Gastrointestinal System Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Gastrointestinal System Deck (78):
1

where is iron absorbed

duodenum

2

where is folate absorbed

small intestine

3

where is b12 absorbed

with bile salts in the ileum

4

wha converts trypsinogen to trypsin

enterokinase/enteropeptidase

5

what is a molten receptor agonist that is used to cause peristalsis

erythromycin

6

B cells in the germinal centers of Peyers Patches turn into what

IgA secreting cells that protect the gut from antigens

7

what is the enzyme that turns unconjugated bilirubin into conjugated bilirubin

UDP-Glucuronosyl Transferase

8

complications of Chafas Disease

achalasia
mega colon
cardiomegaly

9

mucosal lacerations at the base of the esophagus that is due to vomiting

malloy-weiss syndrome

10

dysphagia
esophageal webs
iron deficiency

Plummer Vinson Syndrome

11

hypertrophied Ruggae in the stomach associated with protein loss and decreases acid production

Menetrier Disease

12

what is the main difference between angiodysplasa and diverticulosis

constipation

13

familial adenomatous polyposis + osseous and soft tissue tumors
supernumerary teeth

Gardner syndrome

14

FAP + malignant CNS tumor

Turcos Syndrome

15

harmatomas in the g.i. and hyper pigmentation of the mouth, lips, hands and genitalia

Peutz-Jehers Syndrome

16

tumor marker for colon cancer

CEA

17

AST>ALT in non alcoholic liver situations means what

that there is a progression to cirrhosis and fibrosis of the liver

18

what is Budd Chiari syndrome

when there is a thrombotic or non thrombotic obstruction of the hepatic vein that causes hepatomegaly and abdominal pain

19

alkaline phosphatase is elevated in what conditions

bone
biliary obstruction
infiltrative disorders

20

what is Reye Syndrome

rare fatal childhood hepatic encephalopathy that causes fatty liver, hypoglycemia and vomiting

21

what are mallory bodies

intracytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions of damaged keratin filaments found in hepatitis

22

what is hepatic adenoma usually due to

OCP use or anabolic steroids

23

what is angiosarcoma

a malignant tumor of the epithelial cells in the liver that is usually due to exposure to arsenic or vinyl chloride

24

a rare inherited disorder affecting the metabolism of bilirubin, a chemical formed from the breakdown of the heme in red blood cells. The disorder results in a form of nonhemolytic jaundice, which results in high levels of unconjugated bilirubin and often leads to brain damage in infants.

Crigler-Naijar Syndrome

25

a condition where hepatocytes cannot properly secrete conjugated bilirubin into the bile leaving the patient with a black liver

Dubin-Johnoson Syndrome

26

hepatocytes have a problem secreting conjugated bilirubin into the bile but the liver does not turn black

Rotor Syndorome

27

increases levels of uncongugated bilirubin that is usually noticed in adolescent years but doesn't have significant consequences, happens in times of stress

Gilbert Syndrome

28

unknown cause of onion skining bile duct fibrosis with alternating strictures and dilation with beading of the extra hepatic and intrahepatic bile ducts seen in men

primary sclerosing cholangitis

29

autoimmune reactions with lymphocytic infiltration and granulomas and destruction of the interlobular bile ducts

primary biliary cirrhosis

30

extra hepatic biliary obstructions with increased pressure in the intrahepatic ducts seen in people with known obstructive sessions like gallstones

secondary biliary cirrhosis

31

a very aggressive tumor that arises from the pancreatic ducts with a one year survival rate

pancreatic adenocarcinoma

32

what is it called when there are episodes of vessel inflammation due to blood clots which are recurrent and appear in different locations. - associated with pancreatic adenocarcinoma

Trousseau Syndrome

33

What is the MOA of Fidaxomicin

Is a macrocyclic antibody that inhibits the sigma subunit of he RNA POLYMERASE therby stoping protein synthesis and causing cell death. Used to treat c diff

34

Treatment for recurrent c diff

Fidaxomicin

35

Treatment for c perfringens

Doxycycline

36

Recurrent aphthous ulcers, genital ulcer and uveitis

Bechete syndrome

37

what needs to be supplemented into the breast milk after 4 months

iron

38

Lynch syndrome is associated with what cancers

colorectal
ovarian
endometrial

39

FAP is associated with what cancers

colorectal
osteomas/ desmoids
brain

40

Von Hipple Lindau is associated with what cancers

Hemangioblastomas
clear cell real cancer
pheochromocytoma

41

name of inactivated polio vaccine

salk

42

name of activated live polio vaccine

sabin

43

what would a biopsy of someone with lactose intolerance look like

normal

44

atrophy of intestinal villi is seen in what pathology

celiac Disease

45

colon problem where you see non caveating granulomas and abdominal pain is associated with what

Crohn's Disease

46

diffuse infiammatori infiltrates with neutrophilic micro abscesses in the crypt lumina is seen in what disease

U. Colitis

47

Distended macrophages in the lamina propria are a finding in what

Whipple Disease (malabsorptive diarrhea, weight loss, joint pain)

48

what kind of lesions are in the esophagus of someone with HSV

punched out ulcers with eosinophilic nuclear inclusions

49

what kind of lessons are seen in the esophagus of someone with CMV

shallow/linear ulcers with nuclear/cytplasmic viral inclusions

50

Pill induced esophagitis can be caused by what drugs

tetracycline
bisphosphonates
potassium chloride

51

what part of the colon is always involved in HIrscsprung disease

rectum

52

what is a nucleoside antimetabolite drug that interferes with the duplication of viral genetic material and is used in Hep C and RSV

Ribavirin

53

Raltegravir

integrase inhibitor used to treat HIV

54

Indinavir

inhibit viral proteases (HIV)

55

Amantadine

inhibits uncoating of the influenza A viron

56

anti motility agent that works on the u opiod receptor

Loperamide

57

effective for treating central nausea (in acute migrants) and are D receptor blockers

Metoclopromide
Promethazine

58

why are D2 antagonist not the first line treatment for GI upset nausea

Because they can cause heavy sedation

59

ranitidine

H2 blocker that is used to reduce gastric acid secretions

60

what are the most important risk factors for getting squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus

smoking and drinking

61

finley granular, homogenous, dull eosinophilic inclusions that fill the cytoplasm of the hepatocyte "ground glass hepatocyte" is?

HBV

62

when the mucosa of the terminal ileum is inflamed from Crohns, what happens to bile acids?

they are not able to be reabsorbed and become lost in the poo and make the patient susceptible to gall stones

63

describe breast milk jaundice

indirect hyperbillirubinemia that peaks at age two weeks because of an enzyme called beta glucuronidase in breast milk that deconjugates bilirubin

64

what part of the bowel should be biopsied in Hirrschsrpung disease

the SUBMUCOSA of the rectum to see if there are any ganglionic cells

65

pancreatic insufficiency is a problem in what disease

Cystic Fibrosis

66

what is the pancreas like in CF

unable to absorb fats and is obstructed and distended because of blockage by the mucous produces in CF

67

nodular lymphoid hyperplasia of the intestine is seen in what disease

common variable immunodeficiency syndrome (CVID)

68

what is common variable immunodeficiency syndrome

a disorder of low immunoglobulin and B cells that predispose people to recurrent sinopulmonary and GI infections

69

what is the only cytokine with anti-inflammatory properties

IL-10

70

name some inflammatory TH1 cytokines

IL-2 and INF-gamma

71

IL-1 is secreted by

macrophages and epithelial cells

72

what cytokine stimulated humoral response by stimulating differential of B cells and increasing IGA production

IL-5

73

IL-5 is secreted by?

TH2 cells

74

which cytokine is related to the growth of eosinophils and is associated with allergic reactions

IL-5

75

which cytokine induces the differentiation of TH1 cells and activation of NK cells

IL-12

76

pro inflammatory cytokine that is a mediator of promoting leukocyte recruitment and activates the endothelium

TNF- alpha

77

the fraction of those people who truly have the disease amongst the POSITIVE reading people

positive predictive value

78

what can be measured when alkaline phosphatase is elevated to make sure it is elevated due to liver problems and not bone problems

gamma-glutamyl transferace ( because it isn't present in a significant number in bone)