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UWorld mixed > test #16 4.4 > Flashcards

test #16 4.4 Flashcards

1
Q

why does infxn w/ neisseria gonorrhoeae not result in lasting immunity?

A

modify outer membrane proteins by antigenic variation. Abs made in infxn – specific for single specific antigenic epitope.

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2
Q

kawasaki disease

A

vasculitis of medium-sized arteries

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3
Q

most serious complication of kawasaki disease?

A

coronary artery aneurysm.

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4
Q

symptoms of kawasaki

A

(1) persistent FEVER (2) bilateral CONJUNCTIVITIS (3) LYMPHADENOPATHY (4) CUTANEOUS involvement: (a) oropharyngeal: erythema of palatine mucosa, fissured erythematous lips, “strawberry” tongue (b) peripheral extremities: edema of hands * feet, erythema of palms and soles, desquamation of fingertips (periungual). (c) generalized rash: polymorphous (usu urticarial) erythemtaous rash beginning on extremities and moving to trunk (centripetal speed).

serious complication: coronary artery aneursym

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5
Q

which vasculitides are associated w/ mononeuritis multiplex (peripheral neuropathy of multiple individual nerves)

A

(1) granulomatosis w/ polyangiitis (2) polyarteritis nodosa

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6
Q

caudal regression syndrome. associated w/ & (3) signs

A

uncontrolled maternal diabetes. babies w/ agenesis of sacrum & occasionally lumbar spine –> (1) flaccid paralysis of legs, (2) dorsiflexed contractures of feet, (3) urinary incontenience

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7
Q

range of caudal regression syndrome

A

isolated anal atresia to sirenomelia (mermaid syndrome)

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8
Q

sirenomelia

A

mermaid syndrome, can result from caudal regression syndrome. legs fused together

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9
Q

cocaine on pregnancy

A

vasoconstriction: insufficient blood flow to developing fetus –> spontaneous abortion, intrauterine growth retardation, placental abruption, and/or prematurity

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10
Q

an URI that can negatively impact baby (gestation)

A

rubella (TORCHES). transmitted respiratroy. MR and congenital heart defects.

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11
Q

vitamin A overdose in pregnancy results in…

A

craniofacial abnormalities, posterior fossa CNS, auditory defects, abnormalities of great vessels (similar to DiGeorge)

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12
Q

vitamin A overdose in pregnancy in baby mimics?

A

DiGeorge

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13
Q

strict vegetarians (esp vegans) are at risk for which nutritional defeciencies?

A

(1) iron and (2) B12

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14
Q

tramadol

A

(1) very weak opiod agonist; also inhibits 5-HT and NE reuptake (2) (SNRI). mult ntx: tram it all w/ tramadol. use for chronic pain

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15
Q

positive predictive value

A

of those two test positive, how many are true positives.

a/a+b

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16
Q

validity of a test measured by

A

specificity and sensitivity

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17
Q

95% of gas gangrene caused by.. how?

A

Clostridium perfringes. toxin: phospholipase, cell death –> tissue damage, necrosis, reduction of blood supply. organism metabolizes carbohydrates –> generate gas.

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18
Q

clostridium perfinges causes (2)

A

(1) gas gangrene w/ penetration (2) transient watery diarrhea LATE-onset food poisoning, ingestion of spores in reheated meat dishes. late bc spores must germinate

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19
Q

early onset food poisoning (2) vs. late onset (1)

A

early-onset: preformed toxin (1) s. aureus (2) b. cereus.

late onset: c. perfringes (must germinate)

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20
Q

(2) bacteria associated w/ polyarthritis

A

(1) septic arthritis: gonorrhea (2) Group A strep

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21
Q

culture agar for cornybacterium diptheriae (2)?

A

(1) cysteine-tellurite agar, dark BLACK, slightly iridescent. (2) Loffler’s medium – cytoplawsmic metachomatic granules after stain w/ aniline dye.

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22
Q

how does maconkey prevent the growth of gram positives?

A

bile salts

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23
Q

colistin / polymyxin kills what? spares?

A

kills most gram negatives, but spares neisseria.

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24
Q

blood agar w/ bile & hypertonic saline used to..

A

differentiate enterococci (e. faecalis, e. facium; can grow in both) from nonenterococci group D strep (strep bovis / equinus)

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25
Q

Nonenterococcal group D strep grows in..

