Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

From Flashcardlet > MED SURG: Homework 1-4 > Flashcards

MED SURG: Homework 1-4 Flashcards

1
Q

The substance that decreases the surface tension oft he alveolar walls

A

surfactant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Do not administer the influenza immunization if patient is allergic to __.

A

eggs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The influenza vaccine is cultured in __ .

A

chicken embryos.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Tracheal suctioning is done during insertion/extraction of the suction tip.

A

extraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Tracheal suctioning should not last more than __.

A

10-15 seconds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Pt with COPD has been in hospital for several days. Pt complains of SOB and asks nurse to turn up O2. What is the best nursing response?

A

ASSESS pt to identify the cause of SOB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

***The COPD pt’s respiratory drive is lowering levels of PO2, turning up O2 may take away his incentive to breathe

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

AGING may alter the respiratory system by (5)

A
  1. weakened cough
  2. kyphosis
  3. decreased ciliary movement
  4. decreased body fluid
  5. muscle weakness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Physical signs of labored breathing (4)

A
  1. grunting on expiration
  2. elevating shoulders and ribs on inspiration
  3. tensing neck and shoulder muscles
  4. substernal retraction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Pt seeking antibiotic treatment for pharyngitis will only receive the desired medication if the condition is caused by __.

A

bacteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Sore throat

A

pharyngitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

__ and __ do not respond to antibiotics.

A

Protozoa and viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Reduce risk of giving a cold to another (3)

A
  1. cover mouth and nose when sneezing
  2. turn head to crook of arm
  3. wash hands frequently
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Older adult with family tendency of developing Laryngeal Cancer. Nurse should assess for

A
  1. SMOKING history
  2. ALCOHOL abuse
  3. ASBESTOS exposure
  4. SPICY FOODS
  5. HUMAN PAPILLOMAVIRUS infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The conducting airways are lined with __.

A

cilia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Filters and traps particles from entering the lungs

A

cilia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The primary site for gas exchange

A

alveoli / alveolar ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Emphysema: The drive to breathe is based on __

A

the concentration of carbon dioxide levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Emphysema: The drive to breathe may be dependent on low levels of __ in the blood.

A

oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Once the blood in the capillary network is oxygenated, it travels to the heart via the __.

A

pulmonary vein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

An insufficient amount of oxygen in the blood

A

hypoxEMIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Bluish, grayish, or purplish discoloration of the skin due to abnormal amounts of hemoglobin in the blood

A

cyanosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When the body produces an excess amount of insulin, the nurse should monitor for signs and symptoms of __.

A

hypoglycemia (low blood glucose)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Type 2 diabetes mellitus initially begins with __ __.

A

insulin resistance. (cells are not able to use the insulin properly)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Type 2 DM: As it progresses, the pancreas gradually loses the ability to ____.

A

produce adequate quantities of insulin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Risk factors of Type 2 DM (5)

A
  1. family history
  2. age
  3. obesity
  4. ethnicity
  5. history of gestational diabetes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Subcutaneous injection sites: Absorption sites (list regions from most quickly to least)

A
  1. abdomen
  2. arms
  3. thighs
  4. hips
  5. subscapular
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Type 1 Diabetes: Pts may have their glucose levels maintained with an insulin sliding scale in lieu of their regular treatment during times of (3)

A
  1. illness
  2. stress
  3. surgery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When mixing two different types of insulin in the same syringe, which type is always drawn up first?

A

regular, short acting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Mixing insulins: “RNs do it correctly!”

A

R - Draw up regular (short acting) into the syringe first

N - Draw up the NPH (intermediate acting) second

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Major goal of medical Nutrition Therapy for pts with DM

A

Maintain as near-normal a blood glucose level as possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Goals of Nutrition Therapy for pts with DM

A
  1. Maintain as near-normal level as possible
  2. Optimal serum Lipid levels
  3. Adequate Calories (reasonable weight)
  4. Prevent complications of DM
  5. Improve overall health
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Nursing Care Focus: Pts with Hypoglycemia

A
  1. Assess symptoms
  2. Check blood glucose level
  3. Administer glucose in most appropriate form
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Excess secretion of growth hormone in Adults results in __.

A

acromegaly (Hashimoto’s disease).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The production of thyroid hormone is dependent on the intake of (2).

A

protein and iodine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The gland that secretes epinephrine and norepinepherine

A

adrenal medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Aldosterone is classified as a __.

A

mineralcorticoid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The function of aldosterone

A

conserve water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Aldosterone promotes conservation of water by acting on the (1)__ to retain (2)__ in exchange for (3)__, which is excreted in the urine.

A
  1. kidneys
  2. sodium
  3. potassium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

HbA1c

A

glycosylated hemoglobin test

41
Q

HbA1c: EXCELLENT result is considered to be ___%

A

4.9% - 6.7%

42
Q

HbA1c: GOOD result is considered to be ___%

A

7.6% -8.5%

43
Q

HbA1c: FAIR result is considered to be ___%

A

9.4%-10%

44
Q

HbA1c: POOR result is considered to be ___%

A

12.1%-13%

45
Q

Before administering tests that involve contrast media, the nurse should ask about allergies to __ or __.

A

iodine

shellfish

46
Q

An overgrowth of the thyroid (“lump on throat”)

A

goiter

47
Q

Goiter: May be prevented by sufficient intake of __.

A

iodine

48
Q

Treatment for a goiter usually (1)__ the growth of the goiter, but usually does not (2)____.

A
  1. arrests
  2. diminish the size of the growth
    (unless diagnosis is made early)
49
Q

A simple goiter can develop into __.

A

cancer.

50
Q

Potassium iodide for the treatment of goiter should be (1)__ and (2)___ to avoid (3)___.

A
  1. diluted
  2. drunk through a straw.
  3. staining of teeth
51
Q

The volume of blood pumped by the ventricle with each contraction is called the __.

A

stroke volume (SV).

52
Q

SV x HR =

A

cardiac output (CO)

53
Q

The amount of blood ejected in 1 minute is the __.

A

cardiac output (CO)

54
Q

Major risk factors associated with cardiovascular disease (10)

A
  1. Age
  2. Gender
  3. Heredity
  4. Smoking
  5. Dyslipidemia
  6. High BP
  7. Physical inactivity
  8. Obesity
  9. DM
  10. Response to stress
55
Q

Distention of the neck vein when sitting may be indicative of ___.

A

right-sided heart failure.

56
Q

Abnormal accumulation of fluid within the peritoneal cavity

A

ascites

57
Q

Ventricular fibrillation (VF) frequently occurs before __ __.

A

cardiac arrest.

58
Q

VF: There is no (3)

A
  1. Cardiac output
  2. Pulse
  3. Blood pressure
59
Q

Treatment of the pt with VF requires (2).

A
  1. CPR

2. Immediate DEFIBRILLATION

60
Q

VF occurs in (4).

A
  1. cardiomyopathy
  2. hypoxemia
  3. digitalis toxicity
  4. electrolyte imbalance
61
Q

BP of 120/80. The 80 indicates the ___.

A

pressure in the relaxed ventricles.

62
Q

It is common for systolic murmurs to be present in people over the age of __.

A

80.

63
Q

Elder Care: Mumurs are usually related to (1)__ __, caused by (2)____.

A
  1. valvular dysfunction

2. thickening of the valves (esp mitral and aortic)

64
Q

Prevention of cardiovascular disease (6)… (some behaviors)

A
  1. Regular physical activity (30min)
  2. High HDL, >50 mg/dL
  3. Low LDL,
65
Q

Reduced sensitivity of the baroreceptors, along with taking a diuretic predisposes the Older Adult to __ __.

A

orthostatic hypertension.

66
Q

Because of the reduced sensitivity of the baroreceptors in the Older Adult who is also on a diuretic, the nurse instructs the pt to ____.

A

sit on the side of the bed before standing.

67
Q

Hot dogs and all other processed meats contain large amounts of __.

A

sodium.

68
Q

Foods allowed on a low-sodium diet (3)

A
  1. fresh fruits
  2. vegetables
  3. pasta
69
Q

Pt with right-sided heart failure would exhibit:

a. pallor
b. edema
c. wheezing
d. orthopnea

A

b. edema

70
Q

An unhealthy pale appearance

A

pallor

71
Q

Wheezing, orthopnea, and pallor are indicative of ___.

A

left-sided heart failure.

72
Q

Nursing Care: Pt with congestive heart failure (CHF)

A
  1. Alternate rest/activity (preserve energy)
  2. Semi-Fowler’s position (ease breathing)
  3. Small meals (less energy to chew)
73
Q

amiodarone (Cordarone) side effect

A

Hypotension with the attendant fatigue

74
Q

Modifiable risk factors for heart disease

A
  1. smoking cessation
  2. controlling diabetes
  3. exercising regularly
  4. reducing BP
  5. reduding weight
75
Q

Assessments indicative of heart failure include

A
  1. jugular distention
  2. weight gain with little intake
  3. diminished pedal pulses
  4. wearing house shoes due to swelling
76
Q

Assessment of CEREBRAL function

A
  1. LOC
  2. MENTAL status
  3. INTELLECTual function
  4. EMLTIONal status
  5. PUPILlary reaction
  6. ORAL/WRITTEN communication
77
Q

MOST important indicator of change in neurological status

A

level of consciousness (LOC)

78
Q

Nursing Care: Monitoring NEUROLOGICAL status

A
  1. LOC
  2. Intellectual function
  3. Motor function
  4. Eye movement
  5. Pupillary reaction
  6. Vital signs
  7. Other (headache, bleeding, nausea)
79
Q

Any identified change in neurological function must be ____.

A

reported to the physician promptly.

80
Q

Glasgow Coma Scale: 15

A

Fully oriented

81
Q

Glasgow Coma Scale: 3

A

Deep coma/Death (lowest possible score)

82
Q

Glasgow Coma Scale: 7 or less

A

State of coma

83
Q

Battle’s sign

A

ecchymoses behind the ear

84
Q

fluid from the ear

A

otorrhea

85
Q

Head injury and loss of consciousness: Observation of clear fluid in the outer ear may indicate ___.

A

cerebrospinal fluid leakage

86
Q

People with greatest risk for having a CVA

A
  1. Hypertension or DM

2. Smoking and lack of exercise

87
Q

CVA: Teach those at risk for developing a stroke to ___.

A

monitor BP levels.

88
Q

Controls body temperature, appetite, and water balance; links nervous and endocrine systems.

A

Hypothalamus

89
Q

Feeding pt with dysphagia with left-sided hemiplegia: Position pt in ____

A

High Fowler’s

90
Q

Paralysis of one side of the body

A

Hemiplegia

91
Q

Thrombi from a CVA can (1)__ __. This can (2)_____ and cause a seizure.

A
  1. occlude vessels

2. deprive brain cells of oxygen

92
Q

phenytoin (Dilantin): Monitor (3)

A
  1. urinary output
  2. liver function
  3. renal function
93
Q

phenytoin (Dilantin): Blood tests necessary to monitor __ __.

A

liver damage.

94
Q

Endarterectomy as intervention for stroke prevention is reserved for people who have carotid obstruction of more than __.

A

60%

95
Q

Inability to perform particular purposive actions, as a result of brain damage

A

apraxia

96
Q

Blindness or reduction in vision in one half of the visual field

A

Hemianopsia

97
Q

Inability to interpret sensations and hence to recognize things, typically as a result of brain damage

A

agnosia

98
Q

The loss of full control of bodily movements

A

ataxia

99
Q

Term used to describe a closed head injury in which there is a brief disruption in level of consciousness (LOC), amnesia regarding the occurrence, and headache.

A

Concussion

From Flashcardlet (144 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions