DISSOCIATIVE DISORDERS Flashcards

1
Q

How is dissociation defined

a) disruption of cognitive functioning
b) A normal, continuous experience of psychological functioning
c) Disruption or discontinuity in the normal integration of psychological aspects
d) disruption in memory and consciousness

A

c) Disruption or discontinuity in the normal integration of psychological aspects

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2
Q

Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an aspect of psychological functioning affected by dissociation?

a) Memory
b) Identity
c) Social skills
d) Perception

A

c) Social skills

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3
Q

in the context of dissociation, what is described as a subjective integration of psychological functioning?

a) Enhanced awareness
b) Normal cognitive processes
c) Disruption of motor control
d) Continuous memory recall

A

b) Normal cognitive processes

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4
Q

According to the definition, what can be disrupted or discontinued during dissociation?

a) Physical health
b) Objective reality
c) Psychological functioning
d) External stimuli

A

c) Psychological functioning

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5
Q

How would one best summarize the overall impact of dissociation on psychological functioning based on the given definition?

a) Enhances psychological integration
b) Creates continuity in consciousness
c) Disrupts and/or discontinues various psychological aspects
d) Exclusively impacts motor control

A

c) Disrupts and/or discontinues various psychological aspects

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6
Q

When might mild dissociative symptoms occur

a) During intense concentration

b) Only during sleep

c) Exclusively in stressful situations

d) When daydreaming or losing track of surroundings

A

d) When daydreaming or losing track of surroundings

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7
Q

Which of the following is NOT listed as an example of mild dissociative symptoms?

a) Daydreaming

b) Getting lost in thought

c) Remembering every detail of a conversation

d) Missing part of a conversation

A

c) Remembering every detail of a conversation

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8
Q

what is often used to screen for dissociative symtoms

A) Dissociative amnesia scale

B) Dissociative depersoanlisaton scale

C) Dissociative Subtype of PTSD Scale

D) Dissociative Experiences Scales

A

D) Dissociative Experiences Scales

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9
Q

What is the Dissociative Experiences Scale (DES) commonly used for?

a) Assessing cognitive abilities

b) Diagnosing physical health conditions

c) Screening for dissociative symptoms

d) Measuring emotional intelligence

A

c) Screening for dissociative symptoms

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10
Q

when does dissociation become pathological?

a) When it is completely absent

b) When it is intentionally induced

c) When symptoms are perceived as disruptive or produce discontinuity of experience

d) Only when it results in total memory loss

A

c) When symptoms are perceived as disruptive or produce discontinuity of experience

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11
Q

What criteria are mentioned for dissociation to be considered pathological?

a) Absence of any involuntary intrusions

b) Perceived as enhancing executive functioning

c) Disruptive and causing a loss of needed information or recurrent, jarring intrusions

d) Limited to disruptions in memory alone

A

c) Disruptive and causing a loss of needed information or recurrent, jarring intrusions

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12
Q

How is the perception of dissociative symptoms crucial for determining their pathological nature?

a) It depends solely on the severity of symptoms

b) It relies on conscious awareness of every dissociative episode

c) It is based on the perception of disruption and loss of needed information

d) Only when the symptoms lead to total amnesia

A

c) It is based on the perception of disruption and loss of needed information

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13
Q

when do dissociative symptoms become pathological regarding executive functioning and sense of self?

a) When they enhance executive functioning

b) When they are rare and intentional

c) When they are recurrent, jarring, and involuntary

d) Only when they disrupt positive experiences

A

c) When they are recurrent, jarring, and involuntary

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14
Q

What is highlighted as a critical element for dissociation to be considered pathological?

a) Involuntary intrustions into memory

b) Involuntary intrusions into self-perception

c) Inconsistent voluntary control

d) Disruption to experience

A

b) Involuntary intrusions into self-perception

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15
Q

what characterises much of our mental life

A) deliberate self awareness

B) conscious monitoring

C) automatic nonconscious processes

D) explicit memory

A

C) automatic nonconscious processes

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16
Q

In which areas does unaware processing extend

a) Explicit memory and explicit perception

b) Implicit memory and implicit perception

c) Deliberate memory and deliberate perception

d) Short-term memory and sensory perception

A

b) Implicit memory and implicit perception

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17
Q

What is implicit memory

a) Remembering things consciously

b) Remembering things without awareness

c) Deliberate recall of information

d) Rapid memory processing

A

b) Remembering things without awareness

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18
Q

How do people typically respond to sights or sounds in implicit perception

a) With conscious awareness

b) As if they had perceived them consciously

c) Reporting the details immediately

d) Only through deliberate self-awareness

A

b) As if they had perceived them consciously

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19
Q

what is a common characteristic of implicit perception?

a) Conscious recall of stimuli

b) Inability to respond to stimuli

c) Unaware response to stimuli

d) Limited sensory processing

A

c) Unaware response to stimuli

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20
Q

responding to sights or sounds as if you had perceived them even though you cannot report that they have seen or heard them

A) implicit memory

B) implicit percepetion

C) explicit memory

D) explicit percepetion

A

B) implicit percepetion

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21
Q

implicit perception occurs in what disorders where people who say that they cannot see nonetheless are able to respond to some visual stimuli.

A) depressive disorders

B) somatic symptom disorder

C) conversion disorders

D) bipolar disorders

A

C) conversion disorders

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22
Q

what occurs as a result of an affected person having less coordination and integration in human cognition

A) they experience lowered cognitive performance and efficiency

B) they may be unable to access information that is normally in the forefront of consciousness

C) they experience lowered ability to access information from subconsciousness

D) they may have more repressed memories

A

B) they may be unable to access information that is normally in the forefront of consciousness

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23
Q

if a dissociated person is unable to access information that is normally at the forefront of consciousness, what can occur

A) They are more likely to remember trivial and unimportant details

B) They are unable to access information about their personal identity or details of a recent event

C) Their ability to access information remains unchanged

D) They become exceptionally skilled at multitasking

A

B) They are unable to access information about their personal identity or details of a recent event

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24
Q

the normally useful capacity of maintaining ongoing mental activity outside of awareness appears as what in those with dissociative disorders

A) subverted

B) optimized

C) intensified

D) consolidated

A

A) subverted

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25
Q

what is suggested as a primary function of dissociative disorders?

a) Enhancing cognitive abilities

b) Coping with positive life events

c) Avoiding anxiety and stress

d) Facilitating social interactions

A

c) Avoiding anxiety and stress

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26
Q

How are dissociative disorders described in relation to anxiety and stress?

a) As exacerbating anxiety and stress

b) As unrelated to anxiety and stress

c) As ways of avoiding anxiety and stress

d) As causing anxiety and stress

A

c) As ways of avoiding anxiety and stress

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27
Q

what are dissociative disorders considered to be responses to?

a) Positive life events

b) Ineffective coping resources

c) Overwhelming life problems

d) Emotional expression

A

c) Overwhelming life problems

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28
Q

dissociative disorders enable the individual to deny personal responsibility for his or her

A) “unacceptable” wishes or behavior.

B) Thoughts and emotions related to everyday experiences

C) “socially acceptable” desires or actions

D) Exceptional achievements and successes

A

A) “unacceptable” wishes or behavior.

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29
Q

In the case of DSM-defined dissociative disorders, the per-son avoids the stress by pathologically dissociating—in essence, by escaping from his or her own

A) Explicit memory and the self

B) External environment and surroundings

C) Autobiographical memory or personal identity

D) Implicit memory and personal identity

A

C) Autobiographical memory or personal identity

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30
Q

why are dissociative disorders placed in DSM-5 immediately after trauma and stressor-related disorders

A) To emphasize their prevalence in non-trauma-related cases

B) To reflect the close relationship that exists between them

C) To reflect the distant relationship between the two categories

D) To highlight their distinct nature and separate diagnostic criteria

A

B) To reflect the close relationship that exists between them

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31
Q

what are two of the more common kinds of dissociative symptoms

A) Hyperactivity and impulsivity

B) Anxiety and depression

C) Disorientation and memory loss

D) derealization and depersonalization

A

D) derealization and depersonalization

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32
Q

derealization and depersonalization can sometimes occur when?

A) during a depressed state

B) during panic attacks

C) during a manic episode

D) during intense physiological distress

A

B) during panic attacks

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33
Q

what occurs in derealisation

A) one’s sense of one’s own self and one’s own reality is temporarily lost

B) one’s sense of the reality of the outside world is temporarily lost

C) ones sense of time becomes distorted and fragmented

D) One experiences an lowered perception of self and reality

A

B) one’s sense of the reality of the outside world is temporarily lost

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34
Q

what occurs in depersonalisation

A) one’s sense of one’s own self and one’s own reality is temporarily lost

B) one’s sense of the reality of the outside world is temporarily lost

C) ones sense of time becomes distorted and fragmented

D) One experiences an lowered perception of self and reality

A

A) one’s sense of one’s own self and one’s own reality is temporarily lost

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35
Q

which of the following does NOT precipitate mild dissociative experiences

A) sensory deprivation

B) sleep deprivation

C) persistent experiences of feeling detached

D) severe stress

A

C) persistent experiences of feeling detached

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36
Q

In contrast to what hap-pens during psychotic states, during depersonalization

A) Perception of time becomes highly accurate

B) Emotional experiences are heightened and intensified

C) reality testing remains diminishes

D) reality testing remains intact

A

D) reality testing remains intact

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37
Q

what does research suggest as what occurs in relation to emotional experiences during depersonalization

A) Emotional experiences become more intense and overwhelming

B) Emotional experiences are attenuated or reduced —both at the subjective level and at the level of neural and autonomic activity

C) Emotional experiences are amplified but remain unconscious

D) Emotional regulation becomes more challenging but adaptive

A

B) Emotional experiences are attenuated or reduced —both at the subjective level and at the level of neural and autonomic activity

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38
Q

After viewing an emotional video clip, participants with depersonalization show what in compared to controls

A) Lower levels of subjective and objective memory fragmentation

B) Higher levels of subjective and objective memory fragmentation

C) Enhanced ability to recall details from the emotional video clip

D) Comparable levels of subjective and objective memory consolidation

A

B) Higher levels of subjective and objective memory fragmentation

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39
Q

what is memory fragmentation marked by

A) Enhanced recall of chronological events

B) Improved ability to construct a cohesive narrative

C) Enhanced capacity for forming detailed and coherent narratives

D) Difficulties forming an accurate or coherent narrative sequence of events

A

D) Difficulties forming an accurate or coherent narrative sequence of events

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40
Q

what is a key element of the depersonalization experience

A) Time distortion

B) Heightened emotional intensity

C) Perceptual fragmentation

D) Cognitive amplification

A

A) Time distortion

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41
Q

how were derealization and depersonalization treated in the DSM-IV

A) as two distinct conditions

B) they are combined

C) Integrated under the umbrella term “dissociative disorders”

D) depersonalization was not considered a condition in the DSM-IV

A

A) as two distinct conditions

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42
Q

how are derealization and depersonalization treated within the DSM-5

A) as two distinct conditions

B) they are combined

C) Integrated under the umbrella term “dissociative disorders”

D) depersonalization was not considered a condition in the DSM-IV

A

B) they are combined

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43
Q

why does the DSM-5 combine derealization and depersonalization

a) Due to demographic differences
b) Because of distinct comorbid conditions
c) Based on the severity of problems
d) Research suggesting similarities in various aspects

A

d) Research suggesting similarities in various aspects

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44
Q

what does research suggest about individuals with prominent derealization or depersonalization?

a) Differences in demographic characteristics
b) Variations in comorbid conditions
c) Similarity in the course and severity of problems
d) The absence of any shared features

A

c) Similarity in the course and severity of problems

45
Q

what must remain intact for a diagnosis of derealization or depersonalization

A) Reality testing

B) Emotional regulation

C) Cognitive flexibility

D) Interpersonal relationships

A

A) reality testing

46
Q

It is estimated that the lifetime prevalence of depersonalization/dereal-ization disorder is around 1 to 2 percent of the population, what is the rate between sexes

A) Higher prevalence in males

B) Equal numbers of males and females are affected

C) Predominantly affects females

D) More common in females than males

A

B) Equal numbers of males and females are affected

47
Q

what is the mean age of onset of depersonalization/dereal-ization disorder

A) 5

B) 16

C) 30

D) 60

A

B) 16

48
Q

what is the clinical course of depersonalization/derealization disorder

A) Mild course with large fluctuations in intensity

B) Fairly chronic course with little or no fluctuation in intensity

C) Acute onset with rapid resolution

D) Intermittent and unpredictable course

A

B) Fairly chronic course with little or no fluctuation in intensity

49
Q

what is the most effective form of treatment of depersonalization/derealization disorder

A) Mindfulness meditation

B) Neither psychotherapy nor medication

C) Psychotherapy

D) Medication

A

B) Neither psychotherapy nor medication

50
Q

what is the term for the partial or total inability to recall or identify previously acquired information or past experiences

A) Memory lapse

B) Retrograde amnesia

C) Anterograde amnesia

D) Dissociative amnesia

A

B) Retrograde amnesia

51
Q

what is the term used to describe the partial or total inability to retain new information

A) Memory lapse

B) Retrograde amnesia

C) Anterograde amnesia

D) Dissociative amnesia

A

C) Anterograde amnesia

52
Q

If the amnesia is caused by brain pathology, it most often involves

A) failure to retain new information and experiences (anterograde amnesia)

B) recall or identify previously acquired information or past experiences (retrograde amnsesia)

C) Disorientation and confusion

D) Impaired motor skills and coordination

A

A) failure to retain new information and experiences (anterograde amnesia)

53
Q

what term is used to describe a limited failure to recall previously stored personal information when that failure cannot be accounted for by ordinary forgetting

A) Memory lapse

B) Retrograde amnesia

C) Anterograde amnesia

D) Dissociative amnesia

A

D) Dissociative amnesia

54
Q

in Dissociative amnesia what is true regarding forgotten personal information

A) It is permanently erased from memory

B) It can be easily retrieved with external cues

C) It is still there beneath the level of consciousness

D) It is replaced by false memories

A

) It is still there beneath the level of consciousness

55
Q

what type of memory is affected in dissociative amnesia

A) episodic or procedural memory

B) semantic or short term memory

C) episodic or autobiographical memory

D) implicit or autobiographical memory

A

C) episodic or autobiographical memory

56
Q

what memory tend to remain intact in dissociative amnesia

A) episodic or procedural memory

B) semantic, procedural and short term memory

C) episodic or autobiographical memory

D) implicit or autobiographical memory

A

B) semantic, procedural and short term memory

57
Q

A temporary state where a person has memory loss (amnesia) and ends up in an unexpected place

A) Transient disorientation

B) Dissociative fugue

C) Retrograde amnesia

D) Spatial dissonance

A

B) Dissociative fugue

58
Q

during this state individuals are unaware of memory loss for prior stages of their life, but their memory for what happens during the fugue state itself is intact

A) Transient disorientation

B) Dissociative fugue

C) Retrograde amnesia

D) Spatial dissonance

A

B) Dissociative fugue

59
Q

what state is accompanied by confusion about personal identity or even the assumption of a new identity

A) Transient disorientation

B) Dissociative fugue

C) Retrograde amnesia

D) Spatial dissonance

A

B) Dissociative fugue

60
Q

i what state do individuals d find themselves in a strange place, working in a new occupation, with no idea how they got there.

A) Transient disorientation

B) Dissociative fugue

C) Retrograde amnesia

D) Spatial dissonance

A

B) Dissociative fugue

61
Q

what is dissociative fugue is considered to be in the DSM-5

A) A separate disorder

B) A subtype of dissociative amnesia

C) An anxiety-related disorder

D) A manifestation of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

A

B) A subtype of dissociative amnesia

62
Q

what pattern is seen in dissociative amnesia

A) Avoiding unpleasant situations by becoming physically dysfunctional

B) Frequent flashbacks to the traumatic event

C) Unconsciously avoids thoughts about the situation

D) Hyperfocus on the traumatic memories

A

C) Unconsciously avoids thoughts about the situation

63
Q

what we currently know about dissociative amnesia and fugue has come from

A) Conducted on individuals with dissociative amnesia and fugue.

B) Intensive studies of the memory and intellectual functioning of isolated cases with these disorders.

C) Observations of large-scale epidemiological patterns.

D) Experimental studies involving controlled laboratory settings.

A

B) Intensive studies of the memory and intellectual functioning of isolated cases with these disorders.

64
Q

Changes in the brains of those with dissociative amnesia and fugue show

A) activation in their right frontal and temporal brain

B) changes distinct to those with organic memory loss

C) changes similar to those with organic memory loss

D) changes in semantic knowledge

A

C) changes similar to those with organic memory loss

65
Q

Some of the memory deficits in dissociative amnesia
and fugue have been compared to related deficits in

A) Semantic memory

B) Explicit perception

C) Episodic memory

D) Implicit perception

A

B) explicit perception

66
Q

In DSM-IV, what was required that the person manifest for a diagnosis of Dissociative identity disorder (DID)

A) two or more distinct identities (or personality states) that alternated in some way in taking control of behavior

B) a disruption of identity characterized by two or more distinct personality states as well as recurrent episodes of amnesia

C) only disruption of identity characterized that is reported by other people

D) two or more distinct identities as reported by other people

A

A) two or more distinct identities (or personality states) that alternated in some way in taking control of behavior

67
Q

In DSM-5, what was required that the person manifest for a diagnosis of Dissociative identity disorder (DID)

A) two or more distinct identities (or personality states) that alternated in some way in taking control of behavior

B) a disruption of identity characterized by two or more distinct personality states as well as recurrent episodes of amnesia

C) only disruption of identity characterized that is reported by other people

D) two or more distinct identities as reported by other people

A

B) a disruption of identity characterized by two or more distinct personality states as well as recurrent episodes of amnesia

68
Q

what is required as for a diagnosis of Dissociative identity disorder (DID) in the DSM-5 in relation to people witnessing the different personalities

A) can either be self-reported or observed by others

B) can now be diagnosed without other peoples reports

C) only the person experiencing it can report it

D) must be reported by other people

A

B) can now be diagnosed without other peoples reports

69
Q

the DSM-5 has the inclusion of pathological possession in the diagnostic criteria for DID, what does this refer to

A) Frequent mood swings without clear shifts in identity

B) Inability to recall personal information during high-stress situations

C) Experiencing episodes of depersonalization without a clear sense of self

D) A trance state or possession experience

A

D) A trance state or possession experience

70
Q

when is a trance said to occur

A) When someone experiences a heightened emotional state

B) When someone experiences a temporary marked alteration in state of consciousness or identity.

C) When someone experiences vivid dreams

D) When someone experiences a change in physical surroundings

A

B) When someone experiences a temporary marked alteration in state of consciousness or identity.

71
Q

what is usually associated with a trance

A) A heightened state of cognitive functions, often characterized by increased mental clarity and acuity.

B) A new identity that is attributed to the influence of a spirit, deity, or other power.

C) A narrowing of awareness of the immediate surroundings, or stereotyped behaviors or movements that are experienced as beyond one’s control

D) An altered state where one experiences a profound connection with the environment, fostering a sense of control and heightened consciousness.

A

C) A narrowing of awareness of the immediate surroundings, or stereotyped behaviors or movements that are experienced as beyond one’s control

72
Q

what is the distinction between a trance and a possession trance

A) A new identity that is attributed to the influence of a spirit, deity, or other power

B) Alteration of consciousness or identity

C) A possession trance involves complete loss of consciousness and control

D) There is no distinction between a trance and a possession trance

A

B) Alteration of consciousness or identity

73
Q

compared to a trance, a possessive trance, an altered state of consciousness or identity is replaced by

A) A new identity that is attributed to the influence of a spirit, deity, or other power

B) Enhanced cognitive abilities and expanded self-awareness

C) A heightened sense of reality and increased control over one’s actions

D) A temporary suspension of all cognitive functions

A

A) A new identity that is attributed to the influence of a spirit, deity, or other power

74
Q

what is present in both a trance and a possessive trance

A) A new identity attributed to some other power

B) Alteration of consciousness or identity

C) Amnesia

D) A heightened sense of self-awareness and control

A

C) Amnesia

75
Q

when are trance and possession states not considered pathological.

A) During heightened emotional experiences

B) When entered into voluntarily for religious or spiritual reasons

C) When they occur involuntarily, outside accepted cultural contexts

D) Exclusively in cases of mental health disorders

A

B) When entered into voluntarily for religious or spiritual reasons

76
Q

In DSM-5, the diagnostic criteria for DID have been modified to include

A) pathological possession

B) discontinuity in sense of self and sense of agency

C) gaps in the recall of everyday events

D) alterations in affect, behavior, consciousness, memory, perception, cognition, and/or sensory-motor functioning

A

A) pathological possession

77
Q

In most cases of DID, the one identity that is most frequently encountered and carries the person’s real name

A) Primary identity

B) Original identity

C) Alter identities

D) Host identity

A

D) Host identity

78
Q

what do alter identities reflect

A) A shift in multiple personality traits

B) Distinct characterizations based on external influences

C) An alignment with societal expectations

D) A failure to integrate identity, consciousness, and memory

A

D) A failure to integrate identity, consciousness, and memory

79
Q

how do switches in alter identities typically occur

A) only quickly

B) gradually, but sometimes quickly

C) quickly, but gradual switches can occur

D) Spontaneously and without any noticeable pattern

A

C) quickly, but gradual switches can occur

80
Q

what is easy to observe when switches occur in people with DID

A) Physical changes in appearance

B) Alterations in physical health

C) gaps in memory

D) personality changes

A

C) gaps in memory

81
Q

among patients with diagnoses of DID what is the most common comorbid diagnoses

A) GAD

B) PTSD

C) OCD

D) Schizophrenia

A

B) PTSD

82
Q

when is the most common age for the onset of DID

A) middle adulthood

B) adolescence

C) childhood

D) late adulthood

A

C) childhood

83
Q

what is true regarding gender differences in DID

A) females tend to have a larger number of alters than males

B) males and females are equally likely to be diagnosed with and have the same number of alters

C) more males are diagnosed as having the disorder

D) males tend to have a larger number of alters than females

A

A) females tend to have a larger number of alters than males

84
Q

This misuse of the term ‘split personality’ reflects a misunderstanding of what disorder

A) Bipolar 2

B) Disorganised identity disorder

C) Schizophrenia

D) MDD

A

C) Schizophrenia

85
Q

according to this theory, DID starts from early childhood traumatisation and reflects an attempt to cope with an overwhelming sense of hopelessness and powerless in the face of repeated traumatic abuse

A) Becks cognitive theory

B) psychodynamic theorists

C) social cognitive theory

D) trauma theory

A

D) trauma theory

86
Q

according to this theory the lack of other resources or routes of escape, the child may dissociate and escape into a fantasy, becoming someone else.

A) diathesis–stress model

B) psychodynamic theorists

C) social cognitive theory

D) trauma theory

A

D) trauma theory

87
Q

from the perspective of trauma theory, DID is regarded as what

A) a spontaneous adoption of multiple identities stemming from reinforcement and an individuals own personal goals

B) a coping method in which a child compartmentalised traumatic experiences

C) A form of role-playing for attention-seeking behavior

D) An exaggerated form of normal forgetfulness

A

B) a coping method in which a child compartmentalised traumatic experiences

88
Q

in what theory would a child who is fantasy prone and continues to stay fantasy prone over time, unknowingly create different selves at different points in time, possibly laying the foun-dation for dissociated identities.

A) diathesis–stress model

B) psychodynamic theorists

C) social cognitive theory

D) trauma theory

A

D) trauma theory

89
Q

what research would provide support trauma theory

A) that alters appear only when facing stressful events

B) patients with DID reporting memories of severe and horrific childhood abuse

C) college students under hypnosis being able to show obvious signs of DID

D) none of the above

A

B) patients with DID reporting memories of severe and horrific childhood abuse

90
Q

What is suggested about the subset of children prone to fantasy or self-hypnosis in the context of trauma and dissociative disorders?

a) They are less likely to experience trauma

b) They are not prone to developing DID

c) A diathesis–stress model may be more appropriate for them

d) They are resistant to the effects of trauma

A

c) A diathesis–stress model may be more appropriate for them

91
Q

what explanation suggests that DID develops when a highly suggestible person learns to adopt and enact the roles of multiple identities, mostly because clinicians have inadvertently suggested, legiti-mized, and reinforced them and because these different identities are geared to the individual’s own personal goals

A) diathesis–stress model

B) psychodynamic theorists

C) social cognitive theory

D) trauma theory

A

C) social cognitive theory

92
Q

from the perspective of social cognitive theory, DID is regarded as what

A) a spontaneous adoption of multiple identities stemming from hypnosis suggestions used on highly suggestible and fantasy prone people

B) a coping method in which a child compartmentalised traumatic experiences

C) A form of role-playing for attention-seeking behavior

D) An exaggerated form of normal forgetfulness

A

A) a spontaneous adoption of multiple identities stemming from hypnosis used on highly suggestible and fantasy prone people

93
Q

in studies assessing DID and people simulating DID, which of the following is not a differing factor between the two

A) cognitive processing problems

B) transfer of memory across personalities

C) deficits in recognition and recall tasks

D) more symptoms present in DID

A

B) transfer of memory across personalities

94
Q

what theory accepts that some cases of DID are faked and that some may be inadvertently caused by unskilled therapist in the course of treatment

A) Becks cognitive theory

B) psychodynamic theorists

C) social cognitive theory

D) trauma theory

A

D) trauma theory

95
Q

advocates of this theory now acknowledge that trauma may play a causal role in dissociation but believe it occurs fal less often and is less likely to play a central, specific an causal role

A) Becks cognitive theory

B) psychodynamic theorists

C) social cognitive theory

D) trauma theory

A

C) social cognitive theory

96
Q

advocates of this theory believe that trauma far less often, and is less likely to play a central, specific, and causal role, than the trauma theorists maintain

A) Becks cognitive theory

B) psychodynamic theorists

C) social cognitive theory

D) trauma theory

A

C) social cognitive theory

97
Q

what theory is recognised as a more of a diathesis stress model

A) Becks cognitive theory

B) psychodynamic theorists

C) social cognitive theory

D) trauma theory

A

C) social cognitive theory

98
Q

how is the other identity in pathological possession experienced

A) rage

B) internal personality state

C) external spirit, power, or deity

D) removal of an external spirit

A

C) external spirit, power, or deity

99
Q

“amok” is a cross cultural variant of dissociative disorders which is thought of as

A) rage

B) internal personality state

C) external spirit, power, or deity

D) removal of an external spirit

A

A) rage

100
Q

Amok occurs when a dissociative episode leads to

A) the possession of an external spirit, power or deity

B) violent, aggressive, or homicidal behavior directed at other people and objects

C) various alters

D) all of the above

A

B) violent, aggressive, or homicidal behavior directed at other people and objects

101
Q

what has contributed to the limited knowledge of how to treat depersonalization dis-order and dissociative amnesia.

A) ambiguity in whether one has the disorder or not

B) variations in how to define the disorders based on cultural variations

C) absence of randomized controlled trials

D) not a lot of people reporting having the disorder

A

C) absence of randomized controlled trials

102
Q

or people diagnosed with DID, most current thera-peutic approaches are based on the assumption of what theory

A) Becks cognitive theory

B) psychodynamic theorists

C) social cognitive theory

D) trauma theory

A

D) trauma theory

103
Q

what is the typical approach to treatment of DID

A) interpersonal oriented and reinforcement

B) rational emotive behavioural therapy

C) person centred and cognitive

D) insight oriented and psychodynamic

A

D) insight oriented and psychodynamic

104
Q

what is one of the primary techniques used in most treatments of DID

A) inclusive therapy

B) cogntiive theapy

C) talk therapy

D) hypnosis

A

D) hypnosis

105
Q

what is the name of the organisation that was created by some parents who asserted that they had been falsely accused of inflicting abuse on their children who had been diagnosed with DID

A) False Memory Syndrome Foundation

B) Memory Recovery Foundation

C) Accusation Reversal Alliance

D) Parental Advocacy Network

A

A) False Memory Syndrome Foundation

106
Q

what is the general consensus regarding treatment of depersonalisation/derealisation

A) Spontaneous remission is common

B) It may be fairly resistant to treatment

C) Psychotherapy is the only effective intervention

D) None of the above

A

B) it may be fairly resistant to treatment

107
Q

why might training self-hypnosis techniques be useful for patients with depersonalization disorder

A) They can learn to re-experience their past trauma and learn how to adequately integrate it into the self knowing that it isn’t harming them now

B) they can learn to dissociate and then “reassociate,” thereby gaining some sense of control over their depersonalization and derealization experiences

C) Depersonalization disorder is best treated with medication alone

D) Mindfulness techniques are more effective than self-hypnosis

A

B) they can learn to dissociate and then “reassociate,” thereby gaining some sense of control over their depersonalization and derealization experiences

108
Q

. A recent treatment showing some promise for the treatment of dissociative dis-orders involves administering

A) deep brain stimulation 0

B) psychotherapy

C) medication therapy

D) rTMS

A

D) rTMS