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UWORLD Notecards > Gastrointestinal System > Flashcards

Gastrointestinal System Flashcards

(78 cards)

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1
Q

where is iron absorbed

A

duodenum

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2
Q

where is folate absorbed

A

small intestine

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3
Q

where is b12 absorbed

A

with bile salts in the ileum

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4
Q

wha converts trypsinogen to trypsin

A

enterokinase/enteropeptidase

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5
Q

what is a molten receptor agonist that is used to cause peristalsis

A

erythromycin

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6
Q

B cells in the germinal centers of Peyers Patches turn into what

A

IgA secreting cells that protect the gut from antigens

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7
Q

what is the enzyme that turns unconjugated bilirubin into conjugated bilirubin

A

UDP-Glucuronosyl Transferase

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8
Q

complications of Chafas Disease

A

achalasia
mega colon
cardiomegaly

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9
Q

mucosal lacerations at the base of the esophagus that is due to vomiting

A

malloy-weiss syndrome

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10
Q

dysphagia
esophageal webs
iron deficiency

A

Plummer Vinson Syndrome

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11
Q

hypertrophied Ruggae in the stomach associated with protein loss and decreases acid production

A

Menetrier Disease

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12
Q

what is the main difference between angiodysplasa and diverticulosis

A

constipation

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13
Q

familial adenomatous polyposis + osseous and soft tissue tumors
supernumerary teeth

A

Gardner syndrome

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14
Q

FAP + malignant CNS tumor

A

Turcos Syndrome

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15
Q

harmatomas in the g.i. and hyper pigmentation of the mouth, lips, hands and genitalia

A

Peutz-Jehers Syndrome

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16
Q

tumor marker for colon cancer

A

CEA

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17
Q

AST>ALT in non alcoholic liver situations means what

A

that there is a progression to cirrhosis and fibrosis of the liver

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18
Q

what is Budd Chiari syndrome

A

when there is a thrombotic or non thrombotic obstruction of the hepatic vein that causes hepatomegaly and abdominal pain

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19
Q

alkaline phosphatase is elevated in what conditions

A

bone
biliary obstruction
infiltrative disorders

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20
Q

what is Reye Syndrome

A

rare fatal childhood hepatic encephalopathy that causes fatty liver, hypoglycemia and vomiting

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21
Q

what are mallory bodies

A

intracytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions of damaged keratin filaments found in hepatitis

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22
Q

what is hepatic adenoma usually due to

A

OCP use or anabolic steroids

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23
Q

what is angiosarcoma

A

a malignant tumor of the epithelial cells in the liver that is usually due to exposure to arsenic or vinyl chloride

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24
Q

a rare inherited disorder affecting the metabolism of bilirubin, a chemical formed from the breakdown of the heme in red blood cells. The disorder results in a form of nonhemolytic jaundice, which results in high levels of unconjugated bilirubin and often leads to brain damage in infants.

A

Crigler-Naijar Syndrome

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25
a condition where hepatocytes cannot properly secrete conjugated bilirubin into the bile leaving the patient with a black liver
Dubin-Johnoson Syndrome
26
hepatocytes have a problem secreting conjugated bilirubin into the bile but the liver does not turn black
Rotor Syndorome
27
increases levels of uncongugated bilirubin that is usually noticed in adolescent years but doesn't have significant consequences, happens in times of stress
Gilbert Syndrome
28
unknown cause of onion skining bile duct fibrosis with alternating strictures and dilation with beading of the extra hepatic and intrahepatic bile ducts seen in men
primary sclerosing cholangitis
29
autoimmune reactions with lymphocytic infiltration and granulomas and destruction of the interlobular bile ducts
primary biliary cirrhosis
30
extra hepatic biliary obstructions with increased pressure in the intrahepatic ducts seen in people with known obstructive sessions like gallstones
secondary biliary cirrhosis
31
a very aggressive tumor that arises from the pancreatic ducts with a one year survival rate
pancreatic adenocarcinoma
32
what is it called when there are episodes of vessel inflammation due to blood clots which are recurrent and appear in different locations. - associated with pancreatic adenocarcinoma
Trousseau Syndrome
33
What is the MOA of Fidaxomicin
Is a macrocyclic antibody that inhibits the sigma subunit of he RNA POLYMERASE therby stoping protein synthesis and causing cell death. Used to treat c diff
34
Treatment for recurrent c diff
Fidaxomicin
35
Treatment for c perfringens
Doxycycline
36
Recurrent aphthous ulcers, genital ulcer and uveitis
Bechete syndrome
37
what needs to be supplemented into the breast milk after 4 months
iron
38
Lynch syndrome is associated with what cancers
colorectal ovarian endometrial
39
FAP is associated with what cancers
colorectal osteomas/ desmoids brain
40
Von Hipple Lindau is associated with what cancers
Hemangioblastomas clear cell real cancer pheochromocytoma
41
name of inactivated polio vaccine
salk
42
name of activated live polio vaccine
sabin
43
what would a biopsy of someone with lactose intolerance look like
normal
44
atrophy of intestinal villi is seen in what pathology
celiac Disease
45
colon problem where you see non caveating granulomas and abdominal pain is associated with what
Crohn's Disease
46
diffuse infiammatori infiltrates with neutrophilic micro abscesses in the crypt lumina is seen in what disease
U. Colitis
47
Distended macrophages in the lamina propria are a finding in what
Whipple Disease (malabsorptive diarrhea, weight loss, joint pain)
48
what kind of lesions are in the esophagus of someone with HSV
punched out ulcers with eosinophilic nuclear inclusions
49
what kind of lessons are seen in the esophagus of someone with CMV
shallow/linear ulcers with nuclear/cytplasmic viral inclusions
50
Pill induced esophagitis can be caused by what drugs
tetracycline bisphosphonates potassium chloride
51
what part of the colon is always involved in HIrscsprung disease
rectum
52
what is a nucleoside antimetabolite drug that interferes with the duplication of viral genetic material and is used in Hep C and RSV
Ribavirin
53
Raltegravir
integrase inhibitor used to treat HIV
54
Indinavir
inhibit viral proteases (HIV)
55
Amantadine
inhibits uncoating of the influenza A viron
56
anti motility agent that works on the u opiod receptor
Loperamide
57
effective for treating central nausea (in acute migrants) and are D receptor blockers
Metoclopromide | Promethazine
58
why are D2 antagonist not the first line treatment for GI upset nausea
Because they can cause heavy sedation
59
ranitidine
H2 blocker that is used to reduce gastric acid secretions
60
what are the most important risk factors for getting squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus
smoking and drinking
61
finley granular, homogenous, dull eosinophilic inclusions that fill the cytoplasm of the hepatocyte "ground glass hepatocyte" is?
HBV
62
when the mucosa of the terminal ileum is inflamed from Crohns, what happens to bile acids?
they are not able to be reabsorbed and become lost in the poo and make the patient susceptible to gall stones
63
describe breast milk jaundice
indirect hyperbillirubinemia that peaks at age two weeks because of an enzyme called beta glucuronidase in breast milk that deconjugates bilirubin
64
what part of the bowel should be biopsied in Hirrschsrpung disease
the SUBMUCOSA of the rectum to see if there are any ganglionic cells
65
pancreatic insufficiency is a problem in what disease
Cystic Fibrosis
66
what is the pancreas like in CF
unable to absorb fats and is obstructed and distended because of blockage by the mucous produces in CF
67
nodular lymphoid hyperplasia of the intestine is seen in what disease
common variable immunodeficiency syndrome (CVID)
68
what is common variable immunodeficiency syndrome
a disorder of low immunoglobulin and B cells that predispose people to recurrent sinopulmonary and GI infections
69
what is the only cytokine with anti-inflammatory properties
IL-10
70
name some inflammatory TH1 cytokines
IL-2 and INF-gamma
71
IL-1 is secreted by
macrophages and epithelial cells
72
what cytokine stimulated humoral response by stimulating differential of B cells and increasing IGA production
IL-5
73
IL-5 is secreted by?
TH2 cells
74
which cytokine is related to the growth of eosinophils and is associated with allergic reactions
IL-5
75
which cytokine induces the differentiation of TH1 cells and activation of NK cells
IL-12
76
pro inflammatory cytokine that is a mediator of promoting leukocyte recruitment and activates the endothelium
TNF- alpha
77
the fraction of those people who truly have the disease amongst the POSITIVE reading people
positive predictive value
78
what can be measured when alkaline phosphatase is elevated to make sure it is elevated due to liver problems and not bone problems
gamma-glutamyl transferace ( because it isn't present in a significant number in bone)

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