A

BILE but not hypertonic saline

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26
Q

Bordet-Gengou medium for…

A

Bordetella pertusus (whooping cough)

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27
Q

mental status exam testing: comprehension

A

follow multistep command

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28
Q

mental status exam testing: concentration

A

months of year backward; serial 7s, world backwards

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29
Q

mental status exam testing: visual-spatial

A

draw a clock face

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30
Q

score of 24 or < on mini-mental state exam

A

dementia

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31
Q

acute opioid tolerance mediated by?

A

uncertain, but phosphorylation of opioid receptors by protein kinase

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32
Q

chronic opioid tolerance?

A

increased adenylyl cyclase activity or NO levels

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33
Q

morphine tolerance?

A

glutamate mediated! NMDA receptor activation –> increased phosphorylation of opioid receptors & NO levels. (ketamine & dextromethorphan can block opiod tolerance)

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34
Q

what is required for the binding of glutamate to NMDA receptors?

A

glycine – co-agonist for glutamate. NECESSARY

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35
Q

pheochromocytoma rule of 10 (4)

A

10% occur as a part of hereditary syndrome (MEN2A and B, VHL). 10% bilateral. 10% malignant. 10% extraadrenal

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36
Q

involuntary head bobbing

A

sign of widened pulse pressure (peak systolic - end diastolic pulse pressure)

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37
Q

piriform recess

A

small cavities that lie on either side of laryngeal orifice. bounded medially by aryepiglottic folds. laterally by thyroid cartilage and thyrohyoid membrane. lead food into esophagus.

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38
Q

diversion of food from tracheal during swallowing

A

food diverted by epiglottis laterally through piriform recesses into esophagus

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39
Q

what n. courses superficially (under mucosa) in piriform recess?

A

internal laryngeal n (branch of superior laryngeal n CN X). afferent limb of cough reflex (sensation form mucosa superior to vocal cords)

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40
Q

recurrent laryngeal n & external laryngeal n? internal laryngeal?

A

recurrent & external: carry motor fibers involved in vocal cord fxn. internal: only sensory to larynx & epiglotis

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41
Q

fish bone / chicken lodged in piriformis. what n at risk? what reflex?

A

internal laryngeal (branch of superior laryngeal CN X). impair cough reflex

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42
Q

does irritation of larynx / epiglottis cause cough or gag?

A

COUGH

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43
Q

cough reflex

A

induced by upper respiratory tract irritation. afferent: X. efferent: X. afferent: internal branch of superior laryngeal. efferent: recurrent / external branch of superior.

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44
Q

gag reflex

A

afferent: glossopharyngeal CN IX. efferent limb: vagus CN X.

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45
Q

glossopharyngeal n. salivation pathway.

A

parasympathetics from glossopharyngeal onto otic ganglion. postganglioncs travel via auricotemporal n. to parotid.

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46
Q

therapeutic radiation initiates cell death by (2)

A

(1) DNA double strand breakage (2) formation of free radicals (from ionization of water – cause cellular and DNA damage). particularly hurts rapidly dividing cells

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47
Q

DNA crosslinking caused by (chemo)..

A

alkylating agents

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48
Q

DNA damage from exposure to UV radiation?

A

pyrimidine-pyrimidine dimers

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49
Q

among drugs of abuse, which is most likely to induce violent behavior?

A

PCP

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50
Q

fatalities associated w/ PCP abuse usu associated w..

A

TRAUMA, not from intoxication itself.

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51
Q

PCP causes.. (4)

A

(1) belligerence (2) loss of coordination (3) NYSTAGMUS (4) acute brain syndrome: disorientation, poor judgement, memory loss). can cause seizures too. DIE FROM TRAUMA

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52
Q

cocaine intoxication can cause

A

MI

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53
Q

seizures and strokes are common neurologic sequelae

A

cocaine & amphetamines

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54
Q

bath salts

A

amphetamines

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55
Q

statin side effects

A

myopathy and hepatitis. associated w/ liver function test abnormalities. monitor LFTs!

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56
Q

monitoring LFT w/ statin guidelines

A

LFT before starting. no need for routine monitoring unless signs of liver dysfxn develop (fatigue, malaise, anorexia). hepatotoxicity usu 3 months of starting statin therapy.

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57
Q

statins ought be used w/ caution in..

A

patients on other adrenal enzyme inhibitors (ketoconazole, aminoglutethimide)

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58
Q

sign of hepatoxicity on statins

A

fatigue, malaise, anorexia

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59
Q

3 portacaval anastomoses. clinical manifestation: portal circulation –> systemic circulation

A

(1) esophageal varices: left gastric vein –> esophageal vein (2) hemorrhoids: superior rectal vein –> middle/inferior rectal veins (3) caput medusae: paraumbilical veins –> superior & inferior epigastric veins

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60
Q

TIPs procedure

A

transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt. shunt portal vein to hepatic vein percutaneously.

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61
Q

middle colic vein

A

drains transverse colon

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62
Q

right gastroepiploic vein

A

drains venous blood from lower parts of the anterosuperior and posteroinferior surface of stomach. runs from left to right along greater curvature of stomach

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63
Q

portal vein =

A

splenic vein + superior mesenteric vein

64
Q

toxins produced by pseudomonas

A

(1) endotoxin (fever, shock) and (2) exotoxin A (inactivates EF-2)

65
Q

antipseudomonal antibodiotics

A
  • aminoglycosides (gentamicin, tobramycin, amikacin)
  • antipseudomonal penicillins (ticarcillin and piperacillin)
  • 3rd and 4th generation cephalosporins (ceftazidime, cefepime)
  • quinolones (cipro)
  • monobactams (azetreonam)
  • carbapenems (imipenem, meropenem)
66
Q

malignant otitis external infxn? demographic? characteristic finding? what can it lead to?

A

frequently caused by pseudomonas aeruginosa in elderly (non lactose fermenting, oxidase +, motile gram neg rod. exquisite ear pain & drainage.

characteristic finding: granulation tissue seen within the ear canal, w/ intact tympanic membrane. infxn progression can lead to (1) osteomyelitis of skull base and (2) cranial n damage.

67
Q

comma-shaped rod, oxidase +, gram negative, that can grow on alkaline media?

A

vibrio cholerae

68
Q

frequent cause of otitis media: (inflamed, erythematous, bulging, immobile tympanic membrane) in children and adults?

A

nontypable (unencapsulated) H. influenza. gram negative, rod shaped bacterium that requires factor X (hematin) and factor V (NAD+)

69
Q

nitroprusside is a..

A

short acting balanced venous & arterial vasodilator. decreases LV PRELOAD and AFTERLOAD –> allows cardiac output to be delivered at a lower LV end diastolic volume. lower LVEDP (preload), lower mean systolic intraventricular pressure (afterload), without changing stroke volume.

70
Q

LVEDP =

A

preload

71
Q

primary cause of iron deficiency anemia

A

blood loss

72
Q

variation in peak bone mass among individuals is largely accounted for by..

A

80% of variation due to GENETIC FACTORS (environmental factors like Ca++, vitamin D, physical activity play a lesser role,

73
Q

human placental lactogen

A

secreted from syncitiotrophoblast. has structural and biologic properties similar to prolactin and growth hormone.

increases maternal insulin resistance (decreases maternal glucose utilization and increases blood glucose levels –> shunt to fetus)

hPL also increases maternal lipolysis and proteolysis, increasing free fatty acids and ketones –> energy to mother (freeing more glucose for fetus)

74
Q

how do hPL levels change throughout gestation

A

levels rise w/ increasing gestational age & plateau at term (reflecting increased energy requirements of growing fetus)

75
Q

maternal insulin resistance (during pregnancy) caused by..

A

human placental lactogen. also: placental production of growth hormone, estrogen, progesterone, glucocorticoids..

76
Q

what chemical ensures baby gets enough glucose during prengnancy

A

human placental lactogen. causes maternal insulin resistance. more glucose for baby.

77
Q

gestational diabetes mellitus

A

results when a woman’s pancreatic function is not sufficient to overcome this pregnancy-related increase in insulin resistance.

78
Q

oxytocin plays a role in (2)

A

(1) uterine contraction (2) milk letdown reflex

79
Q

how does pregnancy affect total T3 and T4 levels?

A

pregnancy increases levels of thyroid-binding globulin, increasing the total circulating T3 and T4, but free thyroid hormone = normal

80
Q

3 fxns of human placental lactogen (hPL)

A

(1) increase insulin resistance in mom (2) stimulate proteolysis and lipolysis (3) inhibits gluconeogenesis.

81
Q

to make medical decisions, does husband (i.e. next of kin to child/wife) need paper work

A

NO

82
Q

in an emergency situation (i.e. pt is incompetent and perhaps next of kin do not understand gravity of situation (i.e. jehovah’s witness & blood transfusion). default is..

A

give blood / treat accordingly. only stop if there is a clear understanding that pt/kin knows they will die w/o the blood.

83
Q

duodenal villi are covered w/?

A

simple columnar epithelium w/ brush border interspersed w/ goblet cells and APUD (amine precursor uptake and decarboxylation) cells.

84
Q

deeper within lamina propria of duodenum lies..?

A

crypts of Lieberkuhn. simple tubular glands that rest immediately atop the muscular mucosae. deliver secretions into intervillar space.

85
Q

deep to the muscular mucosae (submucosa) lies..?

A

compound tubular brunner’s glands. unique to duodenum. secrete alkaline mucous into ducts that track upward through muscularis mucosae and into the crypts of Liberkuhn for release into the lumen.

86
Q

histology of stomach fundus?

A

numerous gastric pits lined by simple columnar epithelium. base of gastric pits are 2-4 fundic glands, primarily contain parietal cells and chief cells. below glands = muscularis mucosae

87
Q

compare villi of jejunum & villi of duodenum

A

villi of jejunum contain more goblet cells. crypts of Liberkuhn persist in jejunem. heavy lymphocytic infiltration of lamina propria is common here/

88
Q

compare histology of jejunum to ileum

A

ileum similar to jejunum, but ileum has more lymphatic nodules (peyer’s patches) immediately adjacent to villi and crypts

89
Q

colon histology

A

crypts of Liberkuhn persist and heavily populated by mucus-producing goblet cells. NO pits or villi.

90
Q

brunner’s glands specific to…? peyer’s patches specific to…?crypts of liberkuhn specific to…? gastric pits specific to..?

A

brunner’s glands = duodenum. peyer’s patches = ileum. crypts of liberkuhn = small & large bowel. gastric pits = stomach

91
Q

name 3 alpha 1 blockers

A

(BPH and HTN)

doxazosin, terazosin, prazosin

92
Q

thiazides are contraindicated in which 3 patient populations

A

diabetics, gout, hypercalcemia (causes increate reabsorption of glucose, uric acid, and Ca++)

93
Q

calcium channel blockers for HTN (i.e. amlodipine, nifedipine) particularly good for (2)

A

patients w/ vasospasm: Raynaud, Prinzmetal

94
Q

patients w/ coronary artery disease & HTN benefit from.

A

beta-blockers

95
Q

alkaptonuria presentation

A

relatively benign childhood disorder that matures into arthritis in adult life. autosomal recessive. deficiency in homogentisic acid oxidase (normally metabolizes homogentisic acid into maleylacetoacetate). urine black on standing (homogentisic acid is oxidized)

96
Q

accumulation of homogentisic acid

A

in adulthood, deposit in sclera and ear cartilage. also, large joints and spine (ankylosis and motion restriction)

97
Q

how is melanin synthesized?

A

from tyrosine via tyrosinase

98
Q

oseltamavir

A

sialic acid analogue inhibitor of influenza A and B virus neuraminidase

99
Q

Tensilon (edrophonium) test

A

short-acting cholinesterase inhibitor. if improve symptoms –> myasthenia gravis, increase DOSE. if does not work, but has myasthenia, might be in CHOLINERGIC CRISIS (excessive stimulation of skeletal muscles caused refractory period)

100
Q

pralidoxime rx? mechanism

A

used in organophosphate poisoning. regenerates cholinesterase in neuromuscular jxn.

101
Q

enzyme deficiency in classic homocystinuria?

A

cystathione beta-synthase

102
Q

clinical characterization of homocystinuria?

A

ectopia lentis, mental retardation, mafanoid habitus, osteoporosis, vascular problems

103
Q

parental imprinting

A

preferential transcription of genes from one or another homologous pair of chromosomes depending on the parental origin of the chromosome

104
Q

which is the only inhalation anesthetic that is not a respiratory depressant?

A

nitrous oxide. others: decrease tidal volume and minute ventilation –> hypercapnia

105
Q

which inhalation anesthetic is good for asthma patients?

A

halothane & sevooflurane – bronchodilation properties. usu inhaled anesthetics inhibit mucociliary elevator, so must be catious

106
Q

how do fluorinated anesthetics increase cerebral blood flow?

A

reduce vascular resistance in brain, increase ICP

107
Q

characterize renal fxn in general anesthesia

A

decreased GFR and decrease in renal plasma flow.

108
Q

APC mutations (chrom 5) found in (2)

A

(1) most cases of sporadic colon cancer (2) all familial polyposis syndromes

109
Q

MSH2 gene

A

one gene responsible for DNA mismatch repair. implicated in HNPCC, or lynch syndrome

110
Q

parvovirus B19 associated w. (3)

A

(1) erythema infectiosum “fifths disease” (2) aplastic anemia (3) hydrops fetalis if infxn before 20wks

111
Q

major viral causes of acute hepatitis (5)

A

picornaviridae, hepadnaviridae, flaviviridae, deltaviridae, hepeviridae

112
Q

major viruses responsible for bronchitis/bronchiolitis

A

influenza A (orthomyxoviridae), RSV (paramyxoviridae), coronavirus. all RNA

113
Q

rubella (german measles)

A

togavirus

114
Q

which patients depend on efferent arteriole constriction to maintain renal perfusion (and thus, ACE inhibitors are contraindicated)

A

renal artery stenosis, decompensated heart failure, chronic kidney disease, volume depletion

115
Q

heroin and pamidronate can cause what nephropathy (drug induced glomerular disease)

A

focal sclerosing glomerular sclerosis

116
Q

most common agents causing drug-induced (drug induced tubular necrosis) (5)

A

aminoglycosides, radiocontrast media, cisplatin, amphotericin B, fosacarnet

117
Q

which drugs can precipitate in renal tubules (4)? drug-induced tubular obstruction

A

sulfonamides, methotrexate, IV acyclovir, triamterene

118
Q

drug-induced renal interstitial nephritis (8).

A

most common: METHICILLIN. cephalosporins, acetazolamide, allopurinol, sulfonamides, NSAIDs. lithium & cyclosporine – cause chronic interstitial nephritis

119
Q

mechanism of warfarin

A

inhibits vitamin K-dependent carboxylation of glutamic acid residues of clotting fators II, VI, IX, and X. makes dysfxnl coag factors

120
Q

characterize polyarteritis nodosa. what vasculature is unaffected

A

segmental, transmural, necrotizing inflammation. medium to small sized. usu KIDNEY, heart, liver, GI. SPARES pulmonary arteries (& rarely involves bronchial arteries). inflammation results in ischemia, infarction, hemorrhage. bead-like aneursym formation, esp in mesenteric circulation. 1/3 experience livedo retiucarlis & palpable purpura

121
Q

livedo reticularis

A

seen w/ PAN. purplish network-patterned discoloration.

122
Q

erythroid precusror cells in the liver & spleen indicates.. most frequently caused by..

A

extramedullary hematopoesis. most frequent caused by extravascular hemolysis (like beta-thal)

123
Q

describe skeletal abnormalities w/ extramedullar hematopoesis

A

expanding mass of progenitor cells in bone thins bony cortex and impairs bone growth. can see pathologic fractures in children. characterestic “chipmunk facies” – maxillary overgrowth and frontal bossing

124
Q

amatoxins in poisonous mushrooms (i.e. amanita phalloides – death cap) cause..

A

GI absorption –> liver –> active transport by OATP (organic anion transporting polypeptide) and NTCP (sodium taurochloate co-transporter) concentrates in liver cells. bind to DNA-dependent-RNA pol II. HALT MRNA synthesis. 6-24 hrs post ingestion: abdominal pain, vomiting, severe cholera-like diarrhea w/ blood and mucous. acute hepatic and renal failure. urine test: for alpha-amantin

125
Q

ricin (from castor oil plant Ricinus communis)

A

toxin that inhibits protein synthesis by cleaving rRNA of eukaryotic 60S subunit.

126
Q

RNA pol I

A

ribosomal RNA

127
Q

RNA pol II

A

mRNA

128
Q

RNA pol III

A

tRNA

129
Q

glucagonoma

A

rare pancreatic tumor. present w/ (1) necrolytic migratory erythema. elevated erythematous rash typically affecting groin area. other features: (2) hyperglycemia, stomatitis (inflammed mouth sore), cheilosis, abdominal pain, (3) anemia

130
Q

(1) DM (2) necrolytic erythema (3) anemia

A

glucagonoma

131
Q

pancreatic VIPoma

A

vasoactive intestinal peptide. intractable diarrhea, metabolic acidosis, hypokalemia. usu have hypotension secondary to both dehydration and vasodilatory effects of VIP.

132
Q

somatostatinoma (rare pancreatic tumor of delta cells)

A

abdominal pain, gallbladder stones, constipation, steatorrhea. (due to inhibition of insulin, glucagon, gastrin, CCK, secretin, and gastrointestinal motility)

133
Q

patients w. elevated PTHrP have

A

humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy

134
Q

colonic manifestations of CMV

A

multiple ulcers and mucosal erosions. biopsy: cytomegalic cells w/ inclusion bodies

135
Q

colonic manifestations of cryptosporidium

A

nonulcerative inflammation. biopsy: basophillic clusters seen on surface of intestinal mucosal cells

136
Q

colonic manifestations of entamoeba histolytica

A

numerous discrete, flask-shaped ulcerative lesions. biospy: trophozites containing RBCs

137
Q

colonic manifestations of kaposi sarcoma HHV-8

A

reddish/violet, flat maculopapular lesions or hemorrhagic nodules. biopsy: spindle-shaped tumor cells w/ small vessel proliferation.

138
Q

colonic manifestations of ulcerative colitis

A

contiguous area of erythematous, friable, granular mucosa w/ possible pseudopolyps. biopsy: inflammatory infiltrate involving the mucosa & submucosa w/ CRYPT ABSCESSES.

139
Q

kaposi sarcoma (HHV-8) organs affected

A

skin involvement is characterestic, but extracutaneous spread to lungs and GI tract is common.

140
Q

adenocarcinoma histology

A

dysplastic mucosal cells w/ variable degree of gland formation. depending on tumor differentiation.

141
Q

rare but serious adverse effect of ACE inhibitor therapy?

A

angioedema. swelling of tongue, lips, or eyelipds. laryngeal edema and difficulty breathing. due to bradykinin accumulation (potent vasodilator –> increases vascular permeability,

142
Q

most common benign liver tumor

A

CAVERNOUS HEMANGIOMA. typically presents in 30-50 y/o adults. thought to be congenital malformations that enlarge by ectasia – distension/dilation (not hyperplasia or hypertrophy)

143
Q

cavernous hemangioma presentation in liver

A

singly or multiples. well-circumscribed masses of spongy consistency (measure <5cm in width). cavernous blood-filled vascular spaces of variable size lined by single epithelial layer. usu asymptomatic, but can have abdominal pain / right upper quadrant fullness. prognosis = excellent. surgical resection

144
Q

vast majority of hemangiomas are (benign or malignant)

A

BENIGN.

145
Q

regression of hepatic adenomas w/..

A

discontinuation of oral contraceptives.

146
Q

hepatocellular carcinoma can be associated w/..

A

hemochromatosis

147
Q

is biopsy of cavernous hemangioma of liver indicated?

A

NO. known to cause fatal hemorrhage & low diagnostic yield.

148
Q

how does hemoglobin S look on electrophoreses?

A

moves slowly (v. normal hgb) due to loss of negatively charged glutamate.

149
Q

which can be done earlier, amniocentesis or chorionic villus sampling.

A

chorionic villus sampling of placenta

150
Q

increased HR and CO w/ preservation of ARTERIAL partial pressures of O2 and CO2 are most consistent w/..

A

integrated cardiorespiratory response to exercise. venous blood has more CO2 and less O2

151
Q

(1) neuronal cell body rounding, (2) peripheral displacement of nuclei, (3) dispersion of Nissl substance to periphery of cells. why does this happen

A

axonal reaction. cell body edema. central chromatolysis (granular nissl everywhere). visible 24-48 hrs after injury. maximal changes 12-days after injury. changes reflect: increased synthesis of proteins by the cells in order to regenerate severed axon.!

152
Q

severed axon affects

A

both proximal (& cellbody) and distal axon (wallerian degeneration:

153
Q

describe process of wallerian degeneration

A

1st swelling and irregularity in distal segment. within 1 wk, axon destroyed & fragments are digested by Schwann cells & macrophages.

154
Q

axonal reaction is..

A

changes seen in neuronal body after axon is severed.

155
Q

compression atrophy of neurons characterized by..

A

decrease in SIZE and # of neurons

156
Q

degenerative disease loss of neurons characterized by? how does this differ from aging?

A

progressive neuronal loss w/ associated reactive glial changes. AGING: loss of neurons with NO REACTIVE GLIAL CHANGES.

UWorld mixed (60 decks)

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