 14

“prepared” fears are not inborn or innate but rather are easily acquired or especially resistant to _______

A) adaptation

B) extinction

C) acquisition

D) spontaneous recovery

Answer 14

B) extinction

Question 15

prepared learning explains that

A) why phobic people are likely to maintain their avoidance behavior

B) some stimuli were not present in our early evolutionary history so did not convey any selective advantage

C) why cognitive variables are so important in phobias

D) Different defense mechanisms are employed by those with GAD and those with specific phobias.

Answer 15

B) some stimuli were not present in our early evolutionary history so did not convey any selective advantage

Question 16

in an experiment by Öhman and his col-leagues on the preparedness theory of phobias, the researchers found that

A) there is no difference in conditioning between fear relevant and fear irrelevant stimuli

B) fear is conditioned more effectively to fear-relevant stimuli than to fear-irrelevant stimuli

C) fear conditioning is equally effective for all stimuli

D) fear-relevant stimuli have no impact on the conditioning process

Answer 16

B) fear is conditioned more effectively to fear-relevant stimuli than to fear-irrelevant stimuli

Question 17

one view that accounts for certain aspects of the irrationality og phobias has shown that

A) phobias are always rational and can be easily overcome

B) once individuals acquire a conditioned response to fear-relevant stimuli, these responses could be elicited even when the fear-relevant stimuli are presented subliminally

C) irrational fears only occur in individuals with specific personality traits

D) phobias are solely a result of conscious awareness of fear stimuli

Answer 17

B) once individuals acquire a conditioned response to fear relevant stimuli, these responses could be elicited even when the fear relevant stimuli is presented subliminally

Question 18

individuals who are carriers of one of the two variants of the serotonin-transporter gene

A) show enhanced resistance to extinction

B) show superior fear conditioning than those without the s allele

C) show less fear conditioning that those with the s allele

D) does not affect their fear conditioning

Answer 18

B) show superior fear conditioning than those without the s allele

Question 19

what is the proposed evolutionary origin of social fears and phobias?

A) They evolved to trigger the fight-or-flight response to potential predators.

B) They evolved as a by-product of dominance hierarchies in animals such as primates.

C) Both social fears and animal fears share a common evolutionary origin.

D) They evolved as a by-product of the need for social cohesion in animal groups.

Answer 19

B) They evolved as a by-product of dominance hierarchies in animals such as primates.

Question 20

According to Dimberg & Öhman, why do people with social anxiety often endure being in their feared situations instead of running away and escaping them?

A) People with social anxiety are more prone to submissive behavior.

B) Dominance hierarchies are established through aggressive encounters, and a defeated individual rarely attempts to escape completely.

C) People with social anxiety have a higher tolerance for fear and anxiety.

D) Escaping feared situations is more challenging for people with social anxiety compared to those with animal phobias.

Answer 20

B) Dominance hierarchies are established through aggressive encounters, and a defeated individual rarely attempts to escape completely.

Question 21

According to the concept that social anxiety evolved as a by-product of dominance hierarchies, what does it suggest about humans?

A) Humans have a natural tendency to avoid social stimuli.

B) Humans have an evolved predisposition to acquire fears of social stimuli signaling submission.

C) Humans are inherently fearless in social situations.

D) Humans are predisposed to acquire fears of social stimuli indicating dominance and aggression.

Answer 21

D) Humans are predisposed to acquire fears of social stimuli indicating dominance and aggression.

Question 22

in the context of conditioning responses, what would be true regarding the pairing of facial expressions with mild electric shocks?

A) Subjects develop stronger conditioned responses when slides of angry faces are paired with mild electric shocks.

B) Subjects exhibit similar conditioned responses regardless of the facial expression paired with mild electric shocks.

C) Subjects develop stronger conditioned responses when neutral faces are paired with mild electric shocks.

D) Subjects develop stronger conditioned responses when slides of angry faces are paired with strong electric shocks.

Answer 22

A) Subjects develop stronger conditioned responses when slides of angry faces are paired with mild electric shocks.

Question 23

What did the study by Parra et al. (1997) find regarding the subliminal presentations of angry faces that had been paired with shock?

A) Subliminal presentations of angry faces had no impact on conditioned responses.

