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Flashcards in ATQ 2019 Deck (50)
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1

During ground operations, when in icing conditions and OAT is +3 degrees Celsius or less, or if significant engine vibration occurs, what is the correct ice-shedding procedure?

a) CEO: Minimum 50% N1 every 15 mins. NEO: 50% N1 for 5s every 60mins.
b) CEO: Minimum 50% N1 every 15 mins and also prior to takeoff. NEO: Minimum 50% N1 every 60mins and also prior to takeoff.
c) CEO: Minimum 50% N1 every 15 mins and also prior to takeoff. NEO: 50% N1 for 5s every 60mins and also prior to takeoff.
d) None of the above.

During ground operations, when in icing conditions and OAT is +3 degrees Celsius or less, or if significant engine vibration occurs, what is the correct ice-shedding procedure?

a) CEO: Minimum 50% N1 every 15 mins. NEO: 50% N1 for 5s every 60mins.
b) CEO: Minimum 50% N1 every 15 mins and also prior to takeoff. NEO: Minimum 50% N1 every 60mins and also prior to takeoff.
c) CEO: Minimum 50% N1 every 15 mins and also prior to takeoff. NEO: 50% N1 for 5s every 60mins and also prior to takeoff.
d) None of the above.

Reference:

2

You are due to take off from EKCH runway 22R with a runway state R22R/550593 on G-EUOE. What CARD correction code should you use for the contamination?

a) 04
b) 06
c) 11
d) None of the above.

You are due to take off from EKCH runway 22R with a runway state R22R/550593 on G-EUOE. What CARD correction code should you use for the contamination?

a) 04
b) 06
c) 11
d) None of the above.

Reference:

3

When instructed to “Squawk ident” by ATC do you

a) SQUAWK IDENT and say nothing
b) SQUAWK IDENT and read back “Squawk ident, [callsign]”
c) SQUAWK IDENT and read back “Identing 2653, [callsign]”
d) None of the above.

When instructed to “Squawk ident” by ATC do you

a) SQUAWK IDENT and say nothing
b) SQUAWK IDENT and read back “Squawk ident, [callsign]”
c) SQUAWK IDENT and read back “Identing 2653, [callsign]”
d) None of the above.

Reference:

4

You are flying the ETP for the VEBIT3W SID off RW28 at ZRH due to an engine failure and receive a GPWS caution. Do you?

a) Execute PULL UP TOGA manoeuvre Memory drill.
b) Fly ETP accurately at min speed of V2 using max climb performance.
c) Execute QRH PULL UP manoeuvre Memory drill but fly the ETP profile.
d) None of the above.

You are flying the ETP for the VEBIT3W SID off RW28 at ZRH due to an engine failure and receive a GPWS caution. Do you?

a) Execute PULL UP TOGA manoeuvre Memory drill.
b) Fly ETP accurately at min speed of V2 using max climb performance.
c) Execute QRH PULL UP manoeuvre Memory drill but fly the ETP profile.
d) None of the above.

Reference:

5

On a nice afternoon with CAVOK conditions at LHR you decide would like to practice some manual flying and brief for a manually flown raw data approach to ILS27R in G-TTND. Leaving the hold you decide to disconnect the AP, ask for both FDs OFF and request Bird ON. On base leg you get a TCAS RA “Climb, Climb”. What is the correct course of action?

a) Execute a Go-around.
b) The AP/FD TCAS mode engages, FDs will appear with TCAS green FMA and PF should smoothly fly the FD pitch bar. PF can ask the PM to engage the AP. If the vertical speed doesn’t reach the green area, disconnect AP and override FDs to stay out of red area.
c) The AP/FD TCAS mode won’t engage since the AP and FDs are already off and PF should check AP off, FDs off and pitch to the green area.
d) None of the above.

On a nice afternoon with CAVOK conditions at LHR you decide would like to practice some manual flying and brief for a manually flown raw data approach to ILS27R in G-TTND. Leaving the hold you decide to disconnect the AP, ask for both FDs OFF and request Bird ON. On base leg you get a TCAS RA “Climb, Climb”. What is the correct course of action?

a) Execute a Go-around.
b) The AP/FD TCAS mode engages, FDs will appear with TCAS green FMA and PF should smoothly fly the FD pitch bar. PF can ask the PM to engage the AP. If the vertical speed doesn’t reach the green area, disconnect AP and override FDs to stay out of red area.
c) The AP/FD TCAS mode won’t engage since the AP and FDs are already off and PF should check AP off, FDs off and pitch to the green area.
d) None of the above.

Reference:

6

On receipt of your ACARS final figures the following message is included “TAIL TIP XX.XX * CREW DO NOT DISEMBARK PAX UNTIL CPT 3/4 ARE EMPTY ** RAMP: DO NOT OFFLOAD FWD HOLD UNTIL ALL PAX HAVE DISEMBARKED *”

a) You should liaise with the SCCM during the flight who will liaise with the ADM/Ground representative on arrival to establish the disembarkation procedure.
b) The Club passengers can be allowed to disembark but you should liaise with the SCCM during the flight who will liaise with the ADM/Ground representative to establish the disembarkation procedure for the remaining passengers.
c) The passengers can be allowed to disembark if the ground personnel monitor the extension of the nose oleo. Disembarking must be suspended if the oleo extends more than 8cms from its initial position.
d) None of the above.

On receipt of your ACARS final figures the following message is included “TAIL TIP XX.XX * CREW DO NOT DISEMBARK PAX UNTIL CPT 3/4 ARE EMPTY ** RAMP: DO NOT OFFLOAD FWD HOLD UNTIL ALL PAX HAVE DISEMBARKED *”

a) You should liaise with the SCCM during the flight who will liaise with the ADM/Ground representative on arrival to establish the disembarkation procedure.
b) The Club passengers can be allowed to disembark but you should liaise with the SCCM during the flight who will liaise with the ADM/Ground representative to establish the disembarkation procedure for the remaining passengers.
c) The passengers can be allowed to disembark if the ground personnel monitor the extension of the nose oleo. Disembarking must be suspended if the oleo extends more than 8cms from its initial position.
d) None of the above.

Reference:

7

You dispatch with ELAC 1 inoperative on G-EUYB in accordance with MEL 27-93-01A. During the cruise ELAC 2 fails. Which of the following statements is correct?

a) The flight control system reconfigures to alternate law. The system transfers control of the ailerons and elevators to FAC 1.
b) The flight control system reconfigures to alternate law. Active control of the ailerons is lost and control of the elevators is transferred to SEC 2.
c) The flight control system reconfigures to alternate law. Active control of the elevators is lost and control of the ailerons is transferred to SEC 3.
d) None of the above.

You dispatch with ELAC 1 inoperative on G-EUYB in accordance with MEL 27-93-01A. During the cruise ELAC 2 fails. Which of the following statements is correct?

a) The flight control system reconfigures to alternate law. The system transfers control of the ailerons and elevators to FAC 1.
b) The flight control system reconfigures to alternate law. Active control of the ailerons is lost and control of the elevators is transferred to SEC 2.
c) The flight control system reconfigures to alternate law. Active control of the elevators is lost and control of the ailerons is transferred to SEC 3.
d) None of the above.

Reference:

8

Before or during the FMGS Critical Data Entry,

a) Both pilots must together check the CARD performance or the manual performance data for the correct information prior to entering the data in the MCDU PERF TAKE-OFF page.
b) Pilots must check the CARD performance data against the ATIS and digital clearance for the correct information prior to entering the data in the MCDU PERF TAKE-OFF page.
c) Both pilots must independently check the CARD performance or the manual performance data for the correct information prior to entering the data in the MCDU PERF TAKE-OFF page.
d) None of the above.

Before or during the FMGS Critical Data Entry,

a) Both pilots must together check the CARD performance or the manual performance data for the correct information prior to entering the data in the MCDU PERF TAKE-OFF page.
b) Pilots must check the CARD performance data against the ATIS and digital clearance for the correct information prior to entering the data in the MCDU PERF TAKE-OFF page.
c) Both pilots must independently check the CARD performance or the manual performance data for the correct information prior to entering the data in the MCDU PERF TAKE-OFF page.
d) None of the above.

Reference:

9

When using the BAW HOT iPad app to calculate your holdover time:

a) Mobile data can only be used preflight as ‘airplane mode’ must be enabled before and during flight.
b) Mobile data can be used during taxi-out, by PM only, to support dynamic holdover calculation. It should be restricted to periods of low workload and ‘airplane mode’ must be enabled before take-off.
c) Mobile data can be used to support dynamic holdover calculation. It can only be used when the a/c park brake is set and ‘airplane mode’ must be enabled before take-off.
d) None of the above.

When using the BAW HOT iPad app to calculate your holdover time:

a) Mobile data can only be used preflight as ‘airplane mode’ must be enabled before and during flight.
b) Mobile data can be used during taxi-out, by PM only, to support dynamic holdover calculation. It should be restricted to periods of low workload and ‘airplane mode’ must be enabled before take-off.
c) Mobile data can be used to support dynamic holdover calculation. It can only be used when the a/c park brake is set and ‘airplane mode’ must be enabled before take-off.
d) None of the above.

Reference:

10

Departing CAI in G-MEDF on a calm, clear summer night (OAT 35°C) a significant temperature inversion is forecast on the ATIS. When calculating the takeoff performance you should

a) Request Flap 3 figures (code 32) to allow for the potential speed loss on departure.
b) Use TOGA thrust (code 56) to account for the loss of performance expected on departure.
c) Add 3°C to the reported tower temperature prior to calculating the TOPL and applicable flexible thrust.
d) None of the above

Departing CAI in G-MEDF on a calm, clear summer night (OAT 35°C) a significant temperature inversion is forecast on the ATIS. When calculating the takeoff performance you should

a) Request Flap 3 figures (code 32) to allow for the potential speed loss on departure.
b) Use TOGA thrust (code 56) to account for the loss of performance expected on departure.
c) Add 3°C to the reported tower temperature prior to calculating the TOPL and applicable flexible thrust.
d) None of the above

Reference:

11

Which of the following is correct when using CPDLC?

a) It is not necessary to check in with the next ATC frequency via voice if you have successfully sent the “WILCO” message to the transfer request and closed the message.
b) Voice remains the primary means of communication. You must continue to listen to the applicable ATC frequency when using CPDLC.
c) You must tell ATC on each frequency transfer that you are CPDLC equipped.
d) None of the above.

Which of the following is correct when using CPDLC?

a) It is not necessary to check in with the next ATC frequency via voice if you have successfully sent the “WILCO” message to the transfer request and closed the message.
b) Voice remains the primary means of communication. You must continue to listen to the applicable ATC frequency when using CPDLC.
c) You must tell ATC on each frequency transfer that you are CPDLC equipped.
d) None of the above.

Reference:

12

You are flying an RNAV approach to LHBP 13L, and ATC clear you direct to NARUT.

a) You cannot accept a direct routing to NARUT as you need to be established on the final approach track at least 2nm before the IAF.
b) You can accept a direct routing to NARUT but you need to ensure you are established on the final approach track at least 2nm before the FAF.
c) You cannot accept a direct routing to NARUT as you have identified NARUT as the Final Descent Point, FDP, in the FMGC and you need to be established on the final approach track at least 2nm before the FDP.
d) None of the above.

You are flying an RNAV approach to LHBP 13L, and ATC clear you direct to NARUT.

a) You cannot accept a direct routing to NARUT as you need to be established on the final approach track at least 2nm before the IAF.
b) You can accept a direct routing to NARUT but you need to ensure you are established on the final approach track at least 2nm before the FAF.
c) You cannot accept a direct routing to NARUT as you have identified NARUT as the Final Descent Point, FDP, in the FMGC and you need to be established on the final approach track at least 2nm before the FDP.
d) None of the above.

