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Apex Review > Miscellaneous topics 4 > Flashcards

Miscellaneous topics 4 Flashcards

1
Q

A transverse abdominal plane block would be useful for all of the following procedures EXCEPT:
a. inguinal hernia repair
b. appendectomy
c. cystoscopy
d. kidney transplant

A

c. cystoscopy

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2
Q

The TAP block targets the nerves of the

A

anterior and lateral abdominal wall

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3
Q

The TAP block is best suited for abdominal procedures that involve the

A

T9 to L1 distribution

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4
Q

The landmarks for the TAP block form the

A

triangle of Petit:
1. external oblique muscle
2. Latissimus dorsi muscle
3. iliac crest

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5
Q

Potential complications of the TAP block include

A

peritoneal puncture
liver hematoma

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6
Q

Abdominal wall structures organized from superficial to deep:

A

subcutaneous tissue–> external oblique muscle–> internal oblique muscle–> transverse abdominis muscle–> peritoneum

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7
Q

Where should you inject for a TAP block?

A

between the internal oblique and the transverse abdominus

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8
Q

_______________ is pain localized to a dermatome

A

neuralgia

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9
Q

____________ is impaired nerve function

A

Neuropathy

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10
Q

______________ is abnormal sensation described as pins and needles

A

Paresthesia

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11
Q

___________ is abnormal and unpleasant sense of touch

A

Dysethesia

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12
Q

__________ is no pain is sensed in response to a stimulus that produces pain

A

Analgesia

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13
Q

___________ is pain due to a stimulus that does not normally produce pain

A

Allodynia

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14
Q

______________ is a stimulus that is normally expected to produce pain

A

Algogenic

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15
Q

The ________block is used to relieve postdural puncture headache

A

sphenopalatine

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16
Q

The _________- is the only cranial nerve that is enveloped by the meningeal sheath and bathed in CSF

A

optic nerve

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17
Q

Inadvertent local anesthetic injection into the optic sheath is a risk of a

A

retrobulbar block

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18
Q

Regional blocks used for pain management include

A

thoracic paravertebral block
celiac plexus block
superior hypogastric plexus block

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19
Q

The thoracic paravertebral block is used for

A

breast surgery
thoracotomy
rib fractures

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20
Q

The celiac plexus block is used for the management of

A

cancer pain of the upper abdomen

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21
Q

The superior hypogastric plexus block is used for the management of

A

cancer pain of the pelvic organs

22
Q

Complex regional pain syndrome is characterized by

A

neuropathic pain with autonomic involvement

23
Q

The key distinction between type 1 and type 2 complex regional pain syndrome is

A

type 2 is always preceded by nerve injury

24
Q

Pain modulation occurs in the

A

spinal cord

25
Q

These drugs can be used to treat chronic pain because they increase concentrations of norepinephrine and serotonin

A

antidepressants- tricyclics, SSRIs, SNRIs

26
Q

Risk factors for complex regional pain syndrome include

A

female gender
previous trauma
previous surgery

27
Q

Treatment for complex regional pain syndrome is

A

ketamine infusion
memantine (an NMDA antagonist)
gabapentin
regional sympathetic blockade
physical therapy
steroids
amitriptyline

28
Q

Complications of a celiac plexus block include

A

orthostatic hypotension
retroperitoneal hematoma
hematuria
diarrhea
AAA dissection
back pain
retrograde migration of the injectate

29
Q

The most common side effect of prophylactic antibiotics is

A

pseudomembranous colitis

30
Q

Allergic reactions are most commonly caused by

A

beta-lactam antibiotics

31
Q

Is there cross-reactivity between penicillin and cephalosporins?

A

rare-1%

32
Q

__________ and _____________ cephalosporins are associated with the lowest rate of cross-reactivity

A

3rd and 4th generation

33
Q

These antibiotics are contraindicated during pregnancy:

A

chloramphenicol
erythromycin
tetracyclines
fluoroquinolones

34
Q

Giving vancomycin quickly can cause

A

histamine release & hypotension

35
Q

Vancomycin should be administered

A

at a rate of 10-15 mg/kg over 1 hour

36
Q

If a patient reports an allergy to PCN, they can receive

A

cephalosporin if the reaction was not IgE mediated (anaphylaxis, bronchospasm, urticaria) and did not produce exfoliative dermatitis (Stevens-Johnson syndrome)

37
Q

What are examples of aminoglycosides?

A

gentamycin
streptomycin

38
Q

What are risks associated with aminoglycosides?

A

ototoxicity
nephrotoxicity
skeletal muscle weakness

39
Q

What are examples of tetracyclines?

A

doxycycline

40
Q

What are risks associated with doxycycline?

A

hepatotoxicity
nephrotoxicity

41
Q

What are examples of macrolides?

A

erythromycin

42
Q

What are risks associated with macrolides?

A

P450 inhibition

43
Q

What are examples of fluoroquinolones?

A

ciprofloxacin
levofloxacin
moxifloxacin

44
Q

What are risks associated with fluoroquinolones?

A

GI intolerance
tendonitis & tendon rupture

45
Q

What are risks associated with clindamycin?

A

skeletal muscle weakness
allergic reaction

46
Q

What are risks associated with metronidazole?

A

peripheral neuropathy
alcohol intolerance

47
Q

What are risks associated with vancomycin?

A

hypotension following rapid infusion (histamine)
red man syndrome
Stevens-Johnson syndrome

48
Q

Cephalosporins act by

A

disrupting bacterial cell wall synthesis (peptidoglycan)

49
Q

Vancomycin acts by

A

disrupting bacterial cell wall synthesis

50
Q

What is the antibiotic of choice for an active MRSA infection?

A

vancomycin

Apex Review (224 decks)

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