B) Even very brief subliminal presentations of angry faces were sufficient to activate conditioned responses.

C) Subliminal presentations of angry faces were only effective when consciously perceived.

D) Subliminal presentations of angry faces activated the amygdala only in the absence of conditioned responses.

Answer 23

B) Even very brief subliminal presentations of angry faces were sufficient to activate conditioned responses.

Question 24

What does the research by Goldin et al. (2009) and Phan et al. (2006) suggest about individuals with social anxiety in response to negative facial expressions?

A) They show heightened activation of the amygdala in response to negative facial expressions, particularly angry faces.

B) Their amygdala activation is independent of negative facial expressions.

C) They exhibit reduced neural responses to criticism.

D) Emotional reactions to negative facial expressions are not processed quickly in individuals with social anxiety.

Answer 24

A) They show heightened activation of the amygdala in response to negative facial expressions, particularly angry faces.

Question 25

How do perceptions of uncontrollability and unpredictability typically manifest in the behavior of individuals who are socially anxious or phobic?

A) They exhibit assertive and dominant behavior.

B) They become highly unpredictable in their actions.

C) Submissive and unassertive behavior is characteristic of socially anxious or phobic individuals.

D) They tend to isolate themselves from social situations.

Answer 25

C) Submissive and unassertive behavior is characteristic of socially anxious or phobic individuals.

Question 26

According to Mineka & Zinbarg (2006), how does an actual social defeat impact the behavior of individuals with social anxiety?

A) It leads to increased assertiveness and dominance.

B) It causes individuals to become more unpredictable in social situations.

C) It results in a diminished sense of personal control over events in their lives.

D) It has no significant impact on the behavior of socially anxious individuals.

Answer 26

C) It results in a diminished sense of personal control over events in their lives.

Question 27

submissive and assertive behavior is especially likely if

A) Individuals have a heightened sense of personal control over events.

B) Perceptions of uncontrollability stem from an actual social defeat

C) Perceptions of uncontrollability stem from an actual social victory.

D) Social defeat has no impact on behavior in individuals with social anxiety.

Answer 27

B) perceptions of uncontrollability stem from an actual social defeat

Question 28

According to Beck and colleagues (1985), what cognitive factor is suggested to contribute to the onset and maintenance of social anxiety?

A) People with social anxiety expect positive evaluations from others.

B) Socially anxious individuals have a heightened sense of invulnerability.

C) Expectations that others will reject or negatively evaluate them.

D) A lack of concern about potential threats from others.

Answer 28

C) Expectations that others will reject or negatively evaluate them.

Question 29

According to Clark and Wells (1995; Wells & Clark, 1997), how do danger schemas in socially anxious people influence their expectations and behaviors in social situations?

A) Socially anxious individuals expect positive evaluations from others.

B) Danger schemas lead to a lack of concern about bodily responses and self-images.

C) Socially anxious individuals expect to behave in an awkward and acceptable fashion, resulting in acceptance and status.

D) Danger schemas lead to expectations of behaving in an awkward and unacceptable fashion, preoccupation with bodily responses, and negative self-images in social situations.

Answer 29

D) Danger schemas lead to expectations of behaving in an awkward and unacceptable fashion, preoccupation with bodily responses, and negative self-images in social situations.

Question 30

According to Hirsch et al. (2004), how do negative expectations in socially anxious individuals manifest in social situations?

A) Intense self-preoccupation during social situations, including attention to bodily responses and negative self-images.

B) They accurately estimate how well they come across to others.

C) Socially anxious individuals are not preoccupied with bodily responses.

D) Negative expectations lead to skillful interaction in social situations

Answer 30

A) Intense self-preoccupation during social situations, including attention to bodily responses and negative self-images.

Question 31

What potential cycle may evolve for someone with social anxiety?

A) Socially anxious individuals experience increasingly friendly interactions with others.

B) Inward attention and awkward interactions lead to increased friendliness from others.

C) A vicious cycle where inward attention and potentially awkward interactions result in others reacting in a less friendly fashion, confirming their expectations.

D) Socially anxious individuals receive positive feedback, breaking the cycle.

Answer 31

C) A vicious cycle where inward attention and potentially awkward interactions result in others reacting in a less friendly fashion, confirming their expectations.

