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Flashcards in 9/27 Deck (72):
1

what immunosuppression drug is mainly used for solid organ transplants and inhibits T cella activation

Cyclosporin

2

anticholinergic that treats drug induced parkinsonism

Benztropine

3

what is the mixing of genomic segments in segmented viruses that affect the host cell called

reassortment

4

what is it called when a host cell is infected with 2 viral strains and progeny irons contain unchanged parental genome from one strain and nucleocapsid proteins from the other strain

phenotypic mixing

5

what is it called when there is gene exchange from the crossing over of 2 double stranded DNA molecules

recombination

6

what is the uptake of naked DNA by a prokaryote or eukarytoci cell

transformation

7

incorporation of viral DNA into a host cell chromosome is known as

transformation

8

what is acute cholecystitis caused by

obstruction by a gall stone

9

what gives similar results on repeat measurements and is reproducible

reliable test

10

ability for test to measure what it is supposed to measure is known as

validity ( accuracy)

11

dura mater ends at what level

S2

12

what is the bony attachment site for the sartorius muscle

anterior superior iliac spine

13

what is the bony attachment site for the sacrotuberous and posterior sacroiliac ligaments in the iliac crest

posterior superior iliac spine

14

inactivation of the HFE protein causes

hemochromatosis

15

why does inactivation of the HFE protein cause hemochromatosis

because hepcidin is decreased and the hepatocytes have an increased expression of DMT1 by enterocytes that lead to iron overload

16

patients with hemochromatosis are at an increased risk for what

liver cirrhosis and hepatocellualr carcinoma

17

what protein is known to interact with transferrin receptor to sense iron stores

HFE protein

18

what is bronze diabetes

when body iron level exceed 20 g and there is a triad of
- diabetes mellitus
- skin pigmentation
- micro nodular cirrhosis

19

what is an Anti IgE antibody that is given to people with moderate to severe allergic asthma

omalizumab

20

what is Bortezomib

a proteasome inhibitor that is used in the treatment of multiple myeloma and Waldenstrom Macroglobulinemia

21

name 3 anti TNF-a drugs

infliximab
Etanercept
Golimumab

22

40 s subunit of ribosomes does what

binds mRNA and tRNA

23

60s subunit of ribosomes does what

has peptide transferase which is the enzyme that causes peptide bond formation between amino acids ( protein synthesis)

24

how do ribosomes attach to the RER

via the translocon which is a protein complex that contains ribophorins that bind the large 60s subunit

25

what do the lamellar bodies of type 2 pneumocytes do

they store and release pulmonary surfactant into the fluid layer lining the alveoli

26

where do goblet cells end in the air way

larger bronchioles, then club cells take over

27

particles that lodge distally to the terminal bronchioles where there is no cilia present is cleared by

macrophages

28

what stimulates the granuloma cells inside the follicle to produce estrogen which leads to the rise of estrogen seen in the follicular stage of the menstrual cycle

FSH

29

where is androstenedione synthesized in women

in the theca cells and turned into estrogen in the granuloma cells

30

there is an increased activity of what cells in Crohns Disease

TH 1 cells ( IFN-y, TNF and IL-2)

31

where is crohns most common to be seen

terminal ileum

32

TH1 cells mediate what

delayed hypersensitivity reaction and granuloma formation

33

what cells are involved in ulcerative colitis

TH 2 cells

34

TH 2 cells produce what 4 cells

IL-4
IL-5
IL-6
IL-10

35

what is a non antidepressant drug that treats bacterial infections that has MAOI activity and can cause serotonin syndrome when combines with an SSRI, SNRI or TCA

linezolid

36

what is the triad of serotonin syndrome

- autonomic instability ( hyperthermia, HTN, tacky)
- altered mental status ( agitation and confusion)
- neuromuscular hyperactivity (tremor, hyperreflexia and myoclonus)

37

linezolid treats what

vanco resistant enterococcus and MRSA

38

how does stress incontince present

leaking when coughing, sneezing, or laughing

39

how does urge incontince present

sudden, overwhelming and frequent need to pee

40

how does overflow incontince present

constant involuntary dribbling of urine and incomplete emptying of bladder

41

what can cause a loss of higher center control of micturition and lead to detrusor hyperrefflexia and urge incontince

spinal cord lesions above the sacral region

42

patients with MS usually develop what kind of incontinence

urge

43

flaccid bladder typically occurs in the setting of lower motor neuron lesions seen in situations like

cauda equina syndrome

44

anterior motion of the mitral valve is seen in

HOCM

45

intimal hyperplasia and fibrosis, medial hypertrophy and capillary tufts in a woman between the age of 20-40 is associated with

pulmonary arterial HTN

46

what is the main difference from schizophrenia and schizophreniform disorder

schizophreniform last for less then 6 months

47

levels of EPO in people with polycythemia vera are

low

48

what is the mutation people have who have polycythemia vera

V617 involving JAK2 ( replaces valine with phenylalanine at the 617 position making hematopoietic stem cells more reactive to growth factors)

49

wha does ticagrelor do

it binds ADP receptor on platelets and blocks it

50

what is associated with the first aortic arch

a portion of the maxillary artery

51

what is a derivative of the second aortic arch

stapedial artery ( regresses in humans)

52

what are the derivatives of the third aortic arch

common and proximal internal carotid arteries

53

what are the derivatives of the fourth aortic arch

true aortic arch and subclavian arteries

54

what nerve is nerve associated with the fourth pharyngeal arch

superior laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve

55

what nerve is associated with the first pharyngeal arch

trigeminal nerve

56

what nerve is associated with the second pharyngeal arch

facial nerve

57

what nerve is associate with the third pharyngeal arch

glossopharyngeal nerve

58

what nerve is associated with the 6th pharyngeal arch

recurrent laryngeal branches of the vagus nerve

59

what is the drug used to control carcinoid syndrome

ocreotide

60

carcinoid tumors are mainly where

ileum

61

what is cabergoline

it is a dopamine agonist that is used for prolactinomas

62

what is Leuprolide

it is a GnRH analogue

63

what is the only medicine that reverses both muscarinic and nicotinic effects of organophosphates

pralidoxime

64

patients who are treated with atropine for organophosphate poisoning are still at a risk for what

muscle paralysis

65

polysaccharide vaccine (Pneumovax) for pneumococcus should be given to who and why

adults >65 because it is not immunogenic in children and the antibody levels decline over 5 years

66

anesthetics that have large arteriovenous concentration gradients have what kind of solubility in the tissue

high ( slower onset of action)

67

potent anesthetics have high or low MAC?

low

68

what area of the brain has the greatest amount of atrophy in Alzhemiers disease

hippocampus

69

hyalinization and fibrosis of the seminiferous tubules that cause infertility is seen in what disease

kleinfelter syndrome

70

what is the autosomal recessive disorder that is due to a lack of neutrophil phagosome lysosome fusion resulting in
- neurological abnormalities (nystagmus)
- partial albinsim
- immunodeficiency due to bad neutrophil function

Chediak-Higashi Syndrome

71

x linked disorder that is marked by
- eczema
- immunodeficiency
- thrombocytopenia

Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome

72

what is the immunodeficiency in Wiskott Aldrich Syndrome

combine B and T cell disorder