Micro/Immuno 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Microbiology

A

the study of microorganisms (microscopic organisms = smaller than 1 mm. in diam.) (prions, viruses, bacteria, protozoa, certain fungi, certain algae, helminthes?)

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2
Q

Clinical microbiology

A

study of those microorganisms (pathogens or pathogenic microorganisms) that cause diseases (infectious disease) in humans and domestic animals.

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3
Q

Parasitology

A

(historically) study of diseases due to protozoa and helminthes (parasites).

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4
Q

Immunology

A

the study of the body’s defenses to pathogens, foreign substances, cancer cells.

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5
Q

Health

A

a state of relative equilibrium in which body’s organ systems function adequately or properly (without evidence of disease or abnormality)

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6
Q

Disease

A

any change from state of health or equilibrium
\ an abnormal state in which part or all of body not properly adjusted or is not capable of carrying out normal functions
\ a change in the normal physiology of the body condition of an organ, part, structure or system of body in which there is incorrect functioning due to the effect of heredity, infection, diet, or environment
\ (MIMS) = when and infection has detectable clinical consequences, severe or mild

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7
Q

Pathology

A

the study of diseases (branch of biol. or medicine)

\ (pathos = latin for suffering)

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8
Q

Etiology

A

the cause of a disease (ie, infectious disease = microbes)

\ Koch’s postulate (or variation of ) used to prove specific etiology

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9
Q

Pathogenesis

A

manner in which (how) a disease develops

\factors involved in development of disease

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10
Q

Infectious disease

A

a physiologically impaired state of a plant or animal resulting from microbial infection, microbial products (i.e., toxins), or microbial
activities (disease caused by a microorganism)

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11
Q

What do Koch’s postutlates to prove?

A

a) Pathogen must be present en every case of disease
b) Pathogen must be isolated from diseased host and grown in pure culture
c) Disease must be reproduced when pure culture introduce into non-diseased susceptible host
d) Pathogen must be recovered from this experimentally infected host.

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12
Q

Pathogenic microorganisms (pathogens)

A
those microorganisms(viruses,
bacteria, fungi) that can cause disease (in humans, animals, plants, etc)
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13
Q

Strict pathogen

A

Always associated with the disease

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14
Q

Opportunistic pathogen

A

only under certain conditions (i.e., immunocompromised individuals

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15
Q

Parasites

A

Those protozoans and helminthes that can cause disease

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16
Q

Pathogenicity

A

organisms ability to cause disease

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17
Q

Virulence

A

the degree of pathogenicity

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18
Q

Infection

A

invasion and colonization of body by pathogens with subsequent growth/proliferation in/on our bodies (not synonymous with disease)
\ (MIMS = presence of pathogen in individual of pop, not necessarily disease)
\ doesn’t always cause disease can include commensalism)

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19
Q

Communicable disease

A

any disease that can spread from one host to
another, either directly or indirectly (ie, chickenpox, measles, typhoid fever)
\ MIMS aka infectious

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20
Q

Contagious disease

A

a disease that is easily spread from one person to another(ie, chickenpox, measles) aka infectious

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21
Q

Noncommunicable disease

A

a disease that can’t be spread from one host to another

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22
Q

Signs

A

objective = objective changes in body that physician can observe and measure (ie, resence of lesions, swelling, fever, paralysis)

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23
Q

Symptoms

A

subjective = changes in body function (ie, pain, malaise, loss of appetite)
\ these subjective changes not apparent to observor;

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24
Q

Syndrome

A

specific group of symptoms and/or signs that always accompanies a particular disease (characterisitic of particular disease)

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25
Q

Localized infection

A

one where the invading pathogen is limited to a relatively small area of body (ie, boils and abscesses)

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26
Q

Sytemic (generalized) infection

A

infection where microorganisms or their

products are spread throughout body by circulation or lymphatic system (ie, measles)

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27
Q

Bacteremia

A

presence of bacteria in blood

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28
Q

Septicemia

A

when bacteria actually multiply in blood (blood infection)

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29
Q

Toxemia

A

presence of toxins in blood

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30
Q

Viremia

A

presence of viruses in blood

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31
Q

Subclinical infection

A

inapparent infection - one that doesn’t cause any noticeable illnes (ie, poliovirus can be carried by people who never develop polio)

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32
Q

Acute disease

A

one that develops rapidly but only lasts a short time (ie, influenza)

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33
Q

Chronic disease

A

disease that develops more slowly, body’s reaction less severe, but can last for long time period (ie, leprosy, TB)

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34
Q

Latent disease

A

one in which causative agent remains inactive for a time and then becomes active and produces symptoms of the disease (ie, shingles due to varicella-zoster virus)

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35
Q

Predisposing factor

A

a factor that makes body more susceptible to a disease and may alter the course of a disease (ie, sometimes gender, age, genetics, climate,
weather, inadequate nutrition, etc)

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36
Q

Epidemiology

A

study of when and where disease occurs and how they are Xmitted

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37
Q

Germ theory of disease

A

(1870s) (Robt. Koch) - certain diseases due to specific microbes- (1st was anthrax (1876); 2nd TB (1882))

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38
Q

Koch’s postulates

A

series of steps to prove causality between specific microorganism and specific disease (best for cellular microbes, esp bact)

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39
Q

Development of disease

A

once pathogen overcomes defenses, development of disease follows a certain sequence of steps

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40
Q

Period of incubation

A

time interval between initial infection and first
appearance of any signs or symptoms of disease (asymptomatic)
\ for some diseases constant; for others it varies
\ microbe has invaded host and is migrating to various tissues but has not yet increased to sufficient numbers to cause discomfort or infectivity

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41
Q

Prodromal period

A

relatively short period that follows incubation period in some diseases
\ characterized by early, mild symptoms of disease (ie, mild aches and malaise)
\ symptoms not usually precise enough for diagnosis
\ but patient contagious cause enough mult of microbe

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42
Q

Period of illness

A

clinical stage = time when disease most acute
\ person experiences overt signs and symptoms of disease (fevers, chills, muscle pain (myalgia), sore throat, lymph node enlargement (lymphadenopathy), etc.
\ either persons immune response and other defenses overcome pathogen and person recovers, or patient may die
\ person is contagious

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43
Q

Period of decline

A

time when signs and symptoms decline (fever
subsides, etc) - first signs of recovery
\ usually no longer contagious; but can be a carrier

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44
Q

Period of convalescence

A

person regains strength, and body returns to its prediseased state (= recovery)

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45
Q

Latent period

A

time between initial infection and infectiousness

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46
Q

Pathogenesis

A

the progression of a disease state

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47
Q

Virulence factors

A

anything that contributes to pathogens
Virulence (i.e., capsule, adhesion molecule)
\ virulence due to: adhesion, cell penetration, antiphagocytic activs,
toxin produce, interaction with immune system
\ due to many microbial genes
\ mutations produce new prots and traits, and plasmid acquisition

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48
Q

Epidemiology

A

study of occurrence (ie, source, who gets diseaes), spread and control and prevention of diseases within the human population (attempts at control and prevention of diseases= Public Health)
(CDC collects data from local agencies -reports (MMWR) and monitors
\ when and where diseases occur and how they xmitted in human pops (patterns of xmission within pop) = study of circumstances under which diseases occur in a population

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49
Q

methodology

A

study of whole population and generalize from large numbers of individual cases (induction)
\ based on collection of detailed statistical data at several levels
\ie, from purely descriptive, to analytical to experimental (can involve mathematical modeling) - this info can be very useful in combatting/preventing diseases
\ genetic differences between individuals and races

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50
Q

Morbidity rate

A

incidence of disease in a pop

= # new cases of disease during specific period / # individuals in population

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51
Q

Mortality rate

A

rate of death in a pop for a disease

= # deaths due to the disease/size of total population with the same disease

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52
Q

Incidence of disease

A

fraction of population that contracts it during particular period of time
= # new cases arising in population over defined period of time (X # / 100,000 pop in 1
year)

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53
Q

Prevelance of disease

A

fraction of population having the disease at a specified time (number of cases of infection or disease within the population at given point of time or given period)

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54
Q

Age specific

A

within an age group

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55
Q

Sporadic disease

A

disease that occurs only occasionally (typhoid fever in the U.S.)