Question 32

What cognitive bias is commonly observed in social anxiety regarding the interpretation of ambiguous social information?

A) Socially anxious individuals tend to interpret ambiguous social information positively.

B) Socially anxious individuals tend to interpret ambiguous social information negatively rather than benignly.

C) There is no cognitive bias observed in the interpretation of ambiguous social information in social anxiety.

D) Negatively biased interpretations in social anxiety are often related to a positive outcome.

Answer 32

B) Socially anxious individuals tend to interpret ambiguous social information negatively rather than benignly.

Question 33

What is identified as the most important temperamental variable of social anxiety, sharing characteristics with both neuroticism and introversion?

A) Sociability

B) Extraversion

C) Behavioral inhibition

D) Conscientiousness

Answer 33

C) Behavioral inhibition

Question 34

In a study involving children at risk for anxiety due to their parents having an emotional disorder, what was the finding regarding behavioral inhibition?

A) Children with low behavioral inhibition were three times more likely to develop social anxiety disorder.

B) Children with high behavioral inhibition between 2 and 6 years were nearly three times more likely to be diagnosed with social anxiety disorder in middle childhood.

C) Behavioral inhibition had no significant impact on the development of social anxiety disorder.

D) Children with high sociability between 2 and 6 years were more likely to develop social anxiety disorder.

Answer 34

B) Children with high behavioral inhibition between 2 and 6 years were nearly three times more likely to be diagnosed with social anxiety disorder in middle childhood.

Question 35

What do results from twin and other genetic studies suggest about the contribution of genetics to social anxiety?

A) There is a substantial genetic contribution, accounting for over 50% of the variance in social anxiety.

B) Genetic factors play a minimal role, contributing less than 5% to the variance in social anxiety.

C) There is a modest genetic contribution, with estimates ranging between 12 and 30% of the variance in liability to social anxiety.

D) Nonshared environmental factors are the sole contributors to the development of social anxiety.

Answer 35

C) There is a modest genetic contribution, with estimates ranging between 12 and 30% of the variance in liability to social anxiety.

Question 36

What does the comprehensive learning theory of panic disorder propose about the association between panic attacks and cues?

A) panic attacks become associated with initially neutral internal and external cues through an interoceptive and exteroceptive conditioning

B) heightened physiological responses are linked to both internal and external cues, forming the basis for panic attacks

C) panic attacks are random and unrelated to any specific cues, internal or external

D) avoidance behaviors develop exclusively due to internal cues, unrelated to external factors

Answer 36

A) panic attacks become associated with initially neutral internal and external cues through an interoceptive and exteroceptive conditioning

Question 37

According to the comprehensive learning theory of panic disorder, what role does the intensity of a panic attack play in the conditioning process?

A) The intensity of a panic attack has no impact on conditioning.

B) Intense panic attacks lead to weaker conditioning.

C) The more intense the panic attack, the more robust the conditioning that will occur.

D) Intense panic attacks only condition external cues, not internal cues.

Answer 37

C) The more intense the panic attack, the more robust the conditioning that will occur.

Question 38

Due to the conditioning of anxiety to specific cues in panic disorder, what might develop in a subset of individuals?

A) Enhanced ability to cope with stressors

B) Decreased sensitivity to environmental stimuli

C) Agoraphobic avoidance of certain contexts

D) Improved overall mood and well-being

Answer 38

C) Agoraphobic avoidance of certain contexts

Question 39

studies have shown that once an individual has developed panic disorder, that person shows

A) Decreased sensitivity to anxiety-inducing cues

B) Enhanced ability to cope with stressors

C) Improved mood and overall well-being

D) Greater generalization of conditioned responding to similar cues

Answer 39

D) Greater generalization of conditioned responding to similar cues

Question 40

why does extinction of conditioned anxiety occur more slowly in those with panic disorder than in normal controls?

A) Enhanced inhibitory learning

B) Impaired inhibitory learning

C) Improved ability to distinguish safety cues

D) Faster habituation to anxiety

Answer 40

B) Impaired inhibitory learning

Question 41

Individuals with panic disorder are likely to show impaired discriminative conditioning due to:

A) Enhanced inhibitory learning

B) Improved ability to distinguish safety cues

C) Impaired inhibitory learning

D) Strong discriminative responses to safety cues

Answer 41

C) Impaired inhibitory learning

Question 42

What contributes to the occurrence of panic attacks that seemingly come “out of the blue” in panic disorder?

A) Improved ability to distinguish safety cues

B) Habituation to anxiety

C) Impaired inhibitory learning

D) Conditioning of panic attacks to internal cues

Answer 42

D) Conditioning of panic attacks to internal cues

Question 43

What factor may protect individuals with panic disorder against the development of agoraphobic avoidance?

A) Low levels of perceived control

B) High levels of anxiety sensitivity

C) High levels of perceived control

D) Emotional volatility

Answer 43

C) High levels of perceived control

Question 44

According to the cognitive perspective, why might the catastrophic thought about having a heart attack persist in individuals with panic disorder?

A) The disconfirmation process is impaired in individuals with panic disorder.

B) People with panic disorder tend to forget the outcomes of their panic attacks.

C) Individuals with panic disorder do not experience disconfirmation.

D) Safety behaviors, such as breathing slowly, reinforce the catastrophic thought.

Answer 44

D) Safety behaviors, such as breathing slowly, reinforce the catastrophic thought.

Question 45

which of the following is an example of biases that occur in the maintenance of panic disorder?

A) Having one’s attention automatically drawn to threatening cues in the environment

B) Avoiding all situations that might trigger anxiety.

C) Developing a strong preference for neutral stimuli.

D) Ignoring internal bodily sensations completely.

Answer 45

A) having one’s attention automatically drawn to threatening cues in the environment

Question 46

according to the psychoanalytical viewpoint, GAD results from

A) excessive demands from external sources

B) an unconscious conflict between ego and id impulses that is not adequately dealt with because the person’s defense mechanisms have either broken down or have never developed.

C) Prolonged exposure to adverse experiences during childhood, such as trauma or stress, may contribute to the development of chronic anxiety, persisting over time.

D) the presence of a genetic predisposition can influence the regulation of emotions, potentially impacting an individual’s ability to manage and cope with various emotional states.

Answer 46

B) an unconscious conflict between ego and id impulses that is not adequately dealt with because the person’s defense mechanisms have either broken down or have never developed.

Question 47

what did Freud believe with relation to the factors that cause GAD

A) The influence of early childhood experiences, particularly in the context of familial relationships, contributing to the development of free-floating anxiety.

B) The impact of social factors and societal pressures on individuals, resulting in the manifestation of free-floating anxiety.

C) A combination of genetic factors and neurobiological abnormalities leading to the emergence of free-floating anxiety.

D) Primarily sexual and aggressive impulses that had been either blocked from expression or punished upon expression that led to free-floating anxiety

Answer 47

D) Primarily sexual and aggressive impulses that had been either blocked from expression or punished upon expression that led to free-floating anxiety

Question 48

Which of the following statements best aligns with the impact of frequent and extreme anxiety on defense mechanisms, as suggested by psychoanalytic theory?

A) Enhanced adaptability and resilience of defense mechanisms under persistent anxiety.

B) Diminished influence of defense mechanisms due to recurrent anxiety, making them overwhelmed.

C) Strengthened suppression of id impulses in response to frequent anxiety.

D) Heightened effectiveness of defense mechanisms in managing recurrent anxiety.

Answer 48

B) Diminished influence of defense mechanisms due to recurrent anxiety, making them overwhelmed.

Question 49

What is the primary difference between specific phobias and GAD according to the psychoanalytic view?

A) Both specific phobias and GAD result from the failure of defense mechanisms to cope with anxiety.

B) Specific phobias involve a general sense of unease, while GAD is characterized by a distinct fear of a specific object or situation.

C) GAD is exclusively rooted in unconscious conflicts, whereas specific phobias have conscious triggers.

D) In specific phobias, defense mechanisms like repression and displacement effectively manage anxiety, while in GAD, these defense mechanisms are ineffective.

Answer 49

D) In specific phobias, defense mechanisms like repression and displacement effectively manage anxiety, while in GAD, these defense mechanisms are ineffective.

Question 50

which of the following is true based on evidence found in those with GAD

A) people with GAD have more tolerance for uncertainty than non anxious controls or those with panic disorder

B) people with GAD are less likely to have had a history of trauma in childhood compared to other anxiety disorders

C) the unpredictable and uncontrollable events involved in GAD are comparable with the severity and trauma as those involved in the origins of posttraumatic stress disorder

D) people with GAD are more likely to have had a history of trauma in childhood compared to other anxiety disorders

Answer 50

D) people with GAD are more likely to have had a history of trauma in childhood compared to other anxiety disorders

Question 51

which of the following is NOT a significant experiential variable strongly affecting reactions to anxiety provoking situations?

A) a history of experiencing many events as uncontrollable and unpredictable

B) a persons history of control over their environment

C) having intrusive, over controlling parents

D) recent changes in sleep patterns or dietary habits

Answer 51

D) Recent changes in sleep patterns or dietary habits

Question 52

what process is considered the central feature of GAD and has been the central focus of much research in the past 20 years?

A) worry

B) rumination

C) obsession

D) avoidance

Answer 52

A) worry

Question 53

what do Borkovec and colleagues suggest about the function of worrying for those with GAD

A) worrying serves as a form of procrastination

B) worrying serves to prepare one for future events

C) worrying is a form of self-punishment

D) worrying is a way to avoid making decisions

Answer 53

B) worrying serves to prepare one for future events

Question 54

The positive belief that “Worrying makes it less likely that the feared event will occur” corresponds to which perceived benefit commonly associated with GAD?

A) Avoidance of deeper emotional topics

B) Superstitious avoidance of catastrophe

C) Coping and preparation

D) None of the above

Answer 54

B) Superstitious avoidance of catastrophe

Question 55

People with GAD who believe that worrying about most things serves as a way to distract themselves from contemplating more emotional issues are primarily seeking:

A) Avoidance of deeper emotional topics

B) Superstitious avoidance of catastrophe

C) Coping and preparation

D) None of the above

Answer 55

A) Avoidance of deeper emotional topics

Question 56

Individuals with GAD who think that worrying helps them prepare for predicted negative events are seeking which perceived benefit?

A) Avoidance of deeper emotional topics

B) Superstitious avoidance of catastrophe

C) Coping and preparation

D) None of the above

Answer 56

C) Coping and preparation

Question 57

In the context of GAD, positive beliefs about worry, particularly in the early phases of the disorder’s development, may contribute to:

A) Reduction in emotional avoidance

B) Enhancement of emotional expression

C) Maintenance of high levels of anxiety and worry

D) None of the above

Answer 57

C) Maintenance of high levels of anxiety and worry

Question 58

Which of the following is a potential consequence of positive beliefs about worry in GAD, particularly in its early phases?

A) Decreased levels of anxiety and worry

B) Increased emotional openness

C) Maintenance of high levels of anxiety and worry

D) None of the above

Answer 58

C) Maintenance of high levels of anxiety and worry

Question 59

What is the potential consequence of worry in individuals with GAD on their emotional and physiological responses to aversive imagery?

A) Enhancement of aversive emotional and physiological responses leading to reinforcement of the process of worry

B) Suppression of aversive emotional and physiological responses leading to reinforcement of the process of worry

C) Inhibition of worry probability, leading to extinction of the worry process

D) Facilitation of topic processing leading to extinction of the worry process

Answer 59

B) Suppression of aversive emotional and physiological responses

Question 60

Why does worry in GAD hinder the full processing and extinction of anxiety related to the worried-about topic?

A) It enhances physiological responding

B) It facilitates emotional responses

C) It insulates the person from fully experiencing the topic

D) It accelerates the extinction process

Answer 60

C) It insulates the person from fully experiencing the topic

Question 61

in those who have GAD, people who worry about something tend to have

A) more intense positive emotions

B) less intense negative emotions

C) less negative intrusive thoughts

D) more negative intrusive thoughts

Answer 61

D) more negative intrusive thoughts

Question 62

which of the following is an example of cognitive bias in people with GAD

A) Selective attention to positive information

B) Overestimation of their ability to control future events

C) Ignoring potential threats in the environment

D) Objective and unbiased interpretation of ambiguous situations

Answer 62

B) Overestimation of their ability to control future events

Question 63

at what stage of information processing does attentional vigilance for threat cues occur in individuals with anxiety, even before entering conscious awareness?

