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X Clinical Veterinary Nursing Theory > Hospitalisation and Nursing of Reptiles, Birds, Fish and Invertebrates > Flashcards

Hospitalisation and Nursing of Reptiles, Birds, Fish and Invertebrates Flashcards

1
Q

what is the name of the organisation which is involved with the rescue and rehabilitation of wildlife?

A

British wildlife rehabilitation council

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2
Q

what are the 3 S’s of wildlife rescue?

A

sure
safety
stress

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3
Q

what is the Sure part of the 3 S’s of wildlife rescue?

A

be sure that you are able to safely catch and provide some sort of care for the animal before you catch it

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4
Q

what is the Safety part of the 3 S’s of wildlife rescue?

A

personal safety comes before the rescue of any wild animal

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5
Q

what is the Stress part of the 3 S’s of wildlife rescue?

A

minimising stress to the animal to maximise chance of survival

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6
Q

how can stress levels of an injured wild animal be reduced?

A

keep warm
dark area
quiet conditions
minimum human contact

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7
Q

what are the main objectives with wildlife rehabilitation?

A

alleviate pain and suffering
restore animal to a state where it is able to return to the wild and survive wherever possible
reduce the impact of man made hazards which cause wildlife casualties
species conservation

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8
Q

what does the abandonment of animals act state about release of wild animals?

A

it is an offense to release an animal into the wild if it doesn’t have a reasonable chance of survival

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9
Q

what is involved in the decision to treat or euthanase wildlife?

A

balance stress of treatment against chance of successful return to the wild
unethical to release animals with the potential for future complications (e.g. orthopedic implants)

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10
Q

who may be able to help with release of wild animals?

A

experienced rehabilitator used if kept over 24hrs

some species need release by a licensed person (e.g. barn owls)

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11
Q

are survival rates of released wildlife good?

A

no - use experienced rehabilitator

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12
Q

what are the benefits of permanent captivity for injured wildlife?

A

imprinted or disabled but otherwise healthy animal is not killed
opportunities for captive breeding in a registered programme may be useful with rare species

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13
Q

what are the disadvantages of permanent captivity for injured wildlife?

A

quality of life is debatable - humans anthropomorphize but it is hard to tell if animals are truly happy
public display of animals to fund-raise can cause stress

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14
Q

what are the benefits of euthanasia of a wild animal that is not well enough to be re-released?

A

wild animal not subject to further stress of captivity

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15
Q

what are the disadvantages of euthanasia of a wild animal that is not well enough to be re-released?

A

can be viewed negatively by the public - particularly those who bring animals in to the practice

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16
Q

what is the balance between in wildlife nursing?

A

appropriate treatment and reduction of suffering

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17
Q

what are the common species of wildlife seen in practice?

A 
birds
hedgehogs
bats
foxes
badgers
deer
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18
Q

what is involved in most treatment of wild birds that are brought into practice?

A

fracture or injury repair

most practices offer first aid and then move on to specialist centre

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19
Q

what injuries are most commonly seen in hedgehogs that are brought into practice?

A 
dental disease
fractures
mites
ringworm
lungworm
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20
Q

why must you be cautious when handling bats?

A

possible zoonotic diseases (rabies)

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21
Q

what issues are often seen with bats in practice?

A

fractures

wing membrane damage

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22
Q

what must you be cautious of if dealing with foxes or badgers in practice?

A

predators and have strong bite

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23
Q

what is the usual prognosis for deer who have been in an RTA?

A

poor - even if they survive collision they are likely to suffer from myopathy due to muscle compression

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24
Q

what is crucial for healthy fish?

A

water quality

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25
Q

why is water quality so important for healthy fish?

A

fish are open systems and there is constant exchange between the fish and it’s surrounding environment - poor water quality or toxins in water will affect fish health

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26
Q

what can cause poor water quality?

A

ammonia not broken down
poor filtration of water
overcrowding

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27
Q

how may fish be viewed by the veterinary surgeon?

A 
in the home pond / tank to see full environment
into practice (double bagged) where there is more equipment and management is easier
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28
Q

how can fish be anaesthetised?

A

inhalational (within the water)

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29
Q

what drugs are often given to anaesthetise fish?

A

local anaesthetics which will have systemic affects due to route of absorption
Phenoxethanol (Vet-ark/Aqua-sed)
MS222 Tricaine Methane

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30
Q

how long can fish be out of water once anaesthetised?

A

5 minutes

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31
Q

where should fish be recovered from anaesthesia?

A

in fresh water from home tank / pond

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32
Q

what will indicate that fish is sedated enough for exam?

A

unable to hold themselves upright in water - laid on side

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33
Q

what diagnostic tests may be performed on fish?

A 
mucus scraping
gill and fin preparations
bacteriology (culture and sensitivity)
blood sampling
radiography
ultrasonography
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34
Q

what can be seen externally on a fish that indicates ulcers or septicemia?

A

pinking on fins

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35
Q

what is mucus scraping on fish used for?

A

detection of parasites

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36
Q

what is involved in fish gill or fin preparations?

A

small snip of fin or gill for testing and microscopy

checking for necrosis or blotches appearence

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37
Q

what is the problem with blood sampling fishes?

A

there are very few/no reference ranges

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38
Q

how may fishes be treated for any diagnosed conditions?

A

in food medication
injection
topical
in water

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39
Q

what are the issues with giving fish medication in/on food?

A

relies on fish eating

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40
Q

where are the injection sites on fishes?

A

epaxial muscles - 45 degrees between scales

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41
Q

how long may injectable drugs remain in a fishes system?

A

up to 3 days due to slow metabolism

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42
Q

what is the issue with giving fish medication in their water?

A

non-specific and will kill bacteria in the filters that remove ammonia

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43
Q

what is the first aid advice that can be given to fish owners over the phone?

A 
test water quality
quarantine affected fish if numbers are low
change 30% of tank water
add salt to reduce physiological stress
stop feeding temporarily to reduce waste
improve aeration
do not add medication indiscriminately
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44
Q

what should be done if tank water has high ammonia (NH4)?

A

add zeolite - absorbs ammonia

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45
Q

what rate should salt be added to tank/pond water to reduce fish stress?

A

2g/L

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46
Q

what is the purpose of changing 30% of tank/pond water?

A

dilution of ammonia or toxins

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47
Q

when must care be taken with addition of saline to tank water?

A

if owner has used formalin

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48
Q

what may indicate water is not well aerated enough?

A

fish gathering around filters

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49
Q

what is ulcer disease in fish secondary to?

A

septicaemia or trauma

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50
Q

what needs to be identified if a fish has ulcers?

A

underlying cause

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51
Q

what is involved in treatment of ulcer disease in fish?

A 
GA
samples taken
debride
clean with iodine and pack
inject antibiotics
correct underlying problem
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52
Q

how may the underlying problem causing ulcer disease in fishes be treated?

A

anti parasitic

improve water quality

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53
Q

what can cause swim bladder issues in goldfish?

A

GI obstruction

air solubility

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54
Q

what may cause gill issues in fish?

A

parsites

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55
Q

what are the commonly kept / seen amphibious species?

A

frogs - tree frog, mantellas, poison arrow
toads - fire bellied toads
salamanders - tiger salamander, Axoloti
newts

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56
Q

why must care be taken with some frog species?

A

produce toxins on their skin (e.g. poison arrow frog)

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57
Q

how should all amphibians be handled?

A

with gloves on to prevent toxin ingestion and protect their skin

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58
Q

how do amphibians regulate temperature?

A

poikilothermic - appropriate temperature must be provided

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59
Q

what are the light requirements of most amphibians?

A

nocturnal so avoid bright lights

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60
Q

do amphibians require UV light?

A

yes - needed for calcium metabolism

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61
Q

do all amphibians require water?

A

yes - some are totally aquatic, others need land and water

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62
Q

what is important about amphibians water?

A

quality is key

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63
Q

what is crucial about humidity for amphibians?

A

high humidity is key but risk of bacterial infections increased

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64
Q

what are the common problems found with amphibians?

A 
water quality poor
skin infections (bacterial or fungal)
Chytridiomycosis
foreign bodies
metabolic bone disease
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65
Q

how can skin infections be prevented in amphibians?

A

clean environment and good ventilation

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66
Q

what is Chytridiomycosis?

A

fungal disease which eats into the skin of amphibians and is hard to treat

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67
Q

what are the most common foreign bodies found in amphibians?

A

pebbles / stones

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68
Q

what is the cause of metabolic bone disease in amphibians?

A

UV light inadequate so bones are deformed

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69
Q

what are commonly kept invertebrate species?

A 
giant african land snails
spiders
millipedes
stick insects
scorpians
bees
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70
Q

what can be dangerous to humans on tarantulas?

A

barbed hairs on back which can be fired off if threatened (may get in eyes and are very hard to remove)

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71
Q

what are common problems seen in invertebrates?

A

shedding difficulties
mites
nematodes
traumatic injuries

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72
Q

what can aid shedding in spiders?

A

humidity / misting

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73
Q

how can mites on spiders be treated?

A

insecticide can kill spiders so Vaseline can be used to prevent / manage

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74
Q

what are nematodes?

A

liquid around mouth which contains worms - stops the animal from eating

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75
Q

what are the treatment options for nematodes on invertebrates?

A

may be zoonotic so euthanasia necessary

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76
Q

how are nematodes transported between animals?

A

insects

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77
Q

how do reptiles regulate body temperature?

A

environmentally - are pokilothermic and ectothermic

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78
Q

describe reptilian skin

A

inflexible, covered in scales and sheds as animals grow

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79
Q

describe the skin of chelonia

A

bony shell which is innervated and has a blood supply

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80
Q

how do reptiles breathe?

A

have no diaphragm so air is drawn into spongy lungs via muscular body movements

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81
Q

will reptile lungs collapse if the chest is damaged?

A

no - lungs do not work through negative pressure so will continue to function if chest is open

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82
Q

what is abdominal surgery referred to as in reptiles?

A

coeliotomy

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83
Q

why is abdominal surgery referred to as a coeliotomy in reptiles rather than laparotomy?

A

they have a single body cavity (coelom) due to the lack of diaphragm

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84
Q

why is reptile health difficult to assess?

A

they hide illness well -adaptive

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85
Q

what are the main parameters to monitor in reptiles?

A 
weight
RR
defecation and urination
activity
shedding
POTZ
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86
Q

what does reptile weight indicate?

A

hydration and general health so should be recorded regularly

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87
Q

describe the respiration rate of exotics

A

slow and shallow

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88
Q

what is key when hospitalising reptiles?

A

control of environmental temperature is vital (POTZ)
heated tank, vivarium or tortoise table used
must be secured

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89
Q

where can lizards have blood samples taken from?

A

ventral tail vein

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90
Q

how can you tell where the ventral tail vein is on lizards?

A

look for landmarks, advance needle to bone and then pull back

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91
Q

why must care be taken when sampling blood from the ventral tail vein of lizards?

A

autotomy

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92
Q

where can blood samples be taken from in snakes?

A

ventral tail vein (difficult as small and hard to access)

cardio-centesis (use doppler)

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93
Q

where can blood samples be taken from in chelonia?

A

right jugular vein is best

can use subvertebral sinus (under carapace)

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94
Q

what is the best method for IV anaesthetic induction in chelonia?

A

subcarapacial sinus - works even if limbs and head are retracted

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95
Q

how can reptiles be medicated?

A 
topical
oral
SC
IM
IV
IO
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96
Q

what is the main method of reptile medication?

A

oral - mouth is often easy to open in small species

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97
Q

what are the challenges with SC injection in reptiles?

A

difficult to do due to in elastic skin

needle needs to be all the way in

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98
Q

when is IM injection used in reptiles?

A

not often - epaxial may be used in snakes

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99
Q

Is IO useful in reptiles?

A

as effective as IV

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100
Q

what can be used for IO administration in chelonia?

A

bridge

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101
Q

what are the routes of fluid therapy used in reptiles?

A 
soaking
oral
intracoelomic
SC
IV
IO
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102
Q

why is soaking of reptiles for fluid therapy effective in chelonia?

A

can be absorbed through cloaca

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103
Q

what is the issue with IV access for fluids in reptiles?

A

difficult to maintain access

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104
Q

what fluid can be given to reptiles?

A

normal saline

Hartmann’s

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105
Q

what is the usual maintenance fluid requirement of reptiles?

A

10-30 ml/kg/day

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106
Q

in what reptiles is a stomach tube best used?

A

chelonia

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107
Q

how should a stomach tube be measured for in chelonia?

A

measure from front of plastron to hinge (between pectoral and abdominal scutes)

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108
Q

what methods of assisted feeding can be used in reptiles?

A

stomach tube

oesophagostomy tube

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109
Q

what food can be given to critically ill reptilian patients?

A

electrolytes and amino acids (Vetark critical care)

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110
Q

what must you be careful of when feeding chronically ill reptilian patients?

A

re-feeding syndrome due to rapid increase in glucose and K+ spike

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111
Q

what should reptilian herbivores be fed?

A

grass based (Oxbow critical care)

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112
Q

what should reptilian carnivores be fed?

A

Hils a/d or carnivore care

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113
Q

what should you feed reptiles if uncertain?

A

home diet is safest

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114
Q

how long can oesophagostomy tubes be in place for in reptiles?

A

up to 2 months

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115
Q

when should analgesia be provided to reptiles?

A

pain difficult to assess
definite response to acute pain
assume if situation likely to be painful that it is an provide analgesia

116
Q

what analgesia can be used in reptiles?

A

NSAIDs

opioids

117
Q

what opioid is used most in lizards?

A

morphine

118
Q

what opioid is used most in snakes?

A

butorphanol

119
Q

what dose of meloxicam can be used in reptiles?

A

0.2 mg/kg

120
Q

how often can meloxicam be given to reptiles?

A

daily or every other day (in green iguanas shown to last 48 hours)

121
Q

how can parasites in reptiles be diagnosed?

A

wet preparation

faecal floatation

122
Q

what worms are commonly seen in reptiles?

A

ascarids

strongoyles

123
Q

what protozoa are commonly seen in reptiles?

A

flagellates
coccidia
ciliates

124
Q

what protozoa are commonly found in herbivore gut flora?

A

ciliates

125
Q

how are flagellates identified?

A

single tail

126
Q

what ectoparasites are seen in wild caught reptiles?

A

ticks

mites

127
Q

are mites common?

A

yes - difficult to get rid of

128
Q

what are the common medical presentations of reptiles?

A 
anorexia
impaction
metabolic bone disease
shell / scale rot
trauma (wounds/burns)
abscesses
retained shed
mouth rot
pneumonia
hypovitaminosis A
renal disease
129
Q

what is the most common medical presentation in reptiles?

A

anorexia

130
Q

what is the first thing that should be checked if a reptile presents with anorexia?

A

POTZ is being met

day length is adequate

131
Q

what can be used to ease reptilian impactions?

A

warm water enema or bath

lactulose

132
Q

what is metabolic bone disease?

A

imbalance between Ca2+ and PO and lack of vitamin D

133
Q

what are the symptoms of metabolic bone disease?

A 
shell deformity
fractures
rubber jaw
weakness
muscle tremors
seizures
134
Q

what is weakness, muscle tremors and seizures due to in reptiles with metabolic bone disease?

A

acute hypocalcaemia

135
Q

what is the treatment for metabolic bone disease?

A

UV light
Ca2+ and vitamin D supplementation
Ca2+ and Vitamin D injection (expensive)

136
Q

what species of reptile suffer most from scale rot?

A

snakes due to contact with the floor

137
Q

how is scale rot treated?

A

iodine and antibiotics

138
Q

how can shell rot be diagnosed?

A

CT scan to check extent of damage

139
Q

what is autotomy?

A

dropping of tail as a defence mechanism

140
Q

can tail amputation be performed in lizards?

A

yes - easy due to autotomy (GA required)

141
Q

how should abscesses in reptiles be treated?

A

solid so cannot simply be drained

need to be surgically removed

142
Q

what is dysecdysis?

A

retained shed

143
Q

what causes dysecdysis?

A

poor husbandry and inadequate humidity

144
Q

where is dysecdysis most often seen in snakes?

A

retained spectacle

145
Q

where is dysecdysis most often seen in lizards?

A

toes, mouths and eyes

146
Q

how can dysecdysis be managed?

A

provide humidity
shedding chamber (lined with warmed, damp flannels)
gently ease of retained shed

147
Q

what is mouth rot in reptiles associated with?

A

shedding issues

dental disease

148
Q

what can hypovitaminosis A lead to in reptiles?

A

eye problems

149
Q

when is renal disease often seen in reptiles?

A

those with chronic anorexia

150
Q

what are the main requirements for parrot husbandry?

A 
perches made from natural branches
regular bathing and misting required
need 12 hour day/nigh cycle
UV light for vitamin D synthesis (African Greys)
enrichment - foraging for food
rotate a variety of toys
151
Q

how can parrots be encouraged to forage?

A

larger pellets that need breakdown

mix food in with inedible items

152
Q

what are the issues with seed based diets for parrots?

A

high in fats and calories
deficient in vitamins and minerals (e.g. vitamin A, B12, K, calcium and iodine)
have a poor calcium:phosphorus ratio
deficient in essential amino acids (e.g. lysine) and pigments, fibre and omega 3 fatty acids

153
Q

what is the health risk associated with poor quality seeds/peanuts in a seed based diet?

A

may be contaminated with fungal spores (e.g. aspergillus if stored over 16% humidity)
can be contaminated with aflatoxins that contribute to liver failure

154
Q

why is coating of seeds with supplement of little value?

A

they are de-husked when consumed so supplement will not be eaten

155
Q

what is the most common cause of disease and reduced lifespan in pet birds?

A

malnutrition

156
Q

what is caused by calcium / vitamin D deficiency?

A

nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism (deformed long bones)
hypocalcaemia can lead to seizures in African greys
production of thin shelled eggs
dystocia (egg binding)

157
Q

how is calcium / vitamin D deficiency diagnosed?

A

radiography to look for pathological fractures and long bone deformity
serum ionised calcium levels

158
Q

how is calcium / vitamin D deficiency treated?

A

calcium / vitamin D supplementation e.g. calcium borogluconate
correct diet
UVB lighting

159
Q

what does obesity cause in birds?

A

hepatic lipidosis
atherosclerosis
lipomas - common in budgies

160
Q

where is obesity commonly seen in birds?

A

amazons, budgies, cockatiels
seed diets
lack of exercse

161
Q

what is caused by hypovitaminosis A?

A

squamous metaplasia (thickening of epithelial surfaces)
secondary bacterial / fungal respiratory infections - sinusitis, rhinitis
rhinoliths which obstruct nostrils
blunted choanal pappillae
salivary gland abscesses
poor skin/feather quality (dry, puretic)
diarrhoea

162
Q

how can birds on seed based diets be converted to pellets?

A

mix pellets with seeds and gradually reduce seed %
limit time seeds offered
place pellets on a mirror - when bird pecks at itself it will eat some of the pellets
disguise pellets (e.g. penut butter)
offer from owners plate
hospitalise bird - feed only pellet and crop tube

163
Q

where is feather damaging behaviour commonly seen?

A

pet parrots
african greys and cockatoos
female birds
condition of captivity

164
Q

what is the cause of feather damaging behaviour?

A

unknown and multifactorial

165
Q

can complete resolution of feather damaging behaviour be achieved?

A

no - manage owner expectation

166
Q

what is the first thing to rule out when dealing with feather damaging behaviour?

A

rule out medical causes using appropriate diagnostic tests

167
Q

how can feather damaging behaviour be treated if not medical issue?

A

implement husbandry / environmental changes (foraging)

last resort diagnose as behavioral which is difficult to treat - client confidence and compliance is key

168
Q

how can the environment of a feather damaging bird be improved to try and reduce the behaviour?

A

diet change to pellets
increase humidity to prevent dry skin - spray daily, encourage to bathe
allow max 12 hours of light
UVB light provision
improve ventilation
no smoking
decrease stress - ensure cage is in secure location

169
Q

why must sick birds be seen immediately?

A

good at hiding signs of illness so likely to be very poorly if no longer compensating

170
Q

what questions should the owner of a sick bird be asked on the phone?

A 
species
diet
age
history
cage type
(can use questionaires)
171
Q

what are the signs of illness in birds?

A

often non-specific
fluffed up, depressed, sleepy - Sick Bird Syndrome
change in water / food intake (anorexia, vomiting, regurgitation)
altered body condition
change in behaviour or activity
change of perching height or on floor
tail bobbing, open mouth breathing - dyspnoea
sneezing
voice change
periocular swelling (sinusitis)
discharge from eyes, ears, nares, oral cavity, cloaca, uropygial gland
wings hanging down
widelegged stance
straining, coelomic swelling
change in droppings - colour, quantity and consistancy

172
Q

what is found in bird droppings?

A

urate
green/brown formed faeces
small amount of urine

173
Q

how should birds be handled?

A

windows and doors closed and extractor fans off
support body and keep wings under control
don’t restrict sternal movement
uses a separate towel for each bird

174
Q

how does catching and restraint of parrots and raptors differ?

A

restrain head and neck first in parrots to avoid bite

restrain feet of raptors first and use gloves not towel

175
Q

what is involved in the clinical exam of birds?

A

systematic approach
stabilise before thorough exam or perform under GA if necessary
prepare equipment before handling the bird
weigh
assess body condition (palpate pectoral muscle mass and SC fat deposits)

176
Q

how should birds be hospitalised?

A

quiet and away from sight/sound/smell of predators
more secure if high up
appropriate perches / substrate
food and water easily accessed from perch
pond/water for waterfowl and baths for other species
tail guard for raptors to prevent soiling / scuffing
don’t keep sick birds in the same air space as other birds or wild birds near pet birds

177
Q

how should sick birds be cared for?

A

keep warm (30 degrees) to reduce energy req (as high MBR)
offer normal / familiar diet even if seed based
need daylight as diurnal birds will not eat in the dark
weigh daily (same time each day)
fluid therapy, analgesia and crop tubing needed
minimise stress and handling time
barrier nursing
hygiene and biosecurity considerations including zoonosis

178
Q

why do birds need higher doses and frequencies of drugs compared to mammals?

A

high MBR

179
Q

why is putting treatments in birds water not reliable?

A

bird may stop drinking

180
Q

what are the routes of administration of mediation?

A

oral - crop tubing
flushing sinuses / nares for URT infections
nebulisation of LRT
injection

181
Q

should topical medication application be used in birds?

A

no - will affect feather structure and may be ingested during preening

182
Q

what is the aim of crop tubing / gavage?

A

nutritional support for sick birds

183
Q

hat can crop tubes be made of?

A

metal for parrots

plastic /silicone

184
Q

how often should birds be crop tubed?

A

every 2-8 hours depending on species

185
Q

how is crop tubing performed?

A

use largest tube possible to avoid trachea
extend neck and pass tube into left side of mouth, over the tongue and into the oesophagus
palpate right side base of neck to confirm the tube is in the crop (feel seperate trachea)

186
Q

what temperature should food for crop tubing be at?

A

38-40 degrees

187
Q

what food should be used for crop tubing?

A

hand rearing formula

188
Q

what are the main injection sites in birds?

A

SC- inguinal fold, interscapular region
IM - distal 3rd of pectoral muscles (avoiding large pectoral artery)
IV - R jugular, basilic, metatarsal
IO - ulna or tibiotarsus

189
Q

what bones should not be used for IO therapy?

A

humerus and femur and pneumatised

190
Q

what are the fluid maintenance requirements in birds?

A

50-100 ml/kg per day (higher for passerines)

191
Q

what type of fluids should be given to birds?

A

lactated ringers

192
Q

what level of dehydration should it be assumed that all sick birds are?

A

5-10%

193
Q

how should dehydration deficit be replaced in birds?

A

maintenance and 1/2 deficit on day 1

maintenance and rest of deficit over days 2 and 3

194
Q

how can fluids be given in birds?

A

oral (crop tube)
SC
IV - bolus or infusion (bolus more common as catheterisation difficult)
IO- avoiding pneumatised bones

195
Q

what are the diagnostic procedures used in birds?

A 
radiography
biochemistry and haematology
PCR, serology
culture
cytology (e.g. crop wash, aspirates, faecal)
faecal parasitology
endoscopy
biopsy
PM exam (useful if flock issues)
196
Q

what are the standard radiographic views taken of birds?

A

R lateral - tape wings up, legs held caudally or 1 forward and 1 back)
VD - extend wings and legs

197
Q

how should radiographs of birds be taken?

A

GA to ensure positioning
orthogonal views
radiograph of normal side (if possible) to compare
barium contrast for GIT and coelomic issues

198
Q

what endoscope is used for endoscopy in birds?

A

2.7mm
rigid
30 degree angle

199
Q

what is endoscopy used for in birds?

A

trachea
upper GI
cloaca
caudal air sac for sexing (uncommon now DNA testing used)
biopsies of lungs, air sacs, kidneys, gonads, GIT, spleen, liver

200
Q

when is blood sampling of birds easier under GA?

A

small, wild or very sick birds

201
Q

what is the issue with using the basilic vein (median elbow) to blood sample)

A

prone to bleeding / haematoma formation - external pressure needed straight away

202
Q

in what birds is the median metatarsal vein best for blood sampling?

A

larger birds

203
Q

what amount of blood can be safely collected from a bird?

A

1% if healthy

less if sick and ensure pressure is applied to prevent additional bleeidng

204
Q

what tube is suitable for haematology in most birds?

A

EDTA or heparin - heparin may be safer as EDTA can cause lysis in some species

205
Q

why are automated blood cell counts of birds unreliable?

A

nucleated so manual method needed fro WBC count and differential
good quality blood smears needed

206
Q

what sinus can be flushed in birds?

A

infraorbital

207
Q

what is infraorbital flushing used for in birds?

A 
treatment of sinusitis
diagnostic samples (e.g. cytology and culture/sensitivity)
208
Q

how is infraorbital sinus flush performed?

A

via nares can be done conscious with bird upside down to prevent aspiration
via needle into sinus - GA only due to proximity to eye

209
Q

what moult is most common in birds?

A

annual after breeding season

210
Q

how does moult occur in birds?

A

usually gradual
ducks loose all flight feathers in one go
psittacines moult continuously

211
Q

why are new feathers fragile?

A

have blood supply which retracts before feather unfurls from sheath
if blood feather is damaged before this it may bleed profusely

212
Q

what is the issue with wing clipping?

A

rarely indicated
never in young parrots
birds can end up with sternal injuries from crash landings when they try to fly
welfare issue - may lead to psychological issues and feather plucking
bird cna still fly / glide away

213
Q

when may wing clipping be useful?

A

while training a dominant or aggressive bird

214
Q

how is wing clipping performed?

A

bilateral to aid gliding
cut primaries leaving 2-3 at the end of the wing
leave cut ends under coverts

215
Q

how is nail clipping of birds performed?

A

with a dremmel (cauterise as you go)

nail clippers with care

216
Q

where is a microchip placed in birds?

A

distal third of pectoral muscles to avoid pectoral artery

217
Q

how is a microchip placed in birds?

A

direct chip downwards

close skin with tissue glue

218
Q

how is euthanasia performed in birds?

A

under gaseous GA
IV pentobarbital into jugular, wing vein or median metatarsal
can use liver if unable to access a vein

219
Q

how should birds be stabilised pre GA?

A

supportive nursing care (crop feeding, IVFT0
keep warm (25-30 degrees) to decrease metabolic demands
analgesia

220
Q

how often should small birds be fed?

A

every 1-2 hours

221
Q

how long should birds be fasted for before anaesthesia?

A 
short times (e.g. 2-4 hours)to decrease risk of regurgitation as likely to become hypoglycaemic
ensure crop is empty
222
Q

how long should budgies be fasted before anaesthesia?

A

30 minutes

223
Q

what is the main way anaesthesia is maintained in birds?

A

inhalational (isoflurane or sevoflurane

224
Q

what is the difference between inhalational agent to induce and maintain anaesthesia?

A

need higher to induce (e.g. 5% iso) and then lower for maintainance (1-3%)

225
Q

should birds be pre-oxygenated?

A

no - causes stress

226
Q

what are masks used for in bird anaesthesia?

A

induction

short procedures

227
Q

what % of tidal volume is the maximum dead space recommended for birds?

A

<10%

228
Q

how can birds glottis be visualised to intubate?

A

pull tongue forwards

229
Q

what are the benefits of endotracheal intubation?

A

provides patent airway
decreases dead space
protects against aspiration
allows IPPV

230
Q

what type of ET tubes must be used in birds?

A

uncuffed

231
Q

why must uncuffed ET tubes be used in birds?

A

prevention of pressure necrosis due to complete tracheal rings

232
Q

what would marked respiratory effort increase in a bird <100g with an ET tube indicate?

A

tube blocked with mucus due to tiny diameter, may need replacing

233
Q

what can be caused by intubation of birds?

A

tracheal mucosal damage

strictures (7-14 days post GA)

234
Q

how can the risk of tracheal mucosal damage by intubation be reduced?

A

care with tube size, position and stability

keep neck straight

235
Q

how can birds be protected from heat loss during anaesthesia?

A 
bair hugger
radiant heat from above
minimise GA time
warmed and humidified anaesthetic gases
warmed fluids
minimal feather plucking
warm table
236
Q

what position is better for birds under GA?

A

lateral recumbancy as ventilation may be decreased in dorsal and ventral recumbancy

237
Q

when may IPPV be needed in birds?

A

for all birds intermittently but especially large birds or those in dorsal
if RR below 4bpm

238
Q

what rate should IPPV be provided?

A

6-12 bpm

239
Q

what should happen to anaesthetic gas levels if procedure is greater than 30 mins in birds?

A

reduce gas % as plane of anaesthesia will deepn over time

240
Q

what is the issue with mask use in waterfowl?

A

can cause apnoea and bradycardia due to stimulation of trigeminal receptors around beak and nares (e.g. dive reflex)

241
Q

what method of induction can be used on waterfowl to prevent the dive reflex?

A

injectable agents e.g. medetomidine

242
Q

what is air sac intubation useful for?

A

head surgery
emergency procedure if tracheal obstruction
allow endoscopy of tracheal issue

243
Q

what is used to perform air sac perfusion?

A

drip tubing or ET tube with holes in side

244
Q

where should air sac tubes be placed?

A

left caudal thoracic air sac behind last rib

245
Q

how long can air sac tubes be left in place?

A

3-5 days if necessary

246
Q

what parameters can be used to monitor bird anaesthesia?

A

RR and character
HR
capnography
pulse ox (look for trends)
BP (indirect only)
temperature (crop, proventriculus or cloaca)
withdrawal reflexes
corneal reflex - maintained at surgical depths but slower
palpebral reflex is less useful and eye position doesn’t change

247
Q

where can a doppler probe be placed on birds to monitor HR?

A

ulnar or metatarsal peripheral arteries

248
Q

what is the best capnography equipment for small birds?

A

sidestream unit with low sampling rates

249
Q

why is assisted ventilation advised in birds?

A

susceptible to hypercapnia

250
Q

where can pulse ox probes be placed on birds?

A

oral or cloacal mucosa

thin areas of skin (e.g. wing web

251
Q

where can a cuff be placed on birds to measure BP?

A

metatarsal region or distal humerus (40% of circumferance)

252
Q

what is normal psittacine BP?

A

90-100 mmHg awake

90-140 mmHg GA

253
Q

at what BP should fluid boluses be given?

A

<90 mmHg

254
Q

what are common anaesthetic complications in birds?

A

hypoventilation
hypothermia
hypoglycaemia
apnoea

255
Q

how should you respond to apnoea in birds?

A

100% O2 or reduce anaesthetic gas

check ET tube patancy

256
Q

is cardiac arrest easy to reverse in birds?

A

no

257
Q

how should birds be managed in anaesthetic recovery?

A 
ventilate with 100% O2
IVFT
swab mucus from oral cavity
wrap in towel to avoid feather damage
keep warm and montior until standing
258
Q

when should birds be extubated?

A

when breathing well
evidence of glottal tone
swallowing / jaw movement

259
Q

when should birds eat after GA?

A

within 30 mins if <100g

ASAP otherwise - crop tube if necessary to prevent hypoglycaemia

260
Q

what may slow anaesthetic recovery in birds be due to?

A 
pre-anaesthetic medication
hypothermia (decreased RR)
hypovolaemia (BP, CRT)
hypoglycaemia
haemorrhage 
pain (RR and HR increase)
261
Q

what are the key points to remember when surgically nursing birds?

A 
avoid hypothermia
pluck feathers (don't cut) and remove minimal (tape back others)
remember bird skin is thin
care with alcohol when preparing op-site
IVFT and analgesia important
262
Q

what is the most common zoonosis carried by birds?

A

Psittacosis

263
Q

what is Psittacosis caused by?

A

Chlamydia psittaci

264
Q

what birds carry Chlamydia psittaci?

A

parrots
pigeons
waterfowl

265
Q

what are the clinical signs of Chlamydia psittaci in birds?

A

conjunctivitis
respiratory signs
hepatopathy
none

266
Q

what are the clinical signs of Chlamydia psittaci in humans?

A

flu like

pneumonia

267
Q

what other zoonotic diseases can be passed from birds?

A

bacterial: salmonellosis
fungal: aspergillosis
viruses: avian influenza
allergic alveolitis (sensitivity to feather dust)

268
Q

how can spread of zoonotic diseases be prevented?

A

hand hygiene

PPE

269
Q

what are the common causes of bird GI tract diseases?

A 
infection
parasites
heavy metal toxicity
malnutrition
obstruction
crop impaction / stasis
sour crop
crop burns (hand reared parrots)
270
Q

what are the signs of GI tract disease in birds?

A 
altered weight / body condition
dysphagia (head flicking and yawning)
crop enlargement / impaction
vomiting / regurgitation
diarrhoea
undigested food mater in faeces
soiling of tail feathers
271
Q

how can GI tract diseases in birds be diagnosed?

A 
faecal smears, crop or pro-ventricular wash for cytology
faecal flotation for endoparasites
culture and sensitivity
PCR / serology
radiography (e.g. barium)
endoscopy
272
Q

what are the causes of respiratory disease in birds?

A 
obstruction
aspiration
inhaled toxins
infection
parasites
allergic/pulmonary hypersensitivity
compression of trachea or air sacs by other structures causing dyspnoea
273
Q

what are the signs of URT disease in birds?

A 
nasal / ocular discharge
swellings (sinuses)
conjunctivitis
sneezing
rhinoliths
274
Q

what are the signs of LRT disease?

A 
cough
dyspnoea
voice change
weight loss
lethargy
tail bob
anorexia
cyanosis
275
Q

how are respiratory issues diagnosed in birds?

A 
haematology
radiography
PCR and serology
culture / cytology of nasal/sinus flush
endoscopy and biopsy
PM exam
276
Q

how may respiratory disease be treated in birds?

A

rule out Chlamydia psittaci
nebulisation
air sac tube placement for obstructive dyspnoea

277
Q

what are the main reproductive diseases seen in birds?

A

egg binding

yolk coelomitis

278
Q

what are the predisposing factors for egg binding?

A

malnutrition (hypocalcaemia)
obesity
excessive egg production

279
Q

why can egg binding be life threatening?

A

compression of pelvic and renal vasculature / nerves / ureters leading to metabolic disturbances and shock

280
Q

what are the clinical signs of egg binding?

A 
depression 
lethargy 
weakness
reduced activity
straining
wide based stance
dyspnoea
leg paresis
decreased frequency of defection
coelomic distension
281
Q

how is egg binding diagnosed?

A

history
egg may be palpable
radiography
biochemistry - ionised calcium

282
Q

how is egg binding treated?

A 
IVFT
crop feed
calcium SC/IM if deficient
provide warmth, dark, quiet
lubrication and manual manipulation
ovocentesis and egg collapse
coeliotomy and surgical removal
283
Q

what birds is egg yolk coelomitis common in?

A

psittacines
chickens
ducks

284
Q

what causes egg yolk coelomitis?

A

yolk is released into coelomic cavity instead of oviduct which leads to inflammatory reaction and secondary infection

285
Q

what is the main trauma type in birds?

A

fractures - leg or wing

286
Q

what can you usually tell from the position of a birds wing?

A

the bone which is broken

287
Q

how should fractures in birds be treated?

A

immobilisation to prevent further soft tissue damage but with the aim to maintain joint function so immobilisation should not be prolonged
wing fractures need figure of 8 bandage and/or body wrap

X Clinical Veterinary Nursing Theory (70 decks)

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