Reference:

13

How do you execute a Soft Go-around in a Neo A320?

a) PF selects TOGA to engage SRS GA mode, then selects FLX/MCT gate. FMAs should read MAN GA SOFT, SRS, NAV. Vertical speed target in SRS is approximately 2,000fpm.
b) PF selects TOGA then selects FLX/MCT gate to engage SOFT GA mode. FMAs should read MAN GA SOFT, V/S +2000, NAV.
c) PF selects TOGA then CLB gate to engage SOFT GA mode. FMAs should read MAN GA SOFT, SRS, NAV. Vertical speed target is 2,000fpm.
d) None of the above.

How do you execute a Soft Go-around in a Neo A320?

a) PF selects TOGA to engage SRS GA mode, then selects FLX/MCT gate. FMAs should read MAN GA SOFT, SRS, NAV. Vertical speed target in SRS is approximately 2,000fpm.
b) PF selects TOGA then selects FLX/MCT gate to engage SOFT GA mode. FMAs should read MAN GA SOFT, V/S +2000, NAV.
c) PF selects TOGA then CLB gate to engage SOFT GA mode. FMAs should read MAN GA SOFT, SRS, NAV. Vertical speed target is 2,000fpm.
d) None of the above.

Reference:

14

During the cruise in G-NEOR, your colleague notices that a CORE ICE PROT indication is displayed on the ENG SD page. What are the implications of this?

a) The engines have detected ice crystal icing. Consider descent to warmer air and ensure that the engine anti-ice system is switched on.
b) The engine core ice protection system has failed. Check the engine parameters and if icing is suspected then reduce the thrust on one engine at a time to idle then increase to N1 > 70%.
c) The Variable Bypass Valves (VBVs) are being used to provide hot air to the engine cores to prevent ice crystal formation. No flight crew action is required.
d) None of the above.

During the cruise in G-NEOR, your colleague notices that a CORE ICE PROT indication is displayed on the ENG SD page. What are the implications of this?

a) The engines have detected ice crystal icing. Consider descent to warmer air and ensure that the engine anti-ice system is switched on.
b) The engine core ice protection system has failed. Check the engine parameters and if icing is suspected then reduce the thrust on one engine at a time to idle then increase to N1 > 70%.
c) The Variable Bypass Valves (VBVs) are being used to provide hot air to the engine cores to prevent ice crystal formation. No flight crew action is required.
d) None of the above.

Reference:

15

Pilots observing a drone should:

a) Take no action.
b) Report to ATC who will ensure the police are informed.
c) Report it to ATC, file an ASR (MOR) & request that the police are informed immediately.
d) None of the above.

Pilots observing a drone should:

a) Take no action.
b) Report to ATC who will ensure the police are informed.
c) Report it to ATC, file an ASR (MOR) & request that the police are informed immediately.
d) None of the above.

Reference:

16

When flying a DIVAM3B Arrival into Helsinki (for an ILS 04L), ATC clear you to “Descend Via the Arrival to Altitude 3000’ QNH 1020”, when should PF initiate the altimeter change from STD to QNH?

a) Straight away as the clearance was to an altitude.
b) After DIVAM
c) After PEXEN
d) None of the above.

When flying a DIVAM3B Arrival into Helsinki (for an ILS 04L), ATC clear you to “Descend Via the Arrival to Altitude 3000’ QNH 1020”, when should PF initiate the altimeter change from STD to QNH?

a) Straight away as the clearance was to an altitude.
b) After DIVAM
c) After PEXEN
d) None of the above.

Reference:

17

You are flying a fully serviceable G-NEOT to a showery CFU and the following arrival ATIS is given: Runway in use 34, surface wind 160/5, Wet Wet Wet, 8km Vis, BKN025 CB, RESHRA, 20/13, Q1000. Estimated Landing Weight is 72,000kg. You decide to use MED Autobrake, Flap Full. Which statement is true?

a) Stop margin with safety factor included is 310m. Reverse idle is appropriate.
b) Stop margin with safety factor included is 310m. Max reverse should be selected.
c) Flap Full Low autobrake is also appropriate where Max reverse should be selected.
d) None of the above.

You are flying a fully serviceable G-NEOT to a showery CFU and the following arrival ATIS is given: Runway in use 34, surface wind 160/5, Wet Wet Wet, 8km Vis, BKN025 CB, RESHRA, 20/13, Q1000. Estimated Landing Weight is 72,000kg. You decide to use MED Autobrake, Flap Full. Which statement is true?

a) Stop margin with safety factor included is 310m. Reverse idle is appropriate.
b) Stop margin with safety factor included is 310m. Max reverse should be selected.
c) Flap Full Low autobrake is also appropriate where Max reverse should be selected.
d) None of the above.

Reference:

18

During boarding of a very busy flight, the ground team identify some hand luggage to go into the hold. Which of the following items must not be in the bags that go into the hold but are instead permitted to be carried on board by the passenger?

a) Matches, small cigarette lighters, spare Lithium batteries (power packs) for mobiles/tablets, e-cigarettes.
b) Matches, PEDs containing non-spillable batteries less than 12V, oxygen cylinders required for medical use.
c) Small cigarette lighters, PEDs containing non-spillable batteries less than 12V, Hair curlers containing hydrocarbon gas
d) None of the above.

During boarding of a very busy flight, the ground team identify some hand luggage to go into the hold. Which of the following items must not be in the bags that go into the hold but are instead permitted to be carried on board by the passenger?

a) Matches, small cigarette lighters, spare Lithium batteries (power packs) for mobiles/tablets, e-cigarettes.
b) Matches, PEDs containing non-spillable batteries less than 12V, oxygen cylinders required for medical use.
c) Small cigarette lighters, PEDs containing non-spillable batteries less than 12V, Hair curlers containing hydrocarbon gas
d) None of the above.

Reference:

19

Departing ESSA (Stockholm) on GEUPM the runway is contaminated with 5mm dry snow and braking action Medium. What is the maximum crosswind limit for takeoff?

a) 38kts
b) 29kts
c) 25kts
d) None of the above.

Departing ESSA (Stockholm) on GEUPM the runway is contaminated with 5mm dry snow and braking action Medium. What is the maximum crosswind limit for takeoff?

a) 38kts
b) 29kts
c) 25kts
d) None of the above.

Reference:

20

You are in the cruise preparing your Lido charts for the descent brief and you notice smoke coming from your iPad battery. What should you do?

a) Action the ‘Smoke/Fire from Lithium Battery’ QRH checklist. If necessary, transfer control to the pilot opposite the iPad, Contact Cabin Crew and request initiation of “Storage after Li Battery fire” procedure. If no flames, transfer iPad to the Cabin, or if unable pour water or non-alcoholic liquid onto device.
b) PF calls for the ‘Smoke, Fire, Fumes’ QRH checklist. PM completes the immediate actions and suspects electrical source so considers setting EEC.
c) PF initiates a diversion and calls for the ‘Smoke/Fire from Lithium Battery’ QRH checklist. The pilot closest to the iPad dons the crew oxygen mask. Request a member of the Cabin Crew removes the iPad immediately if flames observed.
d) None of the above.

You are in the cruise preparing your Lido charts for the descent brief and you notice smoke coming from your iPad battery. What should you do?

a) Action the ‘Smoke/Fire from Lithium Battery’ QRH checklist. If necessary, transfer control to the pilot opposite the iPad, Contact Cabin Crew and request initiation of “Storage after Li Battery fire” procedure. If no flames, transfer iPad to the Cabin, or if unable pour water or non-alcoholic liquid onto device.
b) PF calls for the ‘Smoke, Fire, Fumes’ QRH checklist. PM completes the immediate actions and suspects electrical source so considers setting EEC.
c) PF initiates a diversion and calls for the ‘Smoke/Fire from Lithium Battery’ QRH checklist. The pilot closest to the iPad dons the crew oxygen mask. Request a member of the Cabin Crew removes the iPad immediately if flames observed.
d) None of the above.