A) Late-stage processing

B) Mid-stage processing

C) Early-stage processing

D) Post-conscious awareness

Answer 63

C) Early-stage processing

Question 64

Why might attentional focus on threat cues in the environment, especially in early information processing stages, worsen anxiety in individuals who are already anxious?

A) It promotes relaxation

B) It has no impact on anxiety

C) It maintains or exacerbates anxiety

D) It leads to complete avoidance

Answer 64

C) It maintains or exacerbates anxiety

Question 65

What complicates research on the heritability of Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)

A) heritability estimates vary as a function of one’s definition of GAD

B) Consistency in diagnostic criteria

C) Lack of interest in twin studies

D) Stability in the definition of GAD over time

Answer 65

A) heritability estimates vary as a function of one’s definition of GAD

Question 66

What plays a pivotal role in determining whether individuals with a genetic predisposition for Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) or major depression develop either disorder?

A) Genetic similarities with family members

B) Shared environmental experiences

C) Non-shared environmental experiences

D) Development of coping mechanisms

Answer 66

C) Non-shared environmental experiences

Question 67

the finding of benzodiazepines as a medication to reduce anxiety was followed by the finding that

A) Identification of a new class of neurotransmitters

B) These drugs likely exert their effects by stimulating the action of GABA

C) Development of non-pharmacological interventions for anxiety

D) A shift towards using antipsychotic medications

Answer 67

B) these drugs probably exert their effects by stimulating the action of GABA

Question 68

which of the following is not a neurotransmitter involved in modulating anxiety?

A) GABA

B) dopamine

C) norepinephrine

D) serotonin

Answer 68

B) dopamine

Question 69

what anxiety producing hormone has been strongly implicated as playing an important role in GAD?

A) corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)

B) adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

C) beta-2 receptor stimulation

D) beta-1 receptor stimulation

Answer 69

A) corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)

Question 70

when activated by stress or perceived threat, the corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) stimulates the release of ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone) from the pituitary gland, which in turn causes release of

A) dopamine

B) adrenaline

C) insulin

D) cortisol

Answer 70

D) cortisol

Question 71

corticotropin-releas-ing hormone (CRH) may play an important role in GAD through its effects on the bed nucleus of the stria terminalis, which is now believed to be an important brain area ______ GAD

A) causing

B) mediating

C) controlling

D) diffusing

Answer 71

B) mediating

Question 72

brain areas and neurotransmitters are most strongly implicated in fear and panic are ______ while neurotransmitters, and hormones are most strongly implicated in generalized anxiety (or anxious apprehension) are ______

A) Limbic system and GABA; Hippocampus and dopamine

B) Amygdala and norepinephrine ; Limbic system, stria terminalis and GABA

C) Hippocampus and serotonin; amygdala and serotonin

D) Prefrontal cortex and dopamine; Bed nucleus of the stria terminalis and CRH

Answer 72

B) Amygdala and norepinephrine ; Limbic system and GABA

Question 73

people with GAD have been found to have a smaller ________ region, similar to what is seen with major depression; this may represent a common risk factor for the two disorders

A) left amygdala

B) right amygdala

C) right hippocampal

D) left hippocampal

Answer 73

D) left hippocampal

Question 74

fear an panic involve activation of the flight or fight response and brain areas and neurotransmitters that are strongly implicated in these emotional responses are

A) amygdala, GABA and serotonin

B) left hippocampus, GABA and CRH

C) amygdala, norepinephrine and serotonin

D) limbic system, an extension of the amygdala, GABA and CRH

Answer 74

C) amygdala, norepinephrine and serotonin

Question 75

Generalized anxiety (or anxious apprehension) is a more dif-fuse emotional state than acute fear or phobia that involves arousal and a preparation for possible impending threat; and the brain area, neurotransmitters, and hormones that seem most strongly implicated are the

A) amygdala, GABA and serotonin

B) left hippocampus, GABA and CRH

C) amygdala (and locus coeruleus), norepinephrine and serotonin

D) limbic system, an extension of the amygdala, GABA and CRH

Answer 75

D) limbic system, an extension of the amygdala, GABA and CRH