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56
Q

Endemic disease

A
disease that is constantly present in population (common cold)
\diseases which always present in population at about the same level, usually at low or
moderate frequency (ie, chiken pox)
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57
Q

Epidemic disease

A

when many people in a given area acquire the disease in a relatively short time (ie, influenza) above endemeic levels
= pattern of disease xmission that affects many members of the population within a short period of time (ie, cholera)

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58
Q

Pandemic

A

epidemic that spreads worldwide (AIDS)\ global epidemics

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59
Q

How many microbes living on your body?

A

100 trillion

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60
Q

How many cells in your body?

A

20 trillion

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61
Q

How much of the world’s organisms are microbes?

A

1/3

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62
Q

Where do most microorganisms exist?

A

Free-living - in soil and water

Some are symbionts living on or in plants and animals (their hosts)

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63
Q

What is symbiosis?

A

A close relationship between two or more organisms of two or more different species

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64
Q

What is mutualism?

A

When both the host and microorganism benefit

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65
Q

What is commensalism?

A

When the microorganism benefits, but the host is neither harmed nor benefited

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66
Q

What is parasitism?

A

When the microorganism benefits, but the host is harmed

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67
Q

What is infection?

A

The growth or colonization by microorganisms (technically, we are all already infected)

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68
Q

When is parasitism most commonly seen?

A

When we get sick

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69
Q

Do microbes always act as mutualists, commensalists, or parasites?

A

No, they could be commensal to us but mutualistic to cows, etc.

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70
Q

Why do microbes inhabit hosts?

A

To reproduce (not just to cause disease)

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71
Q

What is a chemoorganoheterotroph?

A

Uses organic molecules for energy and carbohydrate source

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72
Q

What is normal microbial flora?

A

Microbial symbionts of humans

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73
Q

When is the normal flora established?

A

At birth

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74
Q

Where do the normal flora live?

A
Inner and outer body surfaces - 
epidermis
upper respiratory tract
mouth
GI tract
vagina
distal end of urethra
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75
Q

What percentage of the normal flora live in the large intestine?

A

90-95%

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76
Q

What are the two groups of normal flora?

A

Normal resident flora

Transient flora

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77
Q

What are normal resident flora?

A

Not static, but more or less permanent

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78
Q

What are transient flora?

A

Temporary (days, weeks, months); changes composition

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79
Q

Are obligate pathogens normal resident or transient flora?

A

Transient flora

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80
Q

Are most bacteria of the normal flora mutualists, commensalists, or parasites?

A

Most are commensalists, but overall, the normal flora is beneficial to the human

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81
Q

What is an example of when the normal flora can be beneficial, in terms of pathogens? (3)

A
  • The normal flora attach to our cells, which blocks binding sites where pathogens might try to attach
  • They produce bacteriocins, antimicrobial chemicals
  • They play a role in the development of the immune system
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82
Q

What is an example of when the normal flora can be negative to the body?

A

If normal flora move to a different area of the body where they are not supposed to be, like if E. coli move to the urinary tract from the GI tract, causing a UTI

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83
Q

Bacteria in the mouth

A

Strep. mitis and other streptococci
Trichomonas tenax
Candida

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84
Q

Bacteria in the teeth

A
Streptococcus mutans
Bacteroides
Fusobacterium
Streptococci 
Actinomyces
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85
Q

Bacteria in the throat

A
Strep. viridans
Strep. pyogenes
Strep. pneumoniae
Neisseria spp.
Staph. epidermidis
Haemophilus influenzae
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86
Q

Bacteria on the skin

A

Staph. epidermidis
Staph. aureus
Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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87
Q

Bacteria in urethra and vagina

A

Staph. epidermidis
Diphtheroids
Streptococci
Gram negative rods

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88
Q

Bacteria in nose

A

Staph. aureus
Staph. epidermidis
diphtheroids
streptococci

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89
Q

Bacteria in the colon

A
Bacteroides spp.
Fusobacterium spp.
Strep. faecalis
Escherichia coli
lactobacillus
Staph. aureus
Clostridium spp.
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90
Q

What is the term for normal flora that can be pathogenic under certain circumstances?

A

Opportunistic pathogens

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91
Q

What happens in terms of normal flora when a person uses antibiotics for a long period of time?

A

The normal flora may be wiped out due to the constant use of antibiotics, making room for fungal infections to take over (which are resistant to the antibiotics)

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92
Q

What is an infectious disease?

A

a disease due to microbial infection, microbial products (toxins), or microbial elicited body activities (inflammation)
Essentially, a disease caused by a microorganism

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93
Q

What is pathology?

A

Study of disease; effect on organism’s tissues/organs

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94
Q

What is etiology?

A

Cause of disease

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95
Q

What is pathogenesis?

A

Mechanism of disease

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96
Q

What is a strict pathogen?

A

It causes disease associated with it in most people when present in sufficient dose and transmitted in the correct manner

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97
Q

What is another name for strict pathogen?

A

Obligate

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98
Q

What is an opportunistic pathogen?

A

Microorganism that normally does not cause disease except under certain circumstances

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99
Q

What are the four steps from pathogen to disease?

A
  1. Signs and symptoms due to
  2. Damage/dysfunction to tissues/organs/body function due to
  3. Pathogen’s growth/toxins/bodily processes due to
  4. The pathogen
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100
Q

What is pathogenicity?

A

The ability to cause disease; a phenotype of a pathogen

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101
Q

What is virulence?

A

The degree of pathogenicity

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102
Q

What is the range of degree of virulency?

A

From avirulent to hyper virulent

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103
Q

What is infection?

A

Growth and colonization by a microorganism

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104
Q

What is intoxication?

A

When signs and symptoms primarily or exclusively are due to microbial toxins

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105
Q

Describe the pathogen/host interaction

A

A race between the pathogen’s ability to multiply, spread, and cause damage or dysfunction, leading to signs and symptoms, and the host’s ability to control and finally eliminate the pathogen

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106
Q

What is the disease threshold?

A

The minimum number of pathogens or the concentration of toxin which results in sufficient damage or dysfunction to cause disease

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107
Q

What influences the disease threshold?

A
Type of pathogen
Age of host
General health of host
Genetic background of host
Body defenses of host
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108
Q

What does the disease threshold say about someone who is not showing signs and symptoms?

A

They may be infected, but not with enough concentration of the bacterial toxin to show signs and symptoms

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109
Q

What is the incubation period?

A

time from initial contact with the pathogen to the first signs and symptoms

110
Q

What is the patient presenting with during the incubation period?

A

The patient is asymptomatic for a variable amount of time, but the person may be contagious for some part of the period

111
Q

What is the prodromal period?

A

Early on, when the patient has mild signs and symptoms (not present in all diseases), and the person is contagious

112
Q

What is the period of illness?

A

Acute onset with major signs and symptoms, where the patient is contagious for some time in most diseases

113
Q

What is the period of decline?

A

When the signs and symptoms start to decline, and the patient is usually no longer contagious

114
Q

What is convalescence?

A

The recovery period

115
Q

What are the steps of pathogenesis?

A
  1. Maintain reservoir
  2. Transmission
  3. Attachment to portal of entry
  4. Invasion/spread to deeper tissues
  5. Multiplication/growth
  6. Evasion of host defenses
  7. Exit from host
116
Q

What is the reservoir?

A

The source of a pathogen

117
Q

What is required of a reservoir?

A

It must provide the pathogen with adequate conditions for survival in between hosts in some form and an opportunity for transmission

118
Q

How can we eliminate a pathogen?

A

Eliminate the reservoir

119
Q

What are four examples of reservoirs?

A
  • Other humans
  • Animals
  • Soil
  • Water
120
Q

What are two kinds of human carrier reservoirs?

A

Incubatory and chronic

121
Q

What is an incubatory carrier?

A

The person is infected and experiencing the incubation period, not showing signs and symptoms

122
Q

What is a chronic carrier?

A

The person could have had the disease and recovered, or never have shown signs and symptoms at all

123
Q

What is a zoonose?

A

A disease mostly in animals that can get humans infected

124
Q

What are some examples of zoonose?

A

West Nile virus, rabies

125
Q

What is the portal of entry?

A

The anatomic site where the pathogen first contacts or enters the body

126
Q

What are some examples of portals of entry?

A
  • Skin and conjunctiva
  • Respiratory tract
  • Mouth and GI tract
  • Urogenital tract
  • Circulatory system
127
Q

What is a vector?

A

A living organism that transmits the pathogen

128
Q

What are some examples of vectors?

A

Shellfish, oysters, clams, larvae

129
Q

What are two types of pathogen transmission?

A
  • airborne
  • fecal to oral
  • direct contact
  • mouth to saliva
  • parenteral
130
Q

What must an airborne pathogen need to be able to resist?

A

Desiccation

131
Q

What is parenteral transmission?

A

Transmission directly into the circulation (e.g. vectors, wounds, needles, animal bites)

132
Q

What is horizontal transmission?

A

Transmission to others in the population

133
Q

What is vertical transmission?

A

Transmission to offspring

134
Q

What is an example of horizontal transmission?

A

Infected air, water, or food

Influenza

135
Q

What is an example of vertical transmission?

A

HIV, hepatitis B

136
Q

What must pathogens do at the portal of entry?

A

With the exception of parenteral transmission, pathogens must attach or adhere to the portal of entry (usually epithelial cells)

137
Q

What do pathogens have on their outer surface to attach to the portal of entry?

A

Specific, receptor mediated adhesins

138
Q

What kind of bond do adhesins make with the host?

A

Noncovalent bonds to complementary receptors on the host cells

139
Q

Why do pathogens need adhesins?

A

Adhesins prevent the body mechanisms from removing the pathogen before it can proceed to replicate

140
Q

What is a source of natural immunity against a pathogen?

A

If you lack the corresponding site for the adhesin

141
Q

What is invasion?

A

Movement of a pathogen from a portal of entry to deeper tissues

142
Q

What is localized invasion?

A

To deeper tissues within the same body part

143
Q

What is systemic invasion?

A

To different tissues in different parts of the body

144
Q

Why do pathogens invade?

A

Conditions on the portal of entry are not favorable for the replication of most pathogens, so they move to a more favorable area

145
Q

Do all pathogens invade systemically?

A

No, few stay localized

146
Q

What is toxemia?

A

Toxins in the blood

147
Q

What are some examples of how pathogens invade?

A
  • Through wounds
  • Between cells
  • Through cells
148
Q

How do pathogens invade a host between cells?

A

Mediated by enzymes from the pathogen which degrade cell junctions and proteins in the matrix

149
Q

How do pathogens invade a host through a cell?

A

Most commonly by induced endocytosis, and exocytosis of the pathogen

150
Q

What is induced endocytosis?

A

Molecules on pathogens trick cells to carry out endocytosis

151
Q

What are the molecules on pathogens that trick cells to carry out endocytosis?

A

Invasins

152
Q

What are some examples of how pathogens systemically spread through the host?

A
  • Circulation
  • Lymphatic system
  • Peripheral neurons
  • Skin, muscle
153
Q

What is bacteremia?

A

Presence of bacteria in the blood

154
Q

What is septicemia?

A

Presence of replicating bacteria in the blood

155
Q

What is viremia?

A

Presence of viruses in the blood

156
Q

What is the most common way pathogens are systemically spread?

A

Through circulation

157
Q

What kind of organism is a pathogen (chemo…)?

A

Chemoorganoheterotroph, like humans

158
Q

What materials does a pathogen use to replicate?

A

Materials supplied by the host

159
Q

What stage of the life cycle is a pathogen in when the disease threshold is reached and signs and symptoms appear?

A

Replication

160
Q

How does the body try to prevent replication of the pathogen?

A

The body’s defenses begin to be fully employed, interfering with and preventing replication

161
Q

How does a pathogen avoid the non-specific defenses of the body so they can replicate?

A
  • Interfere with/prevent/survive phagocytosis or kill phagocytes
  • Prevent dislodgment mechanisms by stronger attachment to body surfaces
  • Prevent action of complement proteins
162
Q

What is a specific response?

A

Response is antigen dependent, targets specific cells

Ex) B and T cells

163
Q

What is a nonspecific response?

A

Response is not antigen dependent, do not target a specific cell type
Ex) Fever, cough, anatomical barriers, macrophages, phagocytosis

164
Q

What are some examples of how a pathogen evades phagocytosis?

A

-Toxin release
-Opsonization prevented
-Contact with phagocyte prevented
-Resistance to killing
-Escape into cytoplasm
Phagolysosome fusion inhibited

165
Q

What is opsonization?

A

Refers to an immune process where bacteria are targeted for destruction by a phagocyte. Opsonization tags the invading particle so the phagocyte can identify it

166
Q

How does a pathogen prevent opsonization?

A

Pathogen produces a protein which prevents interaction between the opsonizing antibody and the phagocyte

167
Q

How does a pathogen prevent contact with a phagocyte?

A

The pathogen possesses a capsule which prevents contact with the phagocyte

168
Q

How does a pathogen escape into the cytoplasm of a phagocyte?

A

The pathogen escapes from the phagolysosome into the cytoplasm and replicates within the phagocyte

169
Q

How does a pathogen resist being killed in a phagocyte?

A

The pathogen resists killing by producing antioxidants (catalase or free radicals)

170
Q

How does a pathogen avoid specific defenses with antigen concealment?

A

Antigen concealment

  • Hiding within the cell or in privileged sites within the body
  • Antigen mimicry
  • Uptake/coating with host molecules
171
Q

What does antigen mimicry involve?

A

The pathogen evolve antigens similar to the host’s own antigens so the host does not target it

172
Q

What are some privileged sites in the body where pathogens may hide to evade host defenses?

A

Skin, or places where few if any B and T lymphocytes exist

173
Q

What is a capsule made up of?

A

Carbohydrates

174
Q

Why could a gram negative bacteria survive phagocytosis?

A

They have a capsule, which can release toxins to kill phagocytes

175
Q

What is an example of bacteria preventing dislodgment?

A

E. coli has good mechanisms to latch onto the urethra, so the bacteria isn’t dislodged during urination, causing UTIs

176
Q

What are several ways pathogens evade host defenses?

A
  • Antigen concealment
  • Antigenic variation
  • Immune suppression/interference
  • Antibody destruction
177
Q

What are three examples of antigenic variation?

A

Genetic drift
Genetic shift
Gene switching

178
Q

What is genetic drift?

A

Gene mutation - genes change the antigen so the body doesn’t recognize it

179
Q

What is an example of a common virus that practices genetic drift?

A

Influenza - each year we don’t know what the virus will look like

180
Q

What is genetic shift?

A

Recombination between two different genomes, creating a totally new genome

181
Q

Do all organisms genetically drift and shift?

A

All organisms genetically drift, but not all shift

182
Q

What is genetic switching?

A

Pathogen has multiple genes for slightly different similar functioning proteins, so the body no longer recognizes its protein

183
Q

What is an example of antibody destruction by a pathogen?

A

Strep. pyogenes has anti-IgG enzyme

184
Q

What are some examples of how the host tissue is directly damaged due to the growth of a pathogen? (7)

A
  • Osmotic cell lysis
  • Lysis upon exiting cells
  • Induce release of lysosomal enzymes
  • Blockage of hollow vessels by worms
  • Blockage of alveoli by dense growth
  • Competition for oxygen and nutrients
  • Production of acids
185
Q

What is toxigenicity?

A

Ability of pathogen to produce toxin

186
Q

What is toxemia?

A

Presence of toxin in blood

187
Q

What is intoxication?

A

When all/main signs and symptoms are due to a toxin

188
Q

What are toxoids?

A

Vaccines made from inactive toxins

189
Q

What is an antitoxin?

A

Antibody against a toxin

190
Q

What is a neurotoxin?

A

A toxin that targets the cells of the nervous system

191
Q

What is a enterotoxin?

A

A toxin that targets the epithelial cells of the GI tract

192
Q

What is a cytotoxin?

A

A toxin that kills a variety of cells

193
Q

What is an exotoxin?

A

A toxin that is secreted from a cell with a specific target

194
Q

Are exotoxins heat stabile or labile?

A

Labile, they are able to be denatured

195
Q

What is an endotoxin?

A

A toxin that is not secreted, it is usually released when a cell dies or is dying

196
Q

Are endotoxins heat stabile or labile?

A

Stabile

197
Q

Do gram positive or gram negative cells have endotoxins?

A

All gram negative cells have endotoxins because they are found in the lipopolysaccharides (Lipid A) in the outer cell wall
(Gram negative bacteria may also secrete exotoxins. Gram positive bacteria NEVER have endotoxins)

198
Q

What are the subunits of exotoxins?

A

A, active subunit

B, binding subunit

199
Q

How potent are bacterial exotoxins?

A

VERY potent

200
Q

Do gram positive or gram negative cells produce exotoxins?

A

Mostly gram positive, but a few gram negative can secrete exotoxins

201
Q

How potent are bacterial endotoxins?

A

Not very potent, the effects vary with dose

202
Q

What does a low dose of endotoxin present with?

A
  • Weakness
  • Generalized aches
  • Chills
203
Q

What does a medium dose of endotoxin present with?

A
  • Chills
  • Fever
  • Diarrhea
204
Q

What does a high dose of endotoxin present with?

A
  • Massive hypotension
  • Shock
  • Death
205
Q

What cells have an endotoxin receptor for the fever pathway?

A

Macrophages

206
Q

What is the fever pathway?

A
  • Endotoxin
  • Macrophages
  • IL1 and TNF
207
Q

What is an exogenous pyrogen?

A

Fever-producing agents of external origin (ex. bacterial endotoxins)

208
Q

What is an endogenous pyrogen?

A

Protein that is produced by phagocytic leukocytes in response to stimulation by exogenous pyrogens and released into the circulation (ex. IL1 and TNF)

209
Q

What is a cytolysin?

A

Enzyme that lyses cells

210
Q

What is a hemolysin?

A

Enzyme that lyses erythrocytes

211
Q

What is a leukocidin?

A

Enzyme that lyses leukocytes

212
Q

What is lecithinase?

A

Enzyme (a phospholipase) that lyses most cells by denaturing or destroying cell membranes

213
Q

What is collagenase?

A

Enzyme that breaks down collagen in connective tissues

214
Q

What is hyaluronidase?

A

Enzyme that breaks down hyaluronic acid in connective tissue

215
Q

What are some examples of damage done due to the body’s defenses?

A
  • Inflammation
  • Hypersensitivity
  • Cytokines released by various leukocytes
  • Antibodies
  • Products released from phagocytes
  • Diarrhea
216
Q

What is the portal of exit?

A

Anatomical site from which the pathogen leaves the host

217
Q

What are some examples of portals of exit?

A
  • Respiratory tract
  • Gastrointestinal tract
  • Skin, mucus membranes
  • Circulation
218
Q

What are some ways a pathogen exits the host from the respiratory tract?

A

Breathing, sneezing, coughing

219
Q

What are some ways a pathogen exits the host from the gastrointestinal tract?

A

Defecation, diarrhea

220
Q

What are some outcomes for the host after the pathogen exits?

A
  • Complete recovery
  • Persistent/chronic infection
  • Latent infection
  • Cancer
  • Death
221
Q

What is complete recovery?

A

Recovery with the removal of all viable pathogens and toxins

222
Q

What is persistent/chronic infection?

A

Microbe remains in the body and replicates at a low level; host may or may not show signs and symptoms

223
Q

What is latent infection?

A

Recovery, but the pathogen remains in a latent state somewhere in the body; reactivation is possible at a later time

224
Q

What are two examples of latent infection?

A

Syphilis, herpes

225
Q

Is the microbe replicating during latent infection?

A

No

226
Q

Does the host show signs and symptoms during latent infection?

A

Not during latency

227
Q

What might the illness look like after reactivation of a latent infection?

A

Might manifest with different signs and symptoms (example - chicken pox, shingles)

228
Q

What is epidemiology?

A

Study of who, when, where, and how of a disease in a population

229
Q

What is the morbidity rate?

A

The number of new cases per time period per the number of individuals in a population

230
Q

What is the mortality rate?

A

Number of deaths per time period per the number of individuals in a population

231
Q

What is the incidence of disease?

A

The number of new cases per time period per individuals in the population

232
Q

What is prevalence?

A

The number of total cases within population within a given time period

233
Q

What is the difference between incidence and morbidity?

A

Morbidity is the rate of the disease. Incidence is the new cases of the disease

234
Q

What is a sporadic disease?

A

A disease that occurs occasionally in an area

235
Q

What is an endemic?

A

A disease that is always present in the population, usually at a low or moderate level

236
Q

What is an epidemic?

A

A sudden occurrence of disease within the population

237
Q

What is a pandemic?

A

A world wide epidemic (world wide sudden occurrence of the disease)

238
Q

Can a disease be sporadic and an endemic?

A

Yes, What is sporadic in the U.S. might be endemic somewhere else (ex. cholera)

239
Q

What is a nosocomial disease?

A

Any disease acquired in a hospital or nursing home

240
Q

What is the percentage of incidence of nosocomial disease?

A

5-10% of all hospitalized patients in the U.S.

241
Q

What are some reasons that patients get nosocomial disease?

A
  • Many ill people (reservoirs for pathogens)
  • Immunosuppressed individuals
  • Close contact (promotes spread)
  • Much movement (promotes spread)
  • Many invasive procedures such as surgery
242
Q

What are the most common hospital pathogens?

A
  • E. coli
  • S. aureus
  • P. aeruginosa
  • C. dificile
243
Q

What are the classifications for sources of infections?

A
Endogenous source (self) (ex. E. coli)
Exogenous source
244
Q

What are some ways an infection can be spread?

A
  • Airborne
  • Droplet spread
  • Direct contact
  • Indirect contact (via object)
  • Common vehicle
245
Q

How can we prevent the spread of pathogens through inanimate objects?

A
  • Use sterile instruments
  • Disinfect materials
  • Clean water
  • Clean food
246
Q

How can we prevent the spread of pathogens through people?

A
  • Ill employees stay home
  • No known carriers
  • Minimize movements
  • Enhance ability to resist pathogens (antibiotics, vaccines, immune boosters)
247
Q

How can we interrupt the transmission of pathogens through airborne pathways?

A
  • Proper ventilation
  • Proper filtration
  • Aseptic technique
248
Q

What is the number one way healthcare workers can minimize transmission of pathogens?

A

Wash hands!

249
Q

What is sterility?

A

Free of all viable microorganisms

250
Q

What are some ways to achieve sterility?

A
  • Autoclave, oven
  • Gamma irradiation
  • X-irradiation
  • Filtration of fluids
251
Q

What is disinfection?

A

Reducing the number of microbes to recede the probability of transmission of disease

252
Q

What is the difference between disinfection and antisepsis?

A

Disinfection - inanimate objects, surfaces

Antisepsis - living tissues

253
Q

What is pasteurization?

A

Disinfection of liquids

254
Q

How do we prevent and control infectious disease?

A
  • Limit people exposure to pathogen
  • Clean drinking water
  • Clean food - animals and plants
  • Personal cleanliness
  • Improved housing
  • Improved nutrition
  • Vector control
  • Quarantine
255
Q

How do we limit people’s exposure to a pathogen?

A
  • Decrease or eliminate the pathogen’s reservoir (easy with animal, soil, or water, difficult with human reservoir)
  • Interrupt transmission pathway
256
Q

How do animals act in transmission of a pathogen?

A

They can be a reservoir or a vehicle

257
Q

How does improved housing influence disease transmission?

A

Less crowding makes transmission less efficient

258
Q

What color does gram negative stain?

A

Pink or red

259
Q

What color does gram positive stain?

A

Purple or blue

260
Q

Which gram cell retains stain after washing?

A

Gram positive retains stain

261
Q

What does the peptidoglycan layer look like in gram negative?

A

Thin, single peptidoglycan layer

262
Q

What does the peptidoglycan layer look like in gram positive?

A

Thick, multi layer peptidoglycan

263
Q

Which gram cell has techoic acids present?

A

Gram positive

264
Q

Which gram cell has an outer membrane?

A

Gram negative

265
Q

Which gram cell has a periplasmic space?

A

Gram negative

266
Q

What is the outer membrane made up of?

A

Gram negative cells have an outer membrane composed of lipopolysaccarides (LPS)

267
Q

What kind of toxin do gram negative cells create?

A

Endotoxins

268
Q

What kind of toxin do gram positive cells create?

A

Exotoxins

269
Q

What does the cell wall of a gram negative cell look like?

A

Two layers

270
Q

What does the cell wall of a gram positive cell look like?

A

One layer

271
Q

Which gram cell is resistant to antibiotics?

A

Gram negative

272
Q

Which gram cell is susceptible to antibiotics?

A

Gram positive