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PARAMEDIC SCHOOL > BLOCK 5: MED ADMINISTRATION > Flashcards

BLOCK 5: MED ADMINISTRATION Flashcards

1
Q

what is the insertion of a catheter in to a body cavity, duct, or vessel to allow for blood flow

A

cannulation

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2
Q

what is a bolus

A

single dose administered by IV

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3
Q

what are HRO’s and how are they relevant in medical field

A

high-reliability organization
focuses on double-checks like cross-checking a medication before administration, etc to ensure a single failure does not lead to patient harm

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4
Q

what is medical asepsis

A

preventing contamination from pathogens by using aseptic technique to prevent contamination of a site when performing invasive procedure

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5
Q

what are antiseptics and examples

A

used to cleanse an area before performing invasive procedure like IVs
examples: rubbing alcohol, iodine, chloraprep

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6
Q

difference between antiseptics and disinfectants

A

antiseptics are not toxic to living tissues, disinfectants are

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7
Q

leading cause of disease transmission in healthcare setting

A

needlesticks

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8
Q

how many liters of fluid does a healthy person lose a day

A

2-2.5L

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9
Q

definition of dehydration

A

inadequate total systemic fluid volume

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10
Q

what is the cardinal sign of overhydration

A

edema

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11
Q

what is the benchmark to calculate a solution’s tonicity

A

sodium

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12
Q

what is the concentration of sodium in the cells of the body

A

0.9%

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13
Q

IV solutions are categorized as either ___ or ____ based on their dissolved components

A

crystalloid or colloid

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14
Q

IV solutions are categorized as ___, ___, or ___ based on their tonicity

A

isotonic, hypotonic, hypertonic

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15
Q

what are crystalloid solutions

A

dissolved crystals in water with ability to cross membranes

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16
Q

fluid should be administered to restore ___ not ___

A

perfusion, normal BP level

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17
Q

BP during fluid bolus should be titrated to what

A

90mm Hg systolic

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18
Q

what are colloid solutions

A

contain molecules too large to pass through membranes, draw fluid from cellular compartments to reduce edema

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19
Q

isotonic solutions and their effect on the cell

A

have same sodium concentration of cell
water does not shift - no cell shape change

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20
Q

hypertonic solutions and their effect on the cell

A

greater sodium concentration than cell
water is drawn out of cell - cell may collapse

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21
Q

hypotonic solutions and their effect on the cell

A

lower sodium concentration than the cell
water flows into the cell - causes cell to swell or burst

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22
Q

what is osmolarity

A

concentration of sodium

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23
Q

what common solutions are isotonic

A

normal saline, lactated ringer, D5W

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24
Q

what is third spacing and who is at risk of it

A

abnormal fluid shift into body’s serous linings

patients with burns, trauma, malnutrition, or liver disease that receive a hypotonic solution

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25
Q

what is the best fluid to replace blood loss and why

A

whole blood because it contains hemoglobin to carry oxygen to cells

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26
Q

what is the cannulation of a vein with a catheter to access patient’s vascular system called

A

intravenous therapy

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27
Q

once the protective wrap around IV solutions is removed, it must be used ____

once the pigtail is removed from the port, the IV solution, it must be used ____

A

within 24hrs

immediately or discarded

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28
Q

two ports of an IV bag

A

injection port for meds and access port for connecting administration set

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29
Q

most common prehospital IV volumes

A

1,000 and 500mL

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30
Q

what is the drip size

A

how many drops it takes for 1mL to pass into the drip chamber

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31
Q

microdrop sets

A

60drops per mL

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32
Q

macrodrip sets

A

10-15 drops per mL

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33
Q

what is a volutrol

A

microdrip set that allows you to calibrate the drip chamber with a specific amount of fluid to avoid fluid overload

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34
Q

what is blood tubing

A

macrodrip set for rapid fluid replacement with dual piercing spikes

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35
Q

how to identify valves and bifurcations in veins

A

valves: bumps in vein
bifurcations: where one vein splits into two

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36
Q

why use caution if using IV in leg

A

can put patient at higher risk of venous thrombosis and pulmonary embolism

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37
Q

3 factor’s of catheter size selection

A

purpose of IV, patient’s age, location

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38
Q

what is an over-the-needle catheter

A

teflon catheter inserted over the hollow needle and uses automatic needle retraction after insertion

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39
Q

what is a butterfly catheter

A

hollow stainless steel needle with two plastic wings for handling

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40
Q

how far up from intended puncture site to place tourniquet

A

4-8 inches

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41
Q

what angle to establish and IV at and what angle to advance the catheter at

A

35-45 degrees
15 degrees

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42
Q

change the IV bag when there is approximately __mL of fluid left

A

25

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43
Q

cannulating the EJ vein comes with what high risks

A

puncture of carotid artery with rapidly expanding hematoma and air embolism

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44
Q

what is infiltration vs. extravasation

A

infiltration: escape of fluid into surrounding tissues

extravasation: escape of irritating agent from vessel which causes blistering

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45
Q

what is catheter occlusion

A

physical blockage of a vein or catheter

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46
Q

what are venous spasms caused by

A

severe reaction to administration of irritating meds or fluids

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47
Q

what is phlebitis

A

vein inflammation

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48
Q

what is thrombophlebitis

A

inflammation of a vein related to a blood clot

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49
Q

what is a hematoma

A

accumulation of blood in the tissues surrounding an IV site from advancement of needle entirely through vein

50
Q

what increases risk for injury to nerves, tendons, and ligaments during IVs

A

IV site located near joints

51
Q

how to minimize risk of inadvertent arterial puncture

A

check for a pulse in a vessel before you cannulate

52
Q

what are pyrogenic reactions

A

foreign proteins in infusion solution or administration set that have abrupt temp elevation (as high as 106)

53
Q

what is circulatory overload

A

occurs when excessive fluid volume is administered and can lead to pulmonary edema

54
Q

what is speed shock

A

occurs when medication or solution is rapidly introduced to circulation

55
Q

difference between circulatory overload and speed shock

A

circulatory overload is a volume problem
speed shock is a rate problem

56
Q

air embolism

A

occurs when air enters the bloodstream

57
Q

what is a vasovagal reaction

A

syncope due to sight of blood or needles
drop in BP, decreased blood flow to brain, and brief LOC

58
Q

what is a catheter shear

A

needle slices through the catheter creating a free-floating fragment

59
Q

blood-tube top colors
red
blue
green
lavender

A

red: clot activator in PLASTIC tube
blue: citrate (reversible anticoagulant)
green: heparin
lavender: anticoagulant for blood counts

60
Q

which blood tube do you not shake

A

red topped

61
Q

how many pounds of pressure is required for FAST IO insertion

A

32lbs

62
Q

what is osteomyelitis

A

inflammation of the bone and muscle caused by an infection

63
Q

three primary areas for IO needle insertion

A

proximal tibia, distal tibia, humeral head

64
Q

what is osteogenesis imperfecta

A

congenital disease resulting in fragile bones

65
Q

meter

A

basic unit of length in metric system

66
Q

liter

A

basic unit of volume in metric system

67
Q

gram

A

basic unit of mass in metric system

68
Q

micro number placement

A

5 zeros before number 0.000001

69
Q

milli number placement

A

2 zeros before number 0.001

70
Q

centi number placement

A

1 zero before number 0.01

71
Q

a

A

a

72
Q

1 mcg = ___ mg

A

0.001

73
Q

1mg = __mcg

A

1,000

74
Q

1g = __ mg

A

1,000

75
Q

1kg = __ g

A

1,000

76
Q

1mL = ___ ccs

A

1

77
Q

100mL = __dL

A

1

78
Q

1,000mL = __L

A

1

79
Q

one teaspoon is approximately how many mL

A

5

80
Q

one tablespoon is approximately how many mL

A

15

81
Q

one cup is approximately how many mL

A

240

82
Q

on the celsius scale, water freezes at __ and boils at __

A

0, 100

83
Q

on the farenheight scale, water freezes at ___ and boils at ___

A

32, 212

84
Q

normal body temp in F and C

A

F: 98.6 and C: 37

85
Q

conversion for farenheit to celsius

A

subtract 32 then multiply by 0.555

86
Q

conversion for celsius to farenheit

A

multiply by 1.8 then add 32

87
Q

what does a percentage mean in terms of drug concentration

A

number of grams present in 100mL

88
Q

how far to insert suppository into the rectum

A

1-1.5 inches

89
Q

what is a parenteral route

A

any route other than the GI tract

90
Q

what syringe size is most commonly used for injections

A

3mL

91
Q

what is the hub of a hypodermic needle

A

plastic piece that houses the needle to fit on syringe

92
Q

what is the shaft or cannula of the needle

A

length of the needle

93
Q

what is the bevel of a needle

A

slanted tip at the end of needle

94
Q

what is the opening within the bevel called

A

lumen

95
Q

what are ampules

A

breakable sterile glass containers for single doses of meds

96
Q

what are vials

A

glass or plastic bottles with rubber-stopper top (single or multiple med doses)

97
Q

what is drug reconstitution

A

removing the sterile water or provided diluent from the vial and injecting it into vial that contains the powder to make a solution for injection

98
Q

what is intradermal injection and how to do it

A

administering small amount of med (less than 1mL) into the dermal layer just below epidermis at a 10-15 degree angle with the bevel up

99
Q

what is subcutaneous injections and how to do it

A

given between loose connective tissue between dermis and muscle layer at a 45 degree angle for adult, 90 degree angle for child (2mL or less for adult, 0.5-1mL for kids)

100
Q

what are intramuscular injections and how to do it

A

insert needle through the dermis and subcutaneous tissue into the muscle layer at 90 degrees (up to 5mL in adult, up to 2mL in kids)

101
Q

most common IM injection sites (4)

A

vastus lateralis muscle
rectus femoris muscle
gluteal area
deltoid muscle

102
Q

what is the IV administration set that is connected directly to the hub of the IV catheter and what is generally flowed through it

A

primary line
isotonic solution like saline

103
Q

what is the line that is connected to the continuous infusion

A

“piggyback” or secondary line

104
Q

what is a mechanical device that infuses a precise volume programmed by a clinician called

A

infusion pump

105
Q

IV infusion pumps deliver fluids or meds via ___

A

positive pressure

106
Q

3 alarms equipped on infusion pumps

A

change in flow pressure, presence of occlusions, depletion of medication supply

107
Q

what are percutaneous routes of administration

A

meds applied to and absorbed through skin and mucous membrains

108
Q

how are transdermal medications applied

A

topically

109
Q

where to administer ocular medication

A

on the conjunctival sac

110
Q

what are aural medications

A

meds administered via mucous membranes of aural (ear) canal

111
Q

intranasal meds require ____ times the dose of IV meds

A

2-2.5

112
Q

most common inhaled medication

A

oxygen

113
Q

metered-dose inhalers are also called ___ after the propellant ____

A

HFAs
hydrofluoroalkane

114
Q

which medications can be administered via ET tube

A

LEAN
lidocaine
epinephrine
atropine
naloxone

115
Q

what are nontunneling vascular access devices

A

inserted direct venipuncture through the skin directly into a selected vein

116
Q

insertion and distal end of peripheral inserted central catheters

A

insertion: antecubital vein
distal: superior vena cava

117
Q

insertion and distal end of midline catheters

A

insertion: antecubital
distal: proximal end of extremity

118
Q

insertion and distal end of central venous catheters

A

insertion: subclavian, femoral, or internal jugular vein
distal: vena cava

119
Q

what are implanted vacsular access devices

A

implanted surgically and sutured under the skin

120
Q

what is an arteriovenous fistula

A

connects a vein to an artery

121
Q

when accessing multiple-lumen devices, which ones should be attempted to access first

A

largest in diameter, if same diameter then the most distal lumen

lumen that should be used is usually marked with a #1

PARAMEDIC SCHOOL (74 decks)

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