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From Flashcardlet > Micro/Immuno 5 > Flashcards

Micro/Immuno 5 Flashcards

1
Q

What is hypersensitivity?

A

Over reaction of some part of the body’s defenses to a foreign, but usually nonpathogenic antigen

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2
Q

On what exposure does hypersensitivity occur?

A

Second and subsequent exposures

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3
Q

What is an autoimmune disease?

A

When immune system loses or never obtained self tolerance and responds to host’s own healthy cells

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4
Q

What is immune deficiency?

A

When one or more of the body’s defenses is absent or lost

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5
Q

How does the number of memory cells the body creates influence immunity?

A

How many memory cells you make will influence how long and how strong your immunity is

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6
Q

Does immunity last forever?

A

No, immunity can fade, cells can die

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7
Q

Why might a patient be unable to create immunity against a pathogen? What is an example of this?

A

Some people get chicken pox several times - they do not have the receptors on their cells to create immunity

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8
Q

What is another name for type I hypersensitivity?

A

Allergic or anaphylactic

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9
Q

What is a type I hypersensitivity?

A

Involves binding of IgE to mast cells

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10
Q

How long does it take for a type I hypersensitivity reaction to occur?

A

Within 30 minutes on second and subsequent exposures, after individual is first sensitized to an antigen

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11
Q

What are two types of type I hypersensitivity reactions?

A

Localized or systemic

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12
Q

What is a localized type I hypersensitivity?

A

Inhalation or ingestion induced, only mast cells along exposure route are sensitized

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13
Q

What is a systemic type I hypersensitivity?

A

Injection or bite into circulation induced, many mast cells around the body are sensitized

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14
Q

What happens during the first exposure of an antigen with type I hypersensitivity?

A

IgE is made in response to the allergen and bind to IgE receptors on mast cells

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15
Q

What happens during subsequent exposures of an antigen with type I hypersensitivity?

A

Antigen cross links two or more IgE molecules bound to mast cells, and mast cell undergoes degranulation and release inflammatory mediators

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16
Q

What is another name for type II hypersensitivity reactions?

A

Cytotoxic

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17
Q

What is a type II hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Involved IgG or IgM binding to surfaces on host cells, marking them for attack

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18
Q

What methods of attack on host cells are used in type II hypersensitivity?

A

Complement and MAC

Phagocytosis by macrophages or cytotoxic cells

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19
Q

How long does it take for a type II hypersensitivity reaction to occur?

A

5-12 hours after exposure

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20
Q

What kind of antigens are involved in type II hypersensitivity?

A

Any foreign antigens attaching to cell surface of host cell

Transfusion rejection

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21
Q

What is another name for a type III hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Immune complex mediated

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22
Q

What is a type III hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Involves IgG antibodies against soluble antigens in blood or tissue fluid
Antibody/antigen complexes form and deposit in small blood vessels, inducing inflammation and causing damage

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23
Q

How long does it take for a type III hypersensitivity reaction to occur?

A

3-8 hours after expsoure

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24
Q

What is necessary for the formation of an antibody/antigen immune complex?

A

A certain ratio of antibodies to antigen

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25
Q

What is another name for a type IV hypersensitivity?

A

Cell mediated (no antibodies involved)

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26
Q

What cells are involved in type IV hypersensitivity?

A

Cytotoxic and helper T cells, macrophages

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27
Q

How long does it take for a type IV hypersensitivity reaction to occur?

A

24-48 hours after exposure

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28
Q

What is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Sensitization occurs when foreign epitopes are phagocytized by macrophages and then presented to T cell receptors, causing T cell proliferation and maturation
Subsequent exposures cause a reaction

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29
Q

What are some examples of a type IV hypersensitivity?

A

TB skin test

Allergic contact dermatitis

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30
Q

What is a TB skin test?

A

TB protein antigen is injected into skin - if previous exposure to TB, and inflammatory reaction appears in 1-2 days

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31
Q

What is contact dermatitis?

A

Due to happens from plants, cosmetics, and jewelry - happens get on skin and induce reaction by cytotoxic T cells and macrophages

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32
Q

Why does autoimmunity occur?

A
  • Autoreactive T cells
  • Antigen mimicry between non self and self antigens
  • Receptor porteins or genes may have mutations
  • Cells were never sensitized to self antigens
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33
Q

What is Grave’s disease?

A

Antibodies bind continuously to the thyroid, stimulating hormone receptors

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34
Q

What symptoms occur with Grave’s disease?

A

Goiter and bulging eyes

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35
Q

What is Type I diabetes?

A

Progressive destruction of beta cells in pancreas by cytotoxic T cells and antibodies

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36
Q

What are the two types of immune deficiency?

A

Hereditary and acquired

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37
Q

What is the hereditary form of immune deficiency?

A

Due to recessive mutations in genes for key proteins in stem cells for leukocytes

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38
Q

What is severe combined immunodeficiency?

A

Due to several different mutated alleles, affecting lymphoid precursor cells

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39
Q

What is acquired immune deficiency?

A

Due to disease, cancer, or chemicals

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40
Q

What does G+ stain?

A

Purple

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41
Q

What does G- stain?

A

Pink

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42
Q

What kind of stain do we use for mycobacterium?

A

Acid fast stain

43
Q

What is Beta hemolysis?

A

Complete hemolysis

44
Q

What is alpha hemolysis?

A

Incomplete hemolysis

45
Q

What is gamma hemolysis?

A

No hemolysis

46
Q

What type of plate do we conduct hemolysis tests?

A

Blood agar

47
Q

How many microorganisms are out there that cause human disease?

A

1600

48
Q

How many microorganisms cause the most common human diseases?

A

100

49
Q

What are some available resources for diagnosis?

A
  • Clinical signs and symptoms
  • Medial history
  • Differential blood work up
  • Microbiology lab and tests
50
Q

What are three types of microbiology lab tests?

A
  • Traditional
  • Immunological
  • Molecular
51
Q

What is a traditional microbiology lab test?

A

Culture, staining, biochemical tests

52
Q

What is a immunological microbiology lab test?

A

Detects presence of antigens or antibodies

53
Q

What is a traditional microbiology lab test?

A

Detects pathogen’s nucleic acids

54
Q

What information can we get from the blood if there is an infection by a prokaryote?

A

Leukocytosis and neutrophilia

Sometimes neutropenia

55
Q

What information can we get from the blood if there is an infection by a virus?

A

Leukopenia

56
Q

What information can we get from the blood if there is an infection by a parasite?

A

Eosinophilia

57
Q

What two pathogens do culture tests work best for?

A

Prokaryotes and fungi

58
Q

What is bright field microscopy?

A

Involves gram staining and acid fast staining, biochemical tests, observation for budding

59
Q

What type of pathogen is fluorescent staining used for?

A

Mycobacterium

60
Q

What type of pathogen is dark field microscopy used for?

A

Spirochetes

61
Q

What do biochemical tests look for?

A

Measure the presence or absence of enzymes involved in catabolism of specific substrates

62
Q

What is an example of a biochemical test?

A

Carbohydrate utilization test (test tubes change colors due to metabolism of carbs)

63
Q

What characteristics are looked for when culturing for fungi?

A

Colonial morphology
Color
Dimorphism

64
Q

How is a parasitic infection diagnosed?

A

Identification and characterization by microscopic examination of ova, trophozoites, and cysts in specimen

65
Q

What is a direct test?

A

Identifies presence of pathogen in body detected by presence of epitopes and antigens

66
Q

What is an indirect test?

A

Identifies exposure to pathogen by identifying antibody in blood made in response

67
Q

Which test, direct or indirect, can show that the pathogen exposure is current?

A

Direct every time

Indirect sometimes - could be present but could be past exposure

68
Q

What is serology?

A

In vitro antigen antibody reactions

69
Q

What are some common immunodiagnostic tests?

A
  • Precipitation
  • Agglutinatino
  • Neatrualization
  • Fluorescent antibody technique
  • ELISA
  • Western/Immunoblotting
70
Q

What does ELISA stand for?

A

Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay

71
Q

What is precipitation?

A

Results from interaction of a soluble antibody with a soluble antigen to form an insoluble complex when amount of antigen and antibody are about equal

72
Q

What is a direct precipitation test?

A

Add antibody for stock, looking for antigen in serum

73
Q

What is an indirect precipitation test?

A

Add antigen from stock, looking for antibody in tissue

74
Q

What is double diffusion?

A

Two wells, add sample to one well and antibody/antigen to another well
Diffusion occurs in zone of equivalence

75
Q

What is the zone of equivalence?

A

Where we look to see the precipitate form - where the antibody and antigen diffuse towards each other

76
Q

What do we need to do to see the zone of equivalence?

A

Stain

77
Q

What does it mean if no precipitate forms?

A

No exposure occurred

78
Q

What is radial diffusion?

A

Add antibody/antigen to gel, then add sample to the well - diffusion will occur radially

79
Q

What is a precipitate the result of?

A

Antigen binds to antibodies forming a lattice

80
Q

Only when does the precipitation occur?

A

Optimal ratio of antibody to antigen

81
Q

When is radial diffusion used?

A

To quantitate the antigen

82
Q

When is double diffusion used?

A

To identify the antigen

83
Q

What is immunoelectrophoresis?

A

Antigens are first separated by electrophoresis according to the charge, then visualized by a precipitation reaction

84
Q

What is agglutination?

A

Visible clumping of a particulate antigen when mixed with antibodies specific for the antigen

85
Q

Which tests are most sensitive, precipitate or agglutination?

A

Agglutination is more sensitive

86
Q

What are agglutination tests commonly used for?

A

Identifying blood group antigens

87
Q

What is direct agglutination?

A

Results when antibody from stock causes clumping due to interaction with antigen

88
Q

What is indirect agglutination?

A

Results when antigen from stock causes clumping due to interaction with an antibody that was already created in response to exposure to an antigen

89
Q

What is passive agglutination?

A

Agglutination of antigens or antibodies that have been adsorbed or chemically coupled to cells or particles

90
Q

Which are more sensitive, direct or passive agglutination tests?

A

Passive is five times more sensitive than direct

91
Q

What is hemagglutination?

A

Agglutination of RBCs by antibodies or certain viruses

92
Q

What are two reasons we use hemagglutination?

A

Blood typing

Identifying presence of viruses in the blood

93
Q

What is hemagglutination inhibition?

A

Patient exposed to hemagglutinating virus will makes antibodies against the virus - antibodies can’t bind to RBCs because they are bound to the virus, so agglutination doesn’t occur

94
Q

What does absence of hemagglutination indicate?

A

Antiviral antibodies were present in serum and person had been exposed to pathogen

95
Q

What kind of immunodiagnostic test is hemagglutination?

A

Neutralization reaction

96
Q

What do fluorescent antibodies do?

A

Antibodies are chemically modified to help detect antigens

97
Q

What are two common dyes for fluorescent antibodies?

A 
Rhodamine B (red)
Fluorescein isothiocyanate (yellow-green)
98
Q

What is the direct method of fluorescent antibody testing?

A

Antibody from stock is dyed and binds to target antigen - we can see the complex

99
Q

What is the indirect method of fluorescent antibody testing?

A

Antigen from stock is introduced to serum and they form a complex
Fluorescent anti-antibody from stock is applied and binds to non fluorescent antibody

100
Q

What is complement fixation?

A

The binding of complement to an antigen antibody complex

101
Q

Is complement fixation sensitive?

A

Very sensitive - allows measure of extremely small amounts of antibody

102
Q

What happens during the complement fixation test if antibodies are present?

A
  • RBCs are added to a solution with complement (and antibodies) in it
  • Complement fixes to the complex
  • Complement is unable to lyse RBCs and RBCs settle to bottom of solution
103
Q

What happens during the complement fixation test if no antibodies are present?

A
  • RBCs are added to a solution with complement in it
  • Since no antibodies are present to form a complex, complement does not fixate to the complex, making it available to bind to RBCs and lyse them
  • Solution turns pink

From Flashcardlet (133 decks)

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