Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

From Flashcardlet > EMT Vocabulary 22-30 > Flashcards

EMT Vocabulary 22-30 Flashcards

1
Q

Arterial air embolism (22)

A

Air bubbles in the arterial blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Blunt trauma

A

An impact on the body by objects that cause injury without penetrating soft tissues or internal organs and cavities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Cavitation

A

A phenomenon in which speed causes a bullet to generate pressure waves, which cause damage distant from the bullet’s path

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Coup-contrecoup brain injury

A

A brain injury that occurs when force is applied to the head and energy transmission though the brain tissue causes injury on the opposite side of the original impact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Deceleration

A

The slowing of an object

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Drag

A

Resistance that slows a projectile, such as air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Glasgow Coma Scale score

A

An evaluation tool used to determine level of consciousness, which evaluates and assigns point values for eye opening, verbal response, and motor response, which are then totaled, effective in helping predict patient outcomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Index of suspicion

A

Awareness that unseen life threatening injuries may exist when determining the mechanism of injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Kinetic energy

A

The energy of a moving object

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Mechanism of injury

A

The forces of energy transmission applied to the body that cause injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Medical emergencies

A

Emergencies that require EMS attention because of illnesses or conditions not caused by an outside force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Multisystem trauma

A

Trauma that affects more than one body system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Penetrating trauma

A

Injury caused by objects, such as knives and bullets, that pierce the surface of the body and damage internal tissues and organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Potential energy

A

The product of mass, gravity, and height, which is converted into kinetic energy and results in injury, such as from a fall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Projectile

A

Any object propelled by force, such as a bullet by a weapon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Pulmonary blast injuries

A

Pulmonary trauma resulting from short range exposure to the detonation of explosives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Revised Trauma Score

A

A scoring system used for patients with head trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Trajectory

A

The path a projectile takes once it is propelled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Trauma emergencies

A

Emergencies that are the result of physical forces applied to a patient’s body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Trauma score

A

A score that relates to the likelihood of patient survival with the exception of a severe head injury. It calculates a number from 1-16, with 16 being the best possible score. It takes into account the GCS score, respiratory rate, respiratory expansion, systolic blood pressure, and capillary refill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Tympanic membrane

A

The eardrum; a thin, semitransparent membrane in the middle ear that transmits sound vibrations to the internal ear by means of auditory ossicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Work

A

The product of force times distance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Aorta (23)

A

The main artery that receives blood from the left ventricle and delivers it to all the other arteries that carry blood to the tissues of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Arterioles

A

The smallest branches of arteries leading to the vast network of capillaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Artery

A

A blood vessel, consisting of three layers of tissue and smooth muscle that carries blood away from the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Capillaries

A

The small blood vessels that connect arterioles and venules; various substances pass through capillary walls, into and out of the interstitial fluid, and then on to the cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Coagulation

A

The formation of clots to plug openings in injured blood vessels and stop blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Contusion

A

A bruise, or ecchymosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Ecchymosis

A

Discoloration of the skin associated with a closed wound; bruising

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Epistaxis

A

Nosebleed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Hematemesis

A

Vomited blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Hematoma

A

A mass of blood in the soft tissues beneath the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Hemophilia

A

A congenital condition in which the patient lacks one of more of the blood’s normal clotting factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Hemoptysis

A

Coughing up blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Hemorrhage

A

Bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Hypoperfusion

A

A condition that occurs when the level of tissue perfusion decreases below that needed to maintain normal cellular functions; aka shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Hypovolemic shock

A

A condition in which low blood volume, due to massive internal or external bleeding or extensive loss o body water, results in inadequate perfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Melena

A

Black, foul smelling, tarry stool containing digested blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Perfusion

A

Circulation of blood within an organ or tissue in adequate amounts to meet the current needs of the cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Pressure point

A

A point where a blood vessel lies near a bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Shock

