URR 40 Flashcards

(100 cards)

1
Q

Clubbing of the renal calyces is a sign of:
a. candidiasis infection and mycetoma formation
b. hypernephroma and candidiasis infection
c. transitional cell carcinoma and papillary necrosis
d. chronic pyelonephritis and papillary necrosis

A

d

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2
Q

The caudate lobe occupies much of the ___ surface of the liver
a. posterior inferior
b. posterior superior
c. anterior inferior
d. anterior superior

A

b

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3
Q

The halo sign is a sonographic characteristic of what thyroid abnormality?
a. adenoma
b. complex cyst
c. germ cell tumor
d. papillary carcinoma

A

a

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4
Q

Which of the following will increase the amount of color displayed in the abdominal aorta?
a. increase wall filter
b. increase frame rate
c. decrease color priority
d. decrease color gain

A

b

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5
Q

A 55 year old patient presents for an abdominal sonogram due to a history of weight loss and recurrent pain just after eating. These symptoms are most suggestive of:
a. pyloric canal
b. mesenteric arteries and celiac axis
c. portal system
d. splenic artery

A

b

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6
Q

Prehn sign is used to differentiate what two abnormalities?
a. testicular torsion and epididymo-orchitis
b. renal cell carcinoma and oncocytoma
c. seminoma and yolk sac tumor
d. fungal liver abscess and amoebic liver abscess

A

a

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7
Q

Which of the following best describes the normal Doppler tracing from the renal arteries?
a. low resistance waveform with increased diastolic flow reversal
b. low resistance waveform with increased diastolic flow
c. triphasic waveform with increased diastolic flow reversal
d. high resistance flow with increased diastolic flow reversal

A

b

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8
Q

Which portion of the bladder is in direct contact with the anterior vaginal wall/prostate?
a. dome
b. base
c. fundus
d. apex

A

b

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9
Q

Which of the following describes the appearance of the liver in a patient in the later stages of cirrhosis caused by viral hepatitis?
a. multiple nodules usually 1-5 cm in size
b. diffuse coarse liver echotexture with no nodule formation
c. significant hepatomegaly with diffuse decrease in hepatic echotexture
d. multiple nodules usually >1cm

A

a

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10
Q

What is an absolute contraindication for ethanol ablation of a liver nodule?
a. diabetes mellitus
b. patient allergy to injectate
c. nodule location in central liver
d. nodule location in periphery of liver

A

b

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11
Q

Where is the Dartos muscle and fascia?
a. in the cystic duct
b. in the urinary bladder
c. in the scrotal sac
d. in the abdominal wall

A

c

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12
Q

Primary testicular carcinoma is usually ___ and secondary testicular malignancy is usually ___.
a. heterogeneous, isoechoic
b. hypoechoic, isoechoic
c. unilateral, bilateral
d. hypervascular, hypovascular

A

c

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13
Q

Which of the following will consistently cause an increase in values on liver function tests?
a. focal nodular hyperplasia
b. hepatitis
c. adenoma
d. polycystic liver disease

A

b

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14
Q

A solid nodule in the left lobe of the thyroid measures 2 cm AP and 1 cm width is most suggestive of:
a. papillary carcinoma
b. adenoma
c. anaplastic carcinoma
d. colloid cyst

A

a

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15
Q

Why does the spleen have an increased risk of infarction compared to other abdominal organs?
a. because the intrasplenic arteries do not have communicating branches
b. because it is non-encapsulated
c. because of the small size of the splenic vein and increased risk of stasis thrombosis
d. because there is only one intrasplenic artery

A

a

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16
Q

Which of the following describes the sonographic appearance of hepatic candidiasis?
a. mass formation is described as a wheel within a wheel pattern
b. a large solid mass replaces the caudate lobe and displaces the IVC
c. cystic mass with gravity dependent debris
d. complex cystic mass that typically forms near the porta hepatis

A

a

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17
Q

.While imaging the long axis of the left renal vein, you identify an anterior, somewhat parallel vessel that demonstrates flow moving in the same direction. What vessel is this?
a. splenic vein
b. IVC
c. superior mesenteric vein
d. splenic artery

A

a

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18
Q

Tumor invasion into the urinary bladder is most commonly caused by ____ in females and by ___ in males.
a. uterine cancer, prostate cancer
b. ovarian cancer, testicular cancer
c. uterine cancer, colon cancer
d. colon cancer, prostate cancer

A

a

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19
Q

Air in the gallbladder wall will be demonstrated as areas of hyperechogenicity with posterior shadowing and ring down artifact on sonography. How is this demonstrated on a CT exam?
a. the gallbladder will demonstrate no discernible changes on a CT scan with the presence of air in the wall
b. the gallbladder will demonstrate bright white areas with the wall where the air is present
c. the gallbladder will demonstrate black areas within the wall where the air is present
d. the gallbladder will demonstrate linear spokes of shadowing from the pockets of air in the wall

A

c

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20
Q

While discussing the medical history with a patient, he tells you that the doctor recommended that he increase his intake of vitamin K due to some recent abnormal lab results. Which of the following labs was abnormal?
a. alpha-fetoprotein
b. lactate dehydrogenase
c. prothrombin time
d. red blood cell count

A

c

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21
Q

The Graf classification requires the measurement of ____ to determine the presence of abnormal findings on the ultrasound exam.
a. resistive index
b. vessel diameter
c. end diastolic velocity
d. alpha and beta angles

A

d

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22
Q

Aside from the pancreas, what other organ produces amylase?
A. Salivary glands

B. Adrenal glands
C. Pituitary gland
D. Liver

A

A

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23
Q

Which of the following are vascular complications seen with pancreatitis?
A. Progression of Budd chiari syndrome and the development of congestive heart failure
B. Portal hypertension and biliary strictures
C. Thrombosis of the splenic vein or Pseudoaneurysm of the splenic artery
D. Cholecystitis and phlegmon formation

A

C

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24
Q

The WES sign indicates a diagnosis of:
A. Tumefactive sludge
B. Porcelain GB
C. GB adenocarcinoma
D. Cholelithiasis

A

D

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25
Extrinsic compression of the IVC is an expected finding with: A. Pancreatic pseudocyst or portal hypertension B. Large AAA or large hepatoma C. Congestive heart failure or mass in the diaphragmatic crura D. Congestive heart failure or large AAA
B
26
A patient presents for an abdominal ultrasound to verify findings identified on a CT exam. The CT report indicates numerous cystic structures throughout the liver that do not communicate with the biliary tree or the vascular system. Which of the following best describes the expected us findings? A. Choledochal cysts B. Budd chiari malformation C. Caroli disease D. Polycystic disease
D
27
___ causes abdomen pain 20-30 minutes after eating, while ___ usually causes abdomen pain several hours after eating. A. Cholelithiasis, Cholecystitis B. Pyloric stenosis, appendicitis C. Pyloric stenosis, mesenteric ischemia D. Mesenteric ischemia, cholelithiasis
D
28
A patient presents with a history of Conn syndrome. Which of the following hormone levels will be increased? A. Adrenocorticotropic hormone B. Epinephrine C. Cortisol D. Aldosterone
D
28
While performing an ultrasound of the abdominal aorta the mid and distal portions of the vessel are obscured by bowel gas. Which of the following techniques can be used to improve your visualization of the aorta? A. Scan the patient in the semi-erect position B. Give the patient a laxative and rescan after 60 minutes C. Have the patient drink water and rescan the aorta D. Roll the patient into an oblique or decubitus position and rescan the aorta
D
28
The most important structure to evaluate with a new liver transplant is: A. Portal vein B. Hepatic artery C. Hepatic vein D. Biliary anastomosis
B
28
Which of the following pancreatic abnormalities will cause an increase in insulin levels in the blood? A. Pseudocyst B. Islet cell tumor C. Acute pancreatitis D. Chronic pancreatitis
B
28
Which of the following is an important part of a transrectal ultrasound performed prior to brachytherapy? A. To locate the main arterial branch that is feeding the carcinoma B. To determine prostate size and volume C. To measure the distance from the prostate to the anterior abdominal wall D. To obtain a PW Doppler signal from the base and apex of the gland
B
28
Which of the following vessels follow a retrocaval course in the abdomen? A. Portal confluence B. Left renal artery C. Right renal artery D. Superior mesenteric artery
C
29
Corpora amylacea is a benign condition of what organ? A. Liver B. Spleen C. Kidneys D. Prostate
D
29
Fulminant hepatitis is most commonly caused by: A. Viral infection B. Alcohol abuse C. Fungal infection D. Acetaminophen abuse
D
29
While scanning the thyroid, you identify a 0.6 cm ovoid structure outside the thyroid, lateral to the left carotid artery. The structure has a thin hypoechoic rim surrounding a Hyperechoic center. These findings are most suggestive of: A. Parathyroid carcinoma B. Normal lymph node C. Normal esophagus D. Thyroglossal duct cyst
B
29
Concentric wall thickening of the terminal ileum, hyperemia, and mesenteric fatty proliferation are signs of what GI tract abnormality? A. Appendicitis B. Crohn disease C. Colitis D. Diverticulitis
B
29
Which of the following would be considered a critical finding on a point of care ultrasound? A. Severe pericardial effusion B. Pneumothorax C. Nonobstrutive renal calculi D. 4cm abdominal aortic aneurysm
A
29
What are the most common causes of ascites? A. Congestive heart failure and hepatic congestion B. Urinary and biliary obstruction C. Trauma and invasive procedures D. Cirrhosis and malignancy
D
30
Propagation speed artifact, reverberation artifact, and bayonet artifact are acoustic artifacts seen with: A. Abdominal aortic aneurysms B. Needles C. Abscess formation D. Pneumothorax
B
30
Which of the following will reduce anisotropy artifact? A. Reduce color Doppler gain B. Rocking the transducer C. Dual screen imaging D. Turn off harmonic imaging
B
30
A patient presents with mildly elevated levels of ALT and significantly increased levels of AST. Which of the following is the most likely finding on the ultrasound exam? A. Acute viral hepatitis B. Cirrhosis C. Choledocholithiasis D. Mirizzi syndrome
B
30
A patient presents with a palpable scrotal mass. There is no evidence of fever. AFP levels are normal and beta hCG levels are elevated. These findings are most suggestive of? A. Embryonal cell tumor B. Yolk sac tumor C. Seminoma D. Epidermoid cyst
C
31
Bilateral ureteral obstruction can be caused by? A. Retroperitoneal fibrosis B. Liver mass in the posterior right lobe C. Renal cell carcinoma of the left kidney D. Splenic varices
A
32
The Eiffel Tower sign on ultrasound refers to: A. Duplex kidney B. Normal prostate C. Portal HTN D. Lymphadenopathy
B
32
Which of the following describes a giant cell tumor of the hands? A. Moves with the adjacent tendon with flexion and extension B. Hypoechoic structure that demonstrates posterior enhancement C. Does not move with the adjacent tendon with flexion and extension D. Anechoic structure that demonstrates posterior shadowing
C
32
Splenic atrophy in adults is often associated with: A. Sickle cell anemia B. Typhoid fever C. Splenitis D. Tuberculosis
A
33
Which of the following correctly describes why the arcuate arteries are not easily or accurately evaluated by PW Doppler? A. Because the blood flows perpendicular to the Doppler sound beam B. Because the blood flows parallel to the Doppler sound beam C. The renal capsule attenuates the Doppler signal so only limited information is reflected to the probe D. Because the flow is very low resistance
A
34
Massive splenomegaly is defined as a spleen that exceeds ___in length A. 20 cm B. 15 cm C. 13 cm D. 23 cm
A
35
___ artery aneurysms are commonly associated with pancreatitis and peptic ulcer disease, while ___ artery aneurysms are caused by cystic medial necrosis. A. Celiac, hepatic B. Celiac, superior mesenteric C. Hepatic, splenic D. Splenic, superior mesenteric
D
36
___ refers to a rare genetic disorder characterized by visceral cysts, renal and pancreatic cysts, benign masses, and the potential for malignant transformation in multiple organ systems. A. Edward’s syndrome B. Polycystic disease C. Von Hippel Lindau syndrome D. Older-Weber-Rendu syndrome
C
37
Acute pain in the RLQ is commonly associated with ___, while acute pain in the LLQ is commonly associated with ___. A. Appendicitis, irritable bowel syndrome B. Diverticulitis, irritable bowel syndrome C. Appendicitis, cecal colitis D. Appendicitis, diverticulitis
D
38
A porcelain gb causes an increase in the patients risk for ___. A. Sclerosing cholangitis B. Primary carcinoma C. Adenomyomatosis D. Choledocholithiasis
B
39
Which of the following foreign body types is better visualized on sonography than with radiography? A. Gravel B. Rose thorn C. Glass D. Broken glass
B
40
Which of the following biliary conditions is the most common cause of acute Cholecystitis? A. Mass in the duodenum B. Pancreatitis C. Stone lodged in the cystic duct D. Hepatitis
C
41
The most common cause of acute renal failure is ___ and the most common cause of chronic renal failure is ___. A. Acute tubular necrosis, renal artery stenosis B. Trauma, renal vein thrombosis C. Acute tubular necrosis, diabetes mellitus D. Renal artery stenosis, renal vein thrombosis
C
42
A 1 year old presents for a testicular sonogram due to a palpable lump. The lab work in the chart indicates high levels of alpha fetoprotein. A mostly solid intratesticular mass is identified in the right testicle. There is a small area of possible necrosis centrally. These findings are most consistent with: A. Lymphoma B. Yolk sac tumor C. Epidermoid cyst D. Seminoma
B
43
Splenic vein thrombosis and splenic artery Pseudoaneurysm formation are vascular complications seen with: A. Zollinger Ellison syndrome B. Renal artery stenosis C. Cirrhosis D. Pancreatitis
D
44
What bacteria is responsible for most infectious processes that affect the kidneys? A. Escherichia coli B. Methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus C. Staphylococcus epidermis D. Staphylococcus aureus
A
45
How is the renal cortex measured correctly? A. Cortical thickness should be measured in the transverse view of the kidney B. Calipers are placed on the peak of the pyramid to the outer edge of the parenchyma C. Cortical thickness is always reported from just the right kidney because it is typically thicker than the left kidney D. Calipers are placed on the base of the pyramid to the outer edge of the parenchyma
D
46
Which of the following lists the branches in the correct order that they originate from the aortic arch? A. Right subclavian right carotid left innominate B. Right innominate left carotid left innominate C. Innominate left carotid left subclavian D. Innominate right carotid left subclavian
C
47
Iodine deficiency is a primary cause of: A. Renal calculi B. Sialolithiasis C. Hypothyroidism D. Cirrhosis
C
48
Demonstration of gastrohepatic and retroperitoneal lymphadenopathy in a patient is most suggestive of: A. Lymphoma B. Renal cell carcinoma C. Gallbladder carcinoma D. Irritable bowel syndrome
A
49
The appendix is normally identified: A. Posterior to the terminal ileum and anterior to the iliac vessels B. Anterior to the terminal ileum and lateral to the iliac vessels C. Only in patients less than 150 pounds D. Originating from the sigmoid colon at the level of the Inguinal ligament
A
50
A patient presents for a thyroid ultrasound due to an incidental finding on a nuclear medicine exam. The report states there is a 2cm hot nodule in the upper left lobe. Which of the following is the most likely finding on the ultrasound exam? A. Complex cyst with peripheral hypervascularity B. Cystic mass C. Solid mass with hypoechoic halo D. Solid mass with microcalcifications and irregular margins
C
51
Which of the following is a common cause of a splenic abscess? A. Gaucher disease B. Cholecystitis C. Endocarditis D. Portal HTN
C
52
Doppler evaluation of the parenchymal arteries is required in patients with: A. Angiomyolipoma B. Acute pancreatitis C. Splenic infarction D. Significant Hydronephrosis
D
53
Which of the following are associated with an increased risk of thyroid malignancy? A. Prominent halo around mass and intranodular cystic changes B. Psammoma bodies and intranodular flow patterns C. Prominent halo around mass and intranodular flow patterns D. Wider than tall mass orientation and intranodular cystic changes
B
54
A biloma is: A. Associated with malignancy of the biliary tree B. A possible complication of left renal surgery C. A collection of bile in the peritoneal cavity D. A congenital malformation of the biliary tree
C
55
The fibromuscular storms of the prostate can be referred to as the __ zone. A. Anterior B. Transitional C. Central D. Peripheral
A
56
Which of the following is related to renal failure and vitamin D deficiency? A. Nephrocalcinosis B. Secondary hyperparathyroidism C. Pulmonary HTN D. Hyperthyroidism
B
57
What structure prevents free fluid in Morison pouch from moving into the subphrenic space? A. Right hepatoduodenal ligament B. Ligamentum teres C. Right coronary ligament D. Falciform ligament
C
58
Acute Cholecystitis can lead to a prominent ___ and its branches with color Doppler evaluation of the thickened gallbladder wall. A. Proper hepatic artery B. Cystic artery C. Left hepatic artery D. Common hepatic artery
B
59
What is the most common symptom of renal cell carcinoma? A. HTN B. Hematuria C. Proteinuria D. Increased AFP
B
60
If a liver mass is located between the middle hepatic vein and the right portal vein, in what lobe of the liver is the mass located? A. Caudate lobe B. Medial left lobe C. Posterior right lobe D. Anterior right lobe
D
61
A pituitary tumor that is causing Cushing disease will cause what lab value(s) to be increased. A. Cortisol only B. Aldosterone only C. Adrenocorticotropic hormone only D. Adrenocorticotropic hormone and cortisol
D
62
The cardiac orifice is: A. The opening by which the esophagus communicates with the stomach B. The opening in the diaphragm that allows the IVC to pass through C. The bare area of the liver that allows the hepatic veins to pass through D. The opening in the diaphragm that allows the aorta to pass through
A
63
Which of the following machine adjustments will produce a more black and white 2D image? A. Reducing monitor contrast B. Increasing compression C. Increasing dynamic range D. Reducing overall gain
B
64
The psoas muscle is ___ to the kidney. A. Posterolateral B. Anterolateral C. Anteromedial D. Posteriormedial
D
65
Which of the following is part of the renal parenchyma? A. Major calyces B. Segmental arteries C. Minor calyces D. Pyramids
D
66
What does the urinary system consist of?
two kidneys two ureters one bladder one urethra
67
Kidneys are ___ shaped
bean
68
Kidneys are ___peritoneal organs
retro
69
Kidneys develop in the _____ and migrate cephalad into the ____
pelvic cavity abdominal cavity
70
The upper poles of the kidneys are usually located at the level of the ____
T12 vertebra
71
The lower poles of the kidneys extend to the level of the ___
L4 vertebra
72
The right kidney is normally slightly ___ than the left kidney
lower
73
The left kidney is usually slightly ___ than the right kidney
larger
74
_____ can be seen posterior to the upper and mid poles of the kidneys
posterior inferior diaphragm
75
triangular muscle that lines both sides of the spine from hips to mid back, seen posterior medial to kidney
psoas muscle
76
flat muscle posterior lateral to the psoas and immediately posterior to the kidney
quadratus lumborum
77
Medially the renal artery, vein, and nerves enter and leave the concave surface through a notch called the:
hilum
78
The ____ is most anterior at the hilum and the _____ is most posterior , with the artery in between these two structures
renal vein renal pelvis/ureter
79
The kidneys move with:
respiration
80
Average adult length of kidneys
9-12cm
81
Average adult width of kidney
4-6 cm
82
Average AP of adult kidney
3-4 cm
83
The length measurements of the kidneys should be within ___ of each other
2cm
84
The upper pole of the right kidney is ___ to the psoas muscle
anterior
85
The lower pole of the right kidney is ____ to the quadratus lumborum muscle
anterior