URR 70 Flashcards
(100 cards)
1
Q
hematoma within the potential space between the galea aponeurosis and the skull periosteum
A
subgaleal hematoma
2
Q
subperiosteal layer hematoma
A
cephalohematoma
3
Q
A sebaceous cyst in the breast is also known as a:
A
epidermal inclusion cyst
4
Q
A sebaceous cyst is caused by:
A
obstructed sebaceous gland or hair follicle
5
Q
an obstructed sebaceous gland is filled with
A
sebum
6
Q
obstructed hair follicle is filled with:
A
keratin
7
Q
Sebaceous cysts in the breast often occur in the _____, ____, and ___
A
inframammary fold
axillary area
near the areola
8
Q
For proper evaluation of a sebaceous cyst, sonographer may need to use ___
A
stand off pad
9
Q
mammographic appearance sebaceous cyst
A
low density
well circumscribed
small mass
10
Q
A sebaceous cyst of the breast will have a superficial location usually within the ___ layers
A
dermal
11
Q
sonographic appearance of sebaceous cyst
A
hypoechoic
well-defined borders
tract
scattered low level internal echoes with posterior acoustic enhancement
skin thickening may be present
12
Q
Acute mastitis may result from __, __, __ or __
A
infection
trauma
post-surgery
mechanic duct obstruction
13
Q
Acute mastitis most commonly occurs during ____
A
lactation
14
Q
Mastitis that occurs during lactation
A
peurperal mastitis
15
Q
Bacteria invade the ducts through a crack in the nipple caused by breast feeding
A
acute mastitis
16
Q
Acute mastitis is usually confined to one area of the breast but can occur diffusely due to infection carried via __ or ___
A
blood
lymphatics
17
Q
Clinical symptoms of acute mastitis
A
pain
swelling
redness
skin thickening
nipple discharge
enlarged nodes in axilla
18
Q
How is acute mastitis treated?
A
antibiotic therapy
19
Q
mammographic appearance of acute mastitis
A
limited by increased density from edema
lactation leads to glandular proliferation which also increases breast tissue density
20
Q
Acute mastitis will show ___ penetration with ___ attenuation
A
decreased
increased
21
Q
Sonographic findings of acute mastitis
A
increased echogenicity of affected area
blurred fascial planes due to edema/cellulitis
possible mild ductal dilatation
skin thickening with an increase in echogenicity
abscess formation may occur
22
Q
Acute abscess sonographic appearance
A
may be single or multiple
variable shape
poorly defined border
23
Q
Mature abscess sonographic appearance
A
may be single or multiple
variable shape
encapsulated with sharp borders
24
Q
Clinical symptoms of abscess
A
pain
fever
swelling
redness
discharge
leukocytosis
25
mammographic appearance of abscess
appears as a cyst
water density that may have irregular shape and borders
26
sonographic appearance of breast abscess
complex mass, mostly cystic
irregular, thickened borders
posterior enhancement varies
low-level internal echoes or fluid levels
increased color doppler at periphery
27
most common palpable breast mass
cyst
28
most common benign breast neoplasm
fibroadenoma
29
sonographic appearance of breast fibroadenoma
posterior enhancement
oval
smooth, well-defined borders
hypoechoic
homogeneous
horizontal orientation
30
most common malignant breast mass
invasive ductal carcinoma
31
Sonographic appearance of invasive ductal carcinoma
posterior shadowing
irregular margins
indistinct borders
hypoechoic
heterogeneous
vertical orientation
32
Post biopsy/ surgery breast changes
scar tissue
fat necrosis
33
___ causes thickening or scarring of the fatty tissues
fat necrosis
34
All scarring in the breast causes ____ and ____ of the US beam leading to shadowing
increased reflection
reduced penetration
35
most common cause of shoulder pain and dysfunction in patients over 40 years
rotator cuff tear
36
The patellar tendon most commonly detaches from the:
distal patella
37
most commonly ruptured tendon
achilles tendon
38
Achilles tendon most commonly ruptures 3-4 cm from the:
distal insertion at calcaneus
39
Tendinosis is most commonly diagnosed in the __ and ___
knee
achilles tendon
40
most common tumor of the hand but can develop from any joint or tendon sheath
ganglion cyst
41
2nd most common tumor of the hand
giant cell tumor
42
Scalp hematoma is most commonly caused by ____
vacuum assisted delivery
43
Acute mastitis most commonly occurs with ____
lactation
44
Most common palpable breast mass
cyst
45
Most common benign breast neoplasm
fibroadenoma
46
Most common malignant breast mass
invasive ductal carcinoma
47
What is the best age to perform an infant hip ultrasound evaluation?
a. 2-3 weeks of age
b. 4-6 weeks of age
c. 2-3 months of age
d. 4-6 months of age
b
48
When evaluating infant hips with ultrasound, all scanning is performed
a. from the lateral or posterolateral aspect of the joint
b. from the medial or anteromedial aspect of the joint
c. from the anterior aspect of the joint
d. from the superior aspect of the joint
a
49
Images for an infant hip evaluation should be labeled with:
a. scan plane
b. neutral of flexed
c. stress or no stress
d. all the above
d
50
What measurements are obtained to assess infant hip dislocation?
a. diameter of the femoral head
b. volume of the acetabulum
c. alpha and beta angles
d. all the above
c
51
The Graf Classification involves measuring the infant hip angles with the alpha angle measured between __ and the beta angle measured between __.
a. line 1 and 2, line 1 and 3
b. line 1 and 2, line 2 and 3
c. line 1 and 3, line 1 and 2
d. line 2 and 3, line 1 and 3
a
52
In the transverse view of the infant hip, loss of the __ indicates hip dysplasia
a. ball and spoon sign
b. u shape formed by the femoral shaft and ischium
c. ability to differentiate the femoral head from the acetabulum
d. all the above
b
53
A partial dislocation of the infant hip is called:
a. subluxation
b. refraction
c. arthritis
d. diffraction
a
54
What is the primary reason a pediatric hip ultrasound evaluation is performed?
a. evaluate for dislocation
b. evaluate for subluxation
c. evaluate for inflammation
d. evaluate for bony fracture
c
55
Which of the following should be used to show the full length of a tendon?
a. panoramic view
b. extended field of view
c. beam steering (trapezoid FOV)
d. all the above
d
56
Which of the following correctly describes how to evaluate a tendon with ultrasound?
a. transverse views are used for most accurate measurement of tendon thickness
b. comparison views of the affected extremity should be obtained
c. spatial compounding used to reduce speckle and improve boundary visualization
d. all the above
d
57
Nerves are ___ to tendons and ___ to muscle tissue.
a. hyperechoic, hypoechoic
b. hypoechoic, hyperechoic
c. isoechoic, hypoechoic
d. hyperechoic, isoechoic
b
58
What acoustic artifact causes falsely hypoechoic areas in a tendon?
a. refraction
b. reverberation
c. anisotropy
d. clutter
c
59
How can you correct for anisotropy artifact in a tendon?
a. rock the transducer to make the beam more parallel to the tendon
b. contract the muscle connected to the tendon
c. activate coded excitation
d. increase the output power
b
60
When evaluating the tendons of the shoulder, what maneuvers are used?
a. adduction
b. hyperextension
c. internal and external rotation
d. all the above
d
61
Which of the following tendons is located deep to the deltoid fat/bursa, courses over the humerus and between the two biceps tendons?
a. subscapularis tendon
b. supraspinatus tendon
c. infraspinatus tendon
d. teres minor tendon
a
62
Which of the following tendons is located deep to the subdeltoid bursa and superficial to the greater tuberosity?
a. subscapularis tendon
b. supraspinatus tendon
c. infraspinatus tendon
d. teres minor tendon
b
63
Impingement and/or inflammation of the median nerve is called:
a. rotator cuff tear
b. tendinosis
c. tendonitis
d. carpal tunnel syndrome
d
64
Tears in the patellar tendon are typically caused by:
a. running
b. jumping
c. squatting
d. climbing stairs
b
65
The Thompson test is used to evaluate ___ and the Tinel test is used to evaluate ___.
a. Achilles tendon, Median nerve
b. Patellar tendon, Infraspinatus tendon
c. Quadriceps tendon, patellar tendon
d. supraspinatus tendon, teres minor tendon
a
66
A thickened tendon with areas of decreased echogenicity and blurred margins is most suggestive of:
a. partial tear
b. complete tear
c. tendinitis
d. bursitis
c
67
Which of the following is a sonographic characteristic of a foreign body?
a. reactive hyperemia
b. hypoechoic ring around the foreign body
c. shadowing or reverberation artifacts from the foreign body
d. all the above
d
68
What breast mass presents as a palpable superficial lump just beneath the dermal layer that appears hypoechoic on ultrasound evaluation?
a. invasive ductal carcinoma
b. acute mastitis
c. sebaceous cyst
d. fibroadenoma
c
69
What is the most common cause of mastitis?
a. lactation
b. carcinoma
c. viral infection
d. cyst formation
a
70
Which of the following is a sonographic characteristic of mastitis?
a. decreased penetration with increased attenuation
b. increased echogenicity of the affected area
c. blurred fascial planes due to edema/cellulitis
d. all the above
d
71
What is the most common palpable breast mass?
a. cyst
b. fibroadenoma
c. ductal carcinoma in situ
d. invasive ductal carcinoma
a
72
What is the most common benign breast neoplasm?
a. cyst
b. fibroadenoma
c. ductal carcinoma in situ
d. invasive ductal carcinoma
b
73
What is the most common malignant breast mass?
a. cyst
b. fibroadenoma
c. ductal carcinoma in situ
d. invasive ductal carcinoma
d
74
Liver biopsy, renal biopsy, thyroid biopsy, thoracentesis, paracentesis, fine needle aspiration, any procedure that requires a skin puncture
invasive procedure
75
___ and ____ levels should be assessed prior to any invasive procedure
prothrombin time (PT)
International Normalized Ratio (INR)
76
PT and INR are used to assess:
clotting ability of blood
77
Normal INR
0.8-1.1
78
Normal INR for patient on blood thinners
2-3
79
Blood thinners and NSAIDs should be stopped at least __ days before a procedure and resumed __ days after the procedure
7
7
80
___ medication and __ should not be taken the morning of the procedure, but can be taken immediately after the procedure.
Hypertension
insulin
81
___ is required for all invasive procedures
informed consent
82
The informed consent form must be signed ___ to the procedure and ___ physician answers any questions/concerns
prior
after
83
All __ and ___ in a sterile field must be sterile.
item
personnel
84
When is doubt about sterility of an item
throw it out and begin again
85
Items should not be used that have _____ dates
expired sterilization
86
Always monitor the sterile field during the entire procedure; sterile fields become non-sterile if they are:
left unmonitored
87
Tables are considered sterile only:
at and above the level of the table
88
Sterile packages or fields are opened or created as close as possible to:
time of actual use
89
The sterile tray cover can be opened without wearing gloves but the far corner of the top should be ____ to expose the products ____; this prevents you arm from hovering over the supplies to prevent any debris from your person falling into the tray
pulled toward you
facing away from you
90
Sterile packages can be opened with non-sterile gloves, but it any items inside the tray will be touched, ___ must be used
sterile gloves
91
____ must be used to remove items from the tray to prepare them
sterile gloves
92
____ of sterile areas or fields (generally the outer inch) are not considered sterile
edges
93
___ areas are not considered sterile.
Moist
94
contaminated items must be removed ___ from the sterile field
immediately
95
Sterile gowns are only considered sterile:
only in the front, from chest to waist and from the hands to slightly above the elbow
96
____ of the gown are considered non-sterile
cuffs
97
Sterile individuals must pass each other ___ when moving around the procedure room.
back to back
98
The National Patient Safety Standards mandate a ___ be performed before beginning any interventional procedure
time-out
99
time-out information
full name
DOB
type and location of procedure
info documented at bottom of informed consent
time time out was performed
100
the primary factor that determines transducer selection for a biopsy is:
depth of the mass