Reference:

21

When can the “speed” call be used to continue the approach below 1000ft auto-callout?

a) Only in circumstances of rapid wind changes, turbulence or adherence to any ATC speed requirements AND the speed reducing towards the target approach speed. If not stable at the target approach speed before the 500ft auto-callout then a go-around must be flown.
b) Only in circumstances of rapid wind changes, turbulence or adherence to appropriate ATC speed requirements AND the speed is close to the target approach speed and reducing. If not stable at the target approach speed before the 500ft auto-callout then a go-around must be flown.
c) Only in circumstances of rapid wind changes, turbulence or adherence to appropriate ATC speed requirements or the speed is close to the target approach speed and reducing. If not stable at the target approach speed before the 500ft auto-callout then a go-around must be flown.
d) None of the above.

When can the “speed” call be used to continue the approach below 1000ft auto-callout?

a) Only in circumstances of rapid wind changes, turbulence or adherence to any ATC speed requirements AND the speed reducing towards the target approach speed. If not stable at the target approach speed before the 500ft auto-callout then a go-around must be flown.
b) Only in circumstances of rapid wind changes, turbulence or adherence to appropriate ATC speed requirements AND the speed is close to the target approach speed and reducing. If not stable at the target approach speed before the 500ft auto-callout then a go-around must be flown.
c) Only in circumstances of rapid wind changes, turbulence or adherence to appropriate ATC speed requirements or the speed is close to the target approach speed and reducing. If not stable at the target approach speed before the 500ft auto-callout then a go-around must be flown.
d) None of the above.

Reference:

22

You are flying G-EUPB to MAD and it has spoiler pairs 1 and 2 locked out (MEL 27-64-04A). Which statement is correct with regards to the Dispatch Landing Weight Check?

a) You need to refer to the FCOM PER-LDG-DIS-RLD to establish the required landing distance to which the MEL correction of 1.15 is applied.
b) You do not need to carry out a dispatch landing weight check as the landing distance is greater than 2000m.
c) You need to refer to the QRH IFLD to establish the required landing distance which the MEL correction of 1.10 is applied.
d) None of the above.

You are flying G-EUPB to MAD and it has spoiler pairs 1 and 2 locked out (MEL 27-64-04A). Which statement is correct with regards to the Dispatch Landing Weight Check?

a) You need to refer to the FCOM PER-LDG-DIS-RLD to establish the required landing distance to which the MEL correction of 1.15 is applied.
b) You do not need to carry out a dispatch landing weight check as the landing distance is greater than 2000m.
c) You need to refer to the QRH IFLD to establish the required landing distance which the MEL correction of 1.10 is applied.
d) None of the above.

Reference:

23

After landing in 32 degrees heat in G-EUYC you decide to leave the slats in Config 1+F to avoid overheating around the bleed ducts in the wings. After parking and shutdown there is no sign of the next crew so you decide to secure the plane. You should:

a) Retract the flaps and slats using the procedure in the FCOM before carrying out the secure procedure to avoid damage to the RTLU mechanical stop.
b) Leave at Config 1+F and carry out the secure checks to avoid overheating the ducts during the turnaround.
c) Leave the flaps but do not carry out the secure checks as you expect the next crew imminently.
d) None of the above.

After landing in 32 degrees heat in G-EUYC you decide to leave the slats in Config 1+F to avoid overheating around the bleed ducts in the wings. After parking and shutdown there is no sign of the next crew so you decide to secure the plane. You should:

a) Retract the flaps and slats using the procedure in the FCOM before carrying out the secure procedure to avoid damage to the RTLU mechanical stop.
b) Leave at Config 1+F and carry out the secure checks to avoid overheating the ducts during the turnaround.
c) Leave the flaps but do not carry out the secure checks as you expect the next crew imminently.
d) None of the above.

Reference:

24

You are preparing to fly the RNAV app to RW28 at ZRH. The ATIS indicates an OAT of -20degC. How would you proceed?

a) Fly the approach in NAV/FPA to LNAV minima as the OAT is

You are preparing to fly the RNAV app to RW28 at ZRH. The ATIS indicates an OAT of -20degC. How would you proceed?

a) Fly the approach in NAV/FPA to LNAV minima as the OAT is

25

You are preparing for a circling approach into Genoa (LIMJ). You expect to fly the ILS-Z-28 to circle to RWY10 and decide to use the RNP Circling coding in the FMGC and FINAL APP. How should you break off from the ILS into the Circling pattern?

a) Level off at the latest 1360’ Baro. If not visual, continue level and Go-Around at MAPt if still not visual. Or once visual requirements for circling satisfied, pull HDG, turn left towards MJ20C, Activate SEC FPLN, Direct to MJ20C. Deselect LS pb’s. Prior to FDP: Arm APPR. Look for Blue down arrow.
b) Level off at the latest 1360’ Baro. Pull HDG, turn left towards MJ20C, Activate SEC FPLN, Direct to MJ20C. Deselect LS pb’s. Prior to FDP: Arm APPR. Look for Blue down arrow.
c) Level off at the latest 1360’ Baro. If not visual, continue level and Go-Around at MAPt if still not visual. Or once visual requirements for circling satisfied, pull HDG, Direct MJ20C, Activate SEC FPLN. Deselect LS pb’s. Prior to FDP: Arm APPR. Look for Blue down arrow.
d) None of the above.

You are preparing for a circling approach into Genoa (LIMJ). You expect to fly the ILS-Z-28 to circle to RWY10 and decide to use the RNP Circling coding in the FMGC and FINAL APP. How should you break off from the ILS into the Circling pattern?

a) Level off at the latest 1360’ Baro. If not visual, continue level and Go-Around at MAPt if still not visual. Or once visual requirements for circling satisfied, pull HDG, turn left towards MJ20C, Activate SEC FPLN, Direct to MJ20C. Deselect LS pb’s. Prior to FDP: Arm APPR. Look for Blue down arrow.
b) Level off at the latest 1360’ Baro. Pull HDG, turn left towards MJ20C, Activate SEC FPLN, Direct to MJ20C. Deselect LS pb’s. Prior to FDP: Arm APPR. Look for Blue down arrow.
c) Level off at the latest 1360’ Baro. If not visual, continue level and Go-Around at MAPt if still not visual. Or once visual requirements for circling satisfied, pull HDG, Direct MJ20C, Activate SEC FPLN. Deselect LS pb’s. Prior to FDP: Arm APPR. Look for Blue down arrow.
d) None of the above.

Reference:

26

What are the memory items for “Loss of Braking”?

a) Max Reverse, brake pedals release, PF orders PM to turn A/Skid OFF, A/skid & NWS OFF, brake pedals press, max brake pressure 1000psi, If still no braking, use Park Brake.
b) Release brake pedals, Max reverse, A/skid & NWS OFF, brake pedals press, max brake pressure 1000psi, If still no braking, use Park Brake.
c) Max Reverse, release brake pedals, FO turns A/skid & NWS OFF, brake pedals press, max brake pressure 1000psi, If still no braking, use Park Brake.
d) None of the above.

What are the memory items for “Loss of Braking”?

a) Max Reverse, brake pedals release, PF orders PM to turn A/Skid OFF, A/skid & NWS OFF, brake pedals press, max brake pressure 1000psi, If still no braking, use Park Brake.
b) Release brake pedals, Max reverse, A/skid & NWS OFF, brake pedals press, max brake pressure 1000psi, If still no braking, use Park Brake.
c) Max Reverse, release brake pedals, FO turns A/skid & NWS OFF, brake pedals press, max brake pressure 1000psi, If still no braking, use Park Brake.
d) None of the above.

Reference:

27

Which of the following is correct when considering ATC Radar Control?

a) When under Radar Control, the ATC Radar Controller assumes responsibility for Terrain Clearance and the minimum clearance provided is 1000 ft within +/- 5 nm.
b) A radar clearance may be accepted provided that the Commander has checked the initial identification & continues to verify position as being within the area covered by the relevant MSA as frequently as necessary. The Commander retains responsibility for obstacle and terrain clearance.
c) Terrain clearance is the responsibility of the Commander, however this may be deferred to the Radar Controller when descending below MSA under Radar Control.
d) None of the above.

Which of the following is correct when considering ATC Radar Control?

a) When under Radar Control, the ATC Radar Controller assumes responsibility for Terrain Clearance and the minimum clearance provided is 1000 ft within +/- 5 nm.
b) A radar clearance may be accepted provided that the Commander has checked the initial identification & continues to verify position as being within the area covered by the relevant MSA as frequently as necessary. The Commander retains responsibility for obstacle and terrain clearance.
c) Terrain clearance is the responsibility of the Commander, however this may be deferred to the Radar Controller when descending below MSA under Radar Control.
d) None of the above.

Reference:

28

Flying G-TTNF on a windy day inbound to GCTS RW25 with windshear reported at 800ft. You consider the following memory actions for a Windshear go-around in the approach briefing:

a) THR Levers TOGA, AP keep ON, SRS orders follow. SRS remains available until clear of windshear and approaching the go-around altitude when the FMA reverts to ALT*.
b) THR Levers TOGA, AP keep ON, SRS orders follow. SRS guidance is only available below ACC ALT (1000ft) and will revert to OP CLB above ACC ALT which may not give appropriate guidance in windshear conditions.
c) THR levers TOGA, AP OFF, Pitch to 17.5 degrees. The FD’s can remain ON until clear of windshear even when not following the commands to ensure that SRS remains available until reaching the go-around altitude.
d) None of the above.

Flying G-TTNF on a windy day inbound to GCTS RW25 with windshear reported at 800ft. You consider the following memory actions for a Windshear go-around in the approach briefing:

a) THR Levers TOGA, AP keep ON, SRS orders follow. SRS remains available until clear of windshear and approaching the go-around altitude when the FMA reverts to ALT*.
b) THR Levers TOGA, AP keep ON, SRS orders follow. SRS guidance is only available below ACC ALT (1000ft) and will revert to OP CLB above ACC ALT which may not give appropriate guidance in windshear conditions.
c) THR levers TOGA, AP OFF, Pitch to 17.5 degrees. The FD’s can remain ON until clear of windshear even when not following the commands to ensure that SRS remains available until reaching the go-around altitude.
d) None of the above.

Reference:

29

You are at 1500ft on final approach ILS27R at LHR in 320 G-EUUH, when you receive a TCAS RA “CLIMB”. Do you -

a) Announce “TCAS, I have control”, and fly the TCAS manoeuvre.
b) Perform a standard go around manoeuvre.
c) Disregard as you are on final approach and visual with the runway, under radar control.
d) None of the above

You are at 1500ft on final approach ILS27R at LHR in 320 G-EUUH, when you receive a TCAS RA “CLIMB”. Do you -

a) Announce “TCAS, I have control”, and fly the TCAS manoeuvre.
b) Perform a standard go around manoeuvre.
c) Disregard as you are on final approach and visual with the runway, under radar control.
d) None of the above

Reference:

30

In the descent, when a clearance is received which would result in flight below the relevant MSA;

a) PF will call “Clearance below MSA”. PM responds with the relevant MSA figure and justification to continue the flight below MSA. The crew must continue to maintain awareness of the controlling MSA when operating below it and if required re-confirm their justification to continue.
b) PM will call “Clearance below MSA” with justification to continue the flight below MSA. Once this is done, no further justification is required.
c) PF will announce “Clearance below MSA” and, if PM is confident the aircraft will remain clear of terrain and obstacles will announce “checked”. An ATC clearance should guarantee terrain or obstacle clearance.
d) None of the above.

In the descent, when a clearance is received which would result in flight below the relevant MSA;

a) PF will call “Clearance below MSA”. PM responds with the relevant MSA figure and justification to continue the flight below MSA. The crew must continue to maintain awareness of the controlling MSA when operating below it and if required re-confirm their justification to continue.
b) PM will call “Clearance below MSA” with justification to continue the flight below MSA. Once this is done, no further justification is required.
c) PF will announce “Clearance below MSA” and, if PM is confident the aircraft will remain clear of terrain and obstacles will announce “checked”. An ATC clearance should guarantee terrain or obstacle clearance.
d) None of the above.

Reference: