URR 68 Flashcards

(100 cards)

1
Q

What are intraluminal extensions/folds that increase surface area for absorption in the jejunum?
a. valvulae conniventes
b. hausta
c. diverticulum
d. gastroesophageal junction

A

a

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2
Q

What vitamin is produced by the colon?
a. D
b. K
c. B12
d. A

A

b

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3
Q

The wall of a normal distended bowel segment will demonstrate __ layers and measure ___mm thick.
a. 4, <4
b. 3, <3
c. 5, <3
d. 2, <3

A

c

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4
Q

Which of the following is a hormone that stimulates the digestive system?
a. gastrin
b. secretin
c. cholecystokinin
d. all the above

A

d

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5
Q

Hematocrit levels can be tested to evaluate suspected ___, while white blood cell levels can be tested to evaluate suspected ___.
a. GI bleed, infection
b. diverticulitis, anemia
c. carcinoma, sarcoma
d. infection, anemia

A

a.

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6
Q

Graded compression and deep breathing can be used:
a. to slow peristalsis
b. to displace gas out of the field of view
c. to correct intussusception
d. to correct pyloric stenosis

A

b

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7
Q

The celiac axis branches into:
a. hepatic, renal, and left gastric arteries
b. hepatic, splenic, and left gastric arteries
c. gastric, colic, and splenic arteries
d. splenic, renal, and gonadal arteries

A

b

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8
Q

The seagull sign refers to the:
A. sma
B. ima
c. celiac axis
d. renal arteries

A

c

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9
Q

What causes stenosis in median arcuate ligament syndrome?
a. soft plaque
b. inflamed vessel walls
c. thrombus
d. compression

A

d

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10
Q

Evaluation of what artery is typically performed before and after eating?
a. SMA
b. Renal
c. gastric
d. aorta

A

a

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11
Q

If you locate the renal artery origins in the transverse plane and slide inferiorly, what vessel can be seen coursing anterior to the aorta?
a. IMA
b. SMA
c. Celiac axis
d. gonadal artery

A

A

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12
Q

Which of the following indicates mesenteric ischemia?
a. dilated IMA
b. retrograde flow in the hepatic artery
c. portal venous gas
d. all the above

A

d

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13
Q

The olive, doughnut, and cervix signs are indications of:
a. mesenteric stenosis
b. intussusception
c. pyloric stenosis
d. bezoar

A

c

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14
Q

Patients evaluated for pyloric stenosis are typically __ in age and evaluated with ultrasound with the patient in the ___ position.
a. 2-10 weeks, right lateral decubitus
b. 3-4 months, prone
c. less than 1 month, supine
d. less than 6 months, left lateral decubitus

A

a

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15
Q

Which of the following measurements should be obtained when evaluating a patient for suspected pyloric stenosis?
a. muscle thickness
b. channel length
c. cross section thickness
d. all the above

A

d

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16
Q

Which of the following is evaluated on patients with suspected inflammatory bowel disease?
a. BUN and creatinine
b. PT and INR
c. Fecal testing
d. urinalysis

A

c

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17
Q

Creeping fat and the pseudokidney sign findings associated with:
a. appendicitis
b. Pyloric stenosis
c. Crohn disease
d. all the above

A

c

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18
Q

Acute RLQ pain is commonly associated with ___, while acute LLQ pain is commonly associated with ___.
a. appendicitis, diverticulitis
b. diverticulitis, Crohn disease
c. colitis, diverticulitis
d. diverticulitis, Crohn disease

A

a

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19
Q

Which of the following correctly describes ulcerative colitis?
a. associated with Marfan Syndrome
b. usually affects the jejunum
c. causes portal venous gas
d. all the above

A

c

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20
Q

The normal appendix is identified posterior to the ____ and anterior to the ___.
a. right kidney, terminal ileum
b. terminal ileum, iliac vessels
c. iliac vessels, rectus abdominis
d. left kidney, iliac vessels

A

b

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21
Q

The McBurney sign is associated with ___, while the Murphy sign is associated with ___.
a. diverticulitis, appendicitis
b. appendicitis, Crohn disease
c. Crohn disease, hepatitis
d. appendicitis, cholecystitis

A

d

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22
Q

The appendix can be obstructed by:
a. fecalith
b. coprolith
c. stercolith
d. all the above

A

d

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23
Q

What is the primary purpose for using graded compression during an ultrasound evaluation of the gastrointestinal tract?
a. to cause peristalsis
b. to dislodge an obstruction
c. to evaluate intraluminal thrombus formation
d. all the above

A

a

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24
Q

If the appendix is obstructed by a fecalith, a ___ typically forms.
a. mucocele
b. abscess
c. phlegmon
d. cyst

A

a

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25
Epiploic appendagitis is most likely to be mistaken sonographically for ___. a. pyloric stenosi b. intussusception c. appendicitis d. Crohn disease
c
26
How can you differentiate Epiploic Appendagitis from appendicitis? a. apply color Doppler b. Document the gut wall signature c. ask the patient to perform the Valsalva maneuver d. apply graded compression
b
27
Which GI tract abnormality presents as anemia, dehydration, red currant jelly stool, and leukocytosis? a. pyloric stenosis b. appendicitis c. diverticulitis d. intussusception
d
28
How is midgut malrotation diagnosed? a. documenting the position of the aorta and IVC b. Documenting the position of the SMA and SMV c. Documenting the position of the gallbladder and liver d. documenting the position of the right and left kidneys
b
29
____ and ___ increase the risk of development dysplasia of the hip.
oligohydramnios breech position
30
___ are more commonly affected with developmental hip dysplasia.
females
31
The ___, ___, and ___ form the hip socket.
ilium ischium pubis bone
32
____ is located laterally where the hip socket bones meet.
acetabulum
33
___ is very cartaliginous at birth, allows penetration of US beam
femoral head
34
Ossification of the femoral head begins as early as __ months of age, starts ___ and moves ___
2 centrally peripherally
35
It is important to evaluate infant hips between __ and __ weeks of age
4 6
36
If the infant hips are evaluated too early, the hips are lax due to ___ with birth.
hormonal stimulation
37
If the infant hips are evaluated too late, ___
the femoral head will be too ossified to evaluate with ultrasound
38
Radiography for infant hip evaluation must be used if the patient is older than __ months because of femoral head ossification
8
39
Symptoms of developmental hip dysplasia
hip click of physical exam limited abduction prominent trochanter short femur skin fold assymetry
40
What kind of transducer is used to evaluate infant hips?
5-7.5 MHz linear transducer
41
All scanning of the infant hips is done from the ___ or ___ aspect of the joint
lateral posterolateral
42
The infant hip examination is performed with and without stressing the ___
hip joint
43
Image labels for infant hip evaluation
scan plane neutral or flexed stress or no stress
44
The normal hip should always be seated in the acetabulum when __, __, and __
rest flexed stressed
45
"ball in spoon" appearance
coronal view of infant hips
46
used to measure alpha and beta angles
coronal view of infant hips
47
The coronal view of the infant hips demonstrates:
femoral head within acetabulum
48
Three lines are drawn on coronal image of infant hips for measurements
1. aligned with iliac bone and courses through femoral head 2. extends from the iliac bone along the labrum and the medial aspect of the femoral head 3. extends from the bony edge of the acetabulum to the lateral aspect of the femoral head
49
The alpha angle is measure between lines __ and __
1 2
50
The alpha angle is formed by the ___ to the ____
acetabular roof vertical cortex of the iliac bone
51
The normal alpha angle value is:
greater than or equal to 60 degrees
52
An alpha angle less than 60 degrees suggests ___, ___, or ___
dysplasia subluxation dislocation
53
The beta angle is measured between lines __ and __
1 3
54
The beta angle is formed between the ___ and ___
vertical cortex of the iliac bone triangular labral fibrocartilage (echogenic triangle)
55
The beta angle is not universally used to assess ___
dysplasia
56
Performed by rotating probe 90 degrees to coronal view
transverse view
57
The transverse view of the infant hips is usually obtained with:
hip in flexed position
58
In the transverse view, demonstrates "__" shape formed by femoral shaft and ischium as they surround the femoral head
U
59
Loss of the "U" shape indicates:
hip dislocation
60
attempt to push the femoral head out of the hip socket posteriorly; attempt to see if the hip can be dislocated
Barlow maneuver
61
attempt to reduce an acutely dislocated hip
Ortolani maneuver
62
Positive Ortolani maneuver
palpable "clunk" sound with manipulation
63
visual shortening of the femur(s) when the hip(s) and knee(s) are flexed; asymmetric folds of the skin around the thigh at the hip area may be noted
Allis or Galeazzi sign
64
Gradual migration of the femoral head from the acetabulum because the joint capsule is loose
developmental dysplasia of the hip
65
femoral head moves partially out of the acetabulum
subluxation
66
femoral head moves completely out of the acetabulum
dislocation
67
Developmental dysplasia is more common in ___
first born child
68
Risk factors for developmental dysplasia of the hip
oligohydramnios breech delivery family history foot deformities abnormal clinical exam
69
based on the position of the femoral head related to the acetabulum; uses alpha and beta angles
Graf Classification
70
Alpha angle less than __ degrees suggests abnormal findings
60
71
Alpha angle <__ degrees indicates dislocation
43
72
another technique used to assess for DDH; not as accurate as alpha angle assessment; evaluation of how well the femoral head sits posteriorly within the acetabulum
femoral head coverage
73
Average femoral head coverage
55%
74
Pediatric hip evaluation is performed for signs of ___ or ___
effusion inflammation
75
Symptoms of abnormal pediatric hips
refusal to walk/stand limping hip pain fever
76
When performing a pediatric hip evaluation us a ___ probe in an ___ plane on the __ hip.
linear oblique anterior
77
Normal pediatric hip capsule is _-_ mm thick; should be symmetric between hips
2 5
78
Common cause of hip pain in children
transient arthritis
79
may present with a history or recent respiratory infection, no fever at the onset of the hip pain; treated with anti-inflammatory meds
transient arthritis
80
In septic arthritis, ___ causes __
bacterial infection inflammation
81
Symptoms of septic arthritis
fever increased WBC count hip pain
82
Septic arthritis is considered a medical emergency to prevent ___
long term joint damage
83
Septic arthritis requires us guided ____ for fluid evaluation and is treated with ____
arthrocentesis IV antibiotics
84
composed of dense connective tissue that contains collagen fibers
tendons
85
connective sheath that wraps around each tendon
peritenon
86
____ protects some tendons by maintain flat contact with the bone
Fibrous sheath
87
____ protects some tendons with a double layer of tissue with a small amount of synovial fluid between the layers
Synovial sheath
88
small fluid filled pockets that facilitate tendon movement
synovial bursae
89
What kind of transducer should be used to evaluate tendons?
7.5 MHz-20 MHz linear array transducer
90
___, ___, and ___ (trapezoid FOV) are used to evaluate the length of the tendon.
panoramic view extended field of view beam steering
91
All tendons should be evaluated ___ and with ____.
at rest multiple maneuvers
92
___ views are used for most accurate measurement of tendon thickness
transverse
93
___ is used to reduce speckle and improve boundary visualization
spatial compounding
94
Sonographic appearance of tendons
medium echogenicity with a fibrillar echotexture hyperechoic to surrounding musculature
95
In comparison to tendons, ___ demonstrate a thinner, more compact fibrillar echotexture
ligaments
96
__ demonstrate hypoechoic tissue with echogenic fascial lines within and around the tissue
muscle
97
Nerves are ___ to tendons and ___ to muscle
hypoechoic hyperechoic
98
falsely hypoechoic areas of tendon; occurs when transducer is not completely parallel to the tendon
anisotropy artifact
99
reduced by rocking the transducer to make the face of the transducer more parallel to the tendon
anisotropy artifact
100
Curved tendons can be straightened by:
muscular contraction