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URR 75 Flashcards

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1
Q

In patients with primary hyperparathyroidism, levels of parathyroid hormone will increase and:
a. serum calcium levels will decrease
b. T3 levels will increase
c. serum calcium levels will increase
d. T4 levels will increase

A

c

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2
Q

Which of the following lists an advantage of fine needle capillary technique over a fine needle aspiration technique?
a. FNC does not require local anesthetic and FNA does
b. FNC aspirates a smaller but more concentrated sample of cells than FNA
c. FNC collects a tissue core while FNA collects a small amount of cells
d. FNC is less traumatic to the tissues than FNA

A

b

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3
Q

The informed consent form is required to include all of the following except:
a. possible complications that the patient may experience
b. signature line to indicate patient consent
c. percentage of patients that have experienced complications after the same procedure at the facility
d. description of the procedure

A

c

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4
Q

If a varicocele is identified on the left side:
a. the porta hepatis should be evaluated for cavernous transformation
b. the IVC should be evaluated for a Greenfield filter
c. the left kidney should be evaluated for renal artery stenosis
d. the left kidney should be evaluated for mass formation

A

d

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5
Q

A patient presents for a thyroid biopsy with a script that states “US guided biopsy, cold nodule”. The patient does not have the report with them but they do have a copy of the NM exam. What are you looking for on the NM exam to locate the nodule to be biopsied?
a. bright red areas of increased accumulation of the radioactive isotope
b. darker areas of increased accumulation of the radioactive isotope
c. white/light areas with absence of accumulation of the radioactive isotope

A

c

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6
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the difference between the sample obtained from a fine needle aspