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Flashcards in Review Questions Deck (66):
1

Where is Virchow's node located?

left supraclavicular nodes
could indicate gastric cancer

2

What are the treatments for acute and chronic gout?

Acute: NSAIDs (indomethacin), corticosteroids, colchicine
Chronic: allopurinol, febuxostat, probenecid, colchicine, NSAIDs

3

What is the common triad for sjogren syndrome?

xeropthalmia
xerostomia
arthritis

4

What is the difference b/w polymyositis and polymyalgia rheumatica?

polymyositis: weakness of muscles, increased CK and aldolase, (+) ANA (+) Anti-Jo-1
polymyalgia rheumatica: no weakness, just joint pain. Normal CK & ALdolase

5

What is wrong in myasthenia gravis? Which meds are used to treat it?

acetylcholine receptors are attacked by autoantibodies
increase ACh to treat it via acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
pyridostigmine & physostigmine
diagnosed via echothiophate

6

Embryo origin of the following
smooth part of L & R ventricles
Smooth part of RA
Trabeculated L & R atria
Trabeculated L & R Ventricles

smooth part of L & R ventricles: bulbus cordis
Smooth part of RA: R horn sinus venosus
Smooth part of LA: Primitive pulmonary vein
Trabeculated L & R atria: primitive atrium
Trabeculated L & R Ventricles: primitive ventricles
L horn of sinus venosus-->coronary sinus
R common cardinal vein and R anterior cardinal vein-->SVC

7

Which bacteria secrete enterotoxins?

ETEC
Shigella
Yersinia
S. aureus
V. cholera
Clostridium

8

What is Charcot's neurological triad? What is it indicative of?

Multiple Sclerosis
SIIN
Scanning Speech
Intention tremor
Incontinence
Internuclear opthalmoplegia
nystagmus

9

What is subacute endocarditis? Which organisms are most likely to cause this?

subacute--endocarditis w/ small vegetations on congenitally malformed valves or diseased valves
Mainly think viridans strep
also think enterococci and s. epidermis (usually prosthetic valves tho)

10

What is this?
Obligate anaerobe
Gram +
Spore-forming ROd

Clostridium

11

Why can't aminoglycosides be used for gram + anaerobes? What are they used for?

require O2 to be taken into the cell
used for gram neg.

12

What can fight gram + anaerobes?

metronidazole
clindamycin

13

What does MPTP exposure do?

depletes dopamine in substantia nigra

14

Hemiballismus is caused by a lesion where?

contralateral subthalamic nucleus

15

Which enzyme used in DNA replication has 5->3' polymerase activity, as well as 3'-5' exonuclease activity and 5'-3' exonuclease activity?

DNA pol I

16

What does alkaline phosphatase activity reflect?

osteoblastic activity

17

Which markers reflex osteoclastic activity?

urinary deoxypyridinoline
urinary hydroxyproline
tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase

18

What runs with the posterior circumflex artery?

axillary nerve

19

What runs w/ the deep brachial artery?

radial nerve

20

What runs w/ the brachial artery?

median nerve

21

What is albuminocytologic dissociation?

cell count normal.
protein high
Seen in Guillan Barre Syndrome

22

Give 4 causes of a rash on the palms and soles.

secondary syphilis
rocky mountain spotted fever
coxsackie A virus
kawasaki dx

23

What are lichtenburg figures?

dermatologic pattern indicative of a lightning strike
see branching redness on skin where the electric current traveled

24

Most antipsychotics act on which receptor? What about clozapine?

most--D2.
clozapine--acts on D4.

25

Derivatives of the 3rd aortic arch?

common carotid
proximal part of the internal carotid

26

Derivatives of the 4th aortic arch?

L part: aortic arch
R part: proximal part of the R subclavian artery

27

Derivatives of the 6th aortic arch?

proximal pulmonary arteries
ductus arteriosus

28

What is the flow of aqueous humor?

made by ciliary bodies-->posterior chamber-->thru angle by iris and lens-->anterior chamber-->reabsorbed by canal of schlemm

29

What is the MOA of metoclopramide?

inhibits D2, stimulates 5-HT receptors
stimulates GI motility, good for gastroparesis

30

What are the symptoms of serotonin syndrome ?

muscle rigidity
hyperthermia
cardiovascular collapse (autonomic instability)

31

What are the risk factors for hepatocellular carcinoma?

Hep B, C
hemochromatosis
alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency
hepatic adenoma-OCP
cirrhosis

32

Damage to R optic nerve prior to pretectal nucleus. What happens?

Afferent Defect
R eye light-->no constriction of either eye. Info can't get to pretectal nucleus to message the edinger westphal nucleus

L eye light--> constriction of both eyes. as long as it gets to the pretectal nucleus, both eyes should respond.

33

What are the features of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

muscle rigidity-->myoglobinuria and hyperpyrexia
delirium, mental status changes
autonomic instability-tachycardia

treat w/ dantrolene, inhibits Ca++ release from SR in skeletal muscle, relaxation

34

What are the HTN meds used to treat aortic dissection?

beta blockers

35

What are some causes of ARDS that might not be so obvious?

Heroin OD
acute pancreatitis
high conc'n O2 for long periods of time.

36

Which anti-HTN drugs act on MLCK to decrease BP?

dihydropyridine
epinephrine
prostaglandin E2

37

What are the acute phase cytokines?

IL-1
IL-6
TNFalpha

38

What are the tumor markers for pancreatic cancer?

CA 19-9
CEA: also elevated in gastric cancer

39

What are the 2 nervous tissue bundles in the GI tract ?

Meissner's plexus: submucosa
Auerbach/Myenteric plexus: b/w 2 layers of the mucsularis mucosa

40

Which dx targets the destruction of the anterior horn of the spinal cord?

Polio
West Nile Virus
ALS
Werdnig-Hoffman (spinal musculodystrophy)

41

What is the treatment for nephrogenic DI?

possible cause: Lithium
HCTZ
amiloride (to inhibit lithium)
indomethacin to decrease renal blood flow

42

Does alkalosis mean high extracellular K+ or low?

alKaLosis
K+ low extracellulary
b/c H+ being pushed into serum as K+ is pushed into cells.

43

What is the Z score for 99% confidence interval? 95%?

99%: 2.5
95%: 2

44

What are some causes of restrictive cardiomyopathy?

sarcoidosis
amyloidosis
hemochromatosis
Loeffler disease
endocardial fibroelastosis
post-radiation fibrosis

45

Which substance inhibits RNA pol II in eukaryotes?

Death cap mushroom
alpha-amantin

46

What does WAGR complex stand for?

complications of a Wilms tumor, seen in children
A-aniridia (congenital absence of the iris)
genitourinary malformations
Retardation (mental and motor)

47

What is the change to BMP that you see w/ status asthmatics patients?

they are on beta agonists
get hypokalemia, shift of K+ into cells.
maybe think of repolarization?

48

Which vitamin should vegetarians make sure they get supplemented?

Vit B12

49

Focal myocardial inflammation w/ multinucleate giant cells?

Aschoff bodies, rheumatic fever

50

Eosinophilic cytoplasmic globules near nucleus in liver?

Mallory Bodies, Alcoholic Liver

51

Pseudopalisading tumor?

glioblastoma

52

What is the cup:disc ratio for glaucoma?

>1:2

53

What are the presenting features of meniere's disease?

vertigo
tinnitus
hearing loss

54

What do signet ring cells signify?

gastric adenocarcinoma

55

What does a nutmeg liver signify?

R sided heart failure
Budd Chiari

56

Goal a1c for diabetic patient?

less than 7

57

What is the MOA of the treatment lactulose?

binds up and decreases ammonium levels
good for patients w/ cirrhosis and high ammonium

58

What are painful raised lesions on the finger pads and fever?

Osler's nodes
infective endocarditis

59

Which conditions can cause posterior cervical LAD?

EBV-mono
Cat Scratch Dx-Bartonella
Otitis media

60

What stimulates prolactin secretions?

TRH

61

Pigmented hamartomas of iris?

Lisch nodules
neurofibromatosis

62

Owl's eye protozoan?

Giardia Lamblia

63

Which organism is associated w/ puppy feces?

Yersinia

64

Which organism is associated w/ animal urine?

leptospira
hantavirus

65

Which diseases can cause strawberry tongue?

kawasaki disease
scarlet fever
toxic shock syndrome

66

Which diseases can cause rash on palms and soles?

2ndry syphilis
Rocky Mountain SPotted Fever
Coxsackie A virus