A

A condition in which the circulatory system fails to provide enough circulation so that every body part can perform its function; aka hypoperfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Tourniquet

A

The bleeding control method used when a wound continues to bleed despite the use of direct pressure and elevation; useful if a patient is bleeding severely from a partial or complete amputation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Vasoconstriction

A

Narrowing of a blood vessel, such as with hypoperfusion or cold extremities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Veins

A

The blood vessels that carry blood from the tissues to the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Venules

A

Very small, thin walled vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Abrasion (24)

A

Loss or damage of the superficial layer of skin as a result of a body part rubbing or scraping across a rough or hard surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Amputation

A

An injury in which part of the body is completely severed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Avulsion

A

An injury in which soft tissue is torn completely loose or is hanging as a flap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Burns

A

Injuries in which soft tissue damage occurs as a result from thermal heat, frictional heat, toxic chemicals, electricity, or nuclear radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Closed injuries

A

Injuries in which damage occurs beneath the skin or mucous membrane but the surface remains intact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Compartment syndrome

A

Swelling in a confined space that produces dangerous pressure; may cut off blood flow or damage sensitive tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Contact burn

A

A burn caused by direct contact with a hot object

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Contamination

A

The presence of infective organisms or foreign bodies such as dirt, gravel, or metal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Contusion

A

A bruise from an injury that causes bleeding beneath the skin without breaking the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Crushing injury

A

An injury that occurs when a great amount of force is applied to the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Crush syndrome

A

Significant metabolic derangement that develops when crushed extremities or body parts remain trapped for prolonged periods. This can lead to renal failure and death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Dermis

A

The inner layer of the skin, containing hair follicles, sweat glands, nerve endings, and blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Ecchymosis

A

Discoloration associated with a closed wound; signifies bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Epidermis

A

The outer layer of the skin that acts as a watertight protective covering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Evisceration

A

The displacement of organs outside the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Fascia

A

The fiber-like connective tissue that covers arteries, veins, tendons, and ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Flame burn

A

A burn caused by an open flame

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Flash burn

A

A burn caused by exposure to very intense heat, such as in an explosion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Full thickness (third degree) burn

A

Burns that affect all skin layers and may affect the subcutaneous layers, muscle, bone, and internal organs, leaving the area dry, leathery, and white, dark brown, or charred

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Hematoma

A

Blood collected within the body’s tissues or in a body cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Incision

A

A sharp, smooth cut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Laceration

A

A jagged, open wound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Mucous membranes

A

The linings of body cavities and passages that are in direct contact with the outside environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Occlusive dressings

A

Dressings made of petrolatum gauze, aluminum foil, or plastic that prevents air and liquids from entering or exiting a wound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Open injuries

A

Injuries in which there is a break in the surface of the skin or the mucous membrane, exposing deeper tissue to potential contamination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Partial thickness (second degree) burns

A

Burns affecting the epidermis and some portion of the dermis but not the subcutaneous tissue, characterized by blisters and skin that is white to red, moist, and mottled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Penetrating wound

A

An injury resulting from a sharp, pointed object

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Rabid

A

Describes and animal that is infected with rabies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Rule of nines

A

A system that assigns percentages to sections of the body, allowing calculation of the amount of skin surface involved in the burn area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Scald burn

A

A burn caused by hot liquids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Steam burn

A

A burn caused by exposure to hot steam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Superficial (first degree) burns

A

Burns affecting only the epidermis, characterized by skin that is red but not blistered or actually burned through

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Thermal burns

A

Burns caused by heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Air embolism (25)

A

The presence of air in the veins, which can lead to cardiac arrest if it enters the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Anisocoria

A

Naturally occurring uneven pupil size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Blowout fracture

A

A fracture of the orbit or of the bones that support the floor of the orbit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Conjunctiva

A

The delicate membrane that lines the eyelids and covers the exposed surface of the eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Conjunctivitis

A

Inflammation of the conjunctiva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Cornea

A

THe transparent tissue layer in front of the pupil and iris of the eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Eustachian tube

A

A branch of the internal auditory canal that connects the middle ear to the oropharynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

External auditory canal

A

The ear canal; leads to the tympanic membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Globe

A

The eyeball

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Iris

A

The muscle and surrounding tissue behind the cornea that dilate and constrict the pupil, regulating the amount of light that enters the eye; pigment in this tissue gives the eye its color

89
Q

Lacrimal glands

A

The glands that produce fluids to keep the eye moist; also called tear glands

90
Q

Lens

A

The transparent part of the eye through which images are focused on the retina

91
Q

Mastoid process

A

The prominent bony mass at the base of the skull about 1” posterior to the external opening of the ear

92
Q

Optic nerve

A

A cranial nerve that transmits visual information to the brain

93
Q

Pinna

A

The external, visible part of the ear

94
Q

Pupil

A

The circular opening in the middle of the iris that admits light to the back of the eye

95
Q

Retina

A

The light sensitive area of the eye where images are projected; a layer of cells at the back of the eye that changes the light image into electrical impulses, which are carried by the optic nerve to the brain

96
Q

Retinal detachment

A

Separation of the retina from its attachments at the back of the eye

97
Q

Sclera

A

The tough, fibrous, white portion of the eye that protects the more delicate inner structures

98
Q

Sternocleidomastoid muscles

A

The muscles on either side of the neck that allow movement of the head

99
Q

Subcutaneous emphysema

A

A characteristic crackling sensation felt on palpation of the skin, caused by the presence of air in soft tissues

100
Q

Temporomandibular joint

A

The joint formed where the mandible and cranium meet, just in front of the ear

101
Q

Tragus

A

The small, rounded, fleshy bulge that lies immediately anterior to the ear canal

102
Q

Turbinates

A

Layers of bone within the nasal cavity

103
Q

Tympanic membrane

A

The ear, which lies between the external and middle ear

104
Q

Anterograde (posttraumatic) amnesia (26)

A

Inability to remember events after an injury

105
Q

Basilar skull fractures

A

Usually occur following diffuse impact to the head (such as falls, MVCs), generally result from extension of a linear fracture to the base of the skull and can be difficult to diagnose with a radiograph

106
Q

Battle’s sign

A

Bruising behind an ear over the mastoid process that may indicate a skull fracture

107
Q

Cerebral edema

A

Swelling of the brain

108
Q

Closed head injury

A

Injury in which the brain has been injured but the skin has not been broken and there is no obvious bleeding

109
Q

Concussion

A

A temporary loss of alteration of part of all of the brain’s abilities to function without actual physical damage to the brain

110
Q

Connecting nerves

A

Nerves in the spinal cord that connect the motor and sensory nerves

111
Q

Coup-contrecoup injury

A

Dual impacting of the brain into the skull; coup injury occurs at the point of impact; contrecoup injury occurs on the opposite side of impact, as the brain rebounds

112
Q

Distraction

A

The action of pulling the spine along its length

113
Q

Epidural hematoma

A

An accumulation of blood between the skull and the dura mater

114
Q

Eyes-forward position

A

A head position in which the patient’s eyes are looking straight ahead and the head and torso are in line

115
Q

Four-person log roll

A

The recommended procedure for moving a patient with a suspected spinal injury from the ground to a long backboard

116
Q

Intervertebral disk

A

The cushion that lies between two vertebrae

117
Q

Intracerebral hematoma

A

Bleeding within the brain tissue (parenchyma) itself; also referred to as an intraparenchymal hematoma

118
Q

Involuntary activities

A

Actions of the body that are not under a person’s conscious control

119
Q

Intracranial pressure (ICP)

A

The pressure within the cranial vault

120
Q

Linear skull fractures

A

Account for 80% of skull fractures; also referred to as non-displaced skull fractures; commonly occur in the temporal parietal region of the skull; not associated with deformities to the skull

121
Q

Meninges

A

Three distinct layers of tissue that surround and protect the brain and the spinal cord within the skull and the spinal cord

122
Q

Open head injury

A

Injury to the head often caused by a penetrating object in which there may be bleeding and exposed brain tissue

123
Q

Primary (direct) injury

A

An injury to the brain and its associated structures that is a direct result of impact to the head

124
Q

Raccoon eyes

A

Bruising under the eyes that may indicate a skull fracture

125
Q

Retrograde amnesia

A

The inability to remember events leading up to a head injury

126
Q

Secondary (indirect) injury

A

The “after effects” of the primary injury; includes abnormal processes such as cerebral edema, increased intracrainal pressure, cerebral ischemia and hypoxia, and infection; onset is often delated following the primary brain injury

127
Q

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

Bleeding into the subarachnoid space, where the cerebrospinal fluid circulates

128
Q

Subdural hematoma

A

An accumulation of blood beneath the dura mater but outside the brain

129
Q

Subluxation

A

A partial or incomplete dislocation

130
Q

Traumatic brain injury (TBI)

A

A traumatic insult to the brain capable of producing physical, intellectual, emotional, social, and vocational changes

131
Q

Voluntary activities

A

Actions that we consciously perform, in which sensory input of conscious thought determines a specific muscular activity

132
Q

Cardiac tamponade (27)

A

Compression of the heart as the result of buildup of blood or other fluid in the pericardial sac, leading to decreased cardiac output

133
Q

Closed chest injury

A

An injury to the chest in which the skin is not broken, usually caused by blunt trauma

134
Q

Commotio cordis

A

A blunt chest injury caused by a sudden, direct blow to the chest that occurs only during the critical portion of a person’s heartbeat

135
Q

Flail chest

A

A condition in which two or more ribs are fractured in two or more places or in association with a fracture of the sternum so that the segment of the chest wall is effectively detached from the rest of the thoracic cage

136
Q

Flutter valve

A

A one way valve that allows air to leave the chest cavity but not return; formed by taping three sides of an occlusive dressing to the chest all, leaving the fourth side open as a valve

137
Q

Hemopneumothorax

A

The accumulation of blood and air in the pleural space of the chest

138
Q

Hemothorax

A

A collection of blood in the pleural cavity

139
Q

Myocardial contusion

A

A bruise of the heart muscle

140
Q

Occlusive dressing

A

A dressing made of Vaseline impregnated gauze, aluminum foil, or plastic that protects a wound from air and bacteria

141
Q

Open chest injury

A

An injury to the chest in which the chest all itself is penetrated by a fractured rib or, more frequently, by an external object such as a bullet of knife

142
Q

Open pneumothorax

A

An open or penetrating chest wall wound through which air passes during inspiration and expiration, creating a sucking sound; also referred to as a checking chest wound

143
Q

Paradoxical motion

A

The motion of the portion of the chest wall that is detached in a flail chest; the motion, in during inhalation, out during exhalation, is exactly the opposite of normal chest wall motion during breathing

144
Q

Pericardium

A

The fibrous sac that surrounds the heart

145
Q

Pneumothorax

A

An accumulation of air or gas in the pleural cavity

146
Q

Pulmonary contusion

A

Injury or bruising of lung tissue that results in hemorrhage

147
Q

Simple pneumothorax

A

An pneumothorax that is free from significant physiologic changes and does not cause drastic changes in the vital signs of the patient

148
Q

Spontaneous pneumothorax

A

A pneumothorax that occurs when a weak area on the lung ruptures in the absence of major injury, allowing air to leak into the pleural space

149
Q

Sucking chest wound

A

An open or penetrating chest wound through which air passes during inspiration and expiration, creating a sucking sound

150
Q

Tachypnea

A

Rapid respirations

151
Q

Tension pneumothorax

A

An accumulation of air or gas in the pleural cavity that progressively increases pressure in the chest that interferes with cardiac function with potentially fatal results

152
Q

Traumatic asphyxia

A

A pattern of injuries seen after a severe force is applied to the chest,forcing blood from the great vessels back into the head and neck

153
Q

Closed abdominal injury (28)

A

An injury in which there is soft tissue damage inside the body but the skin remains intact

154
Q

Evisceration

A

The displacement of organs outside of the body

155
Q

Flank

A

The posterior region below the margin of the lower rib cage

156
Q

Guarding

A

Contracting the stomach muscles to minimize the pain of abdominal movement; a sign of peritonitis

157
Q

Hollow organs

A

Structures through which material pass, such as the stomach, small intestines, large intestines, ureters, and bladder

158
Q

Kehr sign

A

Left shoulder pain caused by blood in the peritoneal cavity

159
Q

Open abdominal injury

A

An injury in which there is a break in the surface of the skin or mucous membrane, exposing deeper tissue to potential contamination

160
Q

Peritoneal cavity

A

The abdominal cavity

161
Q

Solid organ

A

Solid masses of tissue where much of the chemical work of the body takes place, including the liver, spleen, pancreas, and kidneys

162
Q

Acromioclavicular (AC) joint (29)

A

A simple joint where the bony projections of the scapula and the clavicle meet at the top of the shoulder

163
Q

Articular cartilage

A

A pearly layer of specialized cartilage covering the articular surfaces (contact surfaces on the ends) on bones in synovial joints

164
Q

Calcaneus

A

The heel bone

165
Q

Closed fracture

A

A fracture in which the skin is not broken

166
Q

Compartment syndrome

A

An elevation of pressure within a closed fascial compartment, characterized by extreme pain, decreased pain sensation, pain on stretching of affected muscles, and decreased power; frequently seen in fractures below the elbow or knee in children

167
Q

Crepitus

A

A gratin g or grinding sensation or sound caused by fractured bone ends or joints rubbing together

168
Q

Dislocation

A

Disruption of a joint in which ligaments are damaged and the bone ends are completely displaced

169
Q

Displaced fracture

A

A fracture in which bone fragments are separated from one another and not in anatomic alignment

170
Q

Ecchymosis

A

Bruising or discoloration associated with bleeding within or under the skin

171
Q

Fibula

A

The outer and smaller bone of the two bones of the lower leg

172
Q

Fracture

A

A break in the continuity of a bone

173
Q

Glenoid fossa

A

The part of the scapula that joins with the humeral head to form the glenohumeral joint

174
Q

Hematuria

A

Blood in the urine

175
Q

Joint

A

The place where two bones come into contact

176
Q

Nondisplaced fracture

A

A simple crack in the bone that has not caused the bone to move from its normal anatomic position; aka hairline fracture

177
Q

Open fracture

A

Any break in a bone in which the overlying skin has been damaged

178
Q

Pelvic binders

A

Used to splint the bony pelvis to reduce hemorrhage from bone ends, venous disruption, and pain

179
Q

Point tenderness

A

Tenderness that is sharply localized at the site of teh injury, found by gently palpating along the bone with the tip of one finger

180
Q

Position of function

A

A hand position in which the wrist in slightly dorsiflexed and all finger joints are moderately flexed

181
Q

Reduce

A

Return a dislocated joint or fractured bone to its normal position

182
Q

Retreperitoneal space

A

The space between the abdominal cavity and the posterior abdominal wall, containing the kidneys, certain large vessels, and parts of the gastrointestinal tract

183
Q

Sciatic nerve

A

The major nerve to eh lower extremities; controls much of muscle function in the leg and sensation in more of the leg and foot

184
Q

SLing

A

A bandage or material that helps to support the weight of an injured upper extremity

185
Q

Splint

A

A flexible or rigid appliance used to project and maintain the position of an injured extremity

186
Q

Sprain

A

A joint injury involving damage to supporting ligaments, and sometimes partial or temporary dislocation of bone ends

187
Q

Strain

A

Stretching or tearing of a muscle; also called a muscle pull

188
Q

Subluxation

A

A partial or incomplete dislocation

189
Q

Swathe

A

A bandage that passes around the chest to secure an injured arm to the chest

190
Q

Tibia

A

The larger of the two lower leg bones responsible for supporting the major weight bearing surface of the knee and the ankle

191
Q

Tourniquet

A

The bleeding control method used when a wound continues to bleed despite the use of direct pressure and elevation; useful if a patient is bleeding severely from a partial or complete amputation

192
Q

Traction

A

Longitudinal force applied to a structure

193
Q

Zone of injury

A

The area of potentially damaged soft tissue, adjacent nerves, and blood vessels surrounding an injury to a bone or a joint

194
Q

Air embolism (30)

A

Air bubbles in the blood vessels

195
Q

Ambient temperature

A

The temperature of the surrounding environment

196
Q

Antivenin

A

A serum that counteracts the effect of venom from an animal or insect

197
Q

Bends

A

Common name for decompression sickness

198
Q

Breath holding syncope

A

Loss of consciousness caused by a decreased breathing stimulus

199
Q

Conduction

A

The loss of heat by direct contact (ex. when a body part comes into contact with a colder object)

200
Q

Convection

A

The loss of body heat caused by air movement (ex. breeze blowing across the body)

201
Q

Core temperature

A

The temperature of the central part of the body

202
Q

Decompression sickness

A

A painful condition seen in divers who ascend too quickly, in which gas, especially nitrogen, forms bubbles in blood vessels and other tissues (aka the bends)

203
Q

Diving reflex

A

Slowing of the heart rate caused by submersion in cold water

204
Q

Drowning

A

The process of experiencing respiratory impairment from submersion or immersion in liquid

205
Q

Dysbarism injuries

A

Any signs and symptoms caused by the difference between the surrounding atmospheric pressure and the total gas pressure in various tissues, fluids, and cavities of the body

206
Q

Evaporation

A

Conversion of water or another fluid from a liquid to a gas

207
Q

Frostbite

A

Damage to tissues as the result of exposure to cold; frozen body parts

208
Q

Heat cramps

A

Painful muscle spasms usually associated with vigorous activity in a hot environment

209
Q

Heat exhaustion

A

A form of heat injury in which the body loses significant amounts of fluid and electrolytes because of heavy sweating; aka heat prostration or heat collapse

210
Q

Heat stroke

A

A life threatening condition of severe hyperthermia caused by exposure to excessive natural or artificial heat, marked by warm, dry skin; severely altered mental status; and often irreversible coma

211
Q

Hymenoptera

A

A family of insects that includes bees, wasps, ants, and yellow jackets

212
Q

Hyperthermia

A

A condition in which the body core temperature rises to 101 degrees or more

213
Q

Hypothermia

A

A condition in which the body core temperature falls below 95 degrees after exposure to a cold environment

214
Q

Radiation

A

The transfer of heat to colder objects in the environment by radiant energy, for example, heat gain from a fire

215
Q

Respiration

A

The loss of body heat as warm air in the lungs is exhaled into the atmosphere and cooler air is inhaled

216
Q

Reverse triage

A

A triage process in which efforts are focused on those who are in respiratory and cardiac arrest, and different from conventional triage where such patients would be classified as deceased. Used in triaging multiple victims of a lightening strike

217
Q

SCUBA

A

A system that delivers air to the mouth and lungs at various atmospheric pressures, increasing with the depth of the dive; stands for self contained underwater breathing apparatus

218
Q

Turgor

A

The ability of the skin to resist deformation; tested by gently pinching skin on the forehead or back of the hand

From Flashcardlet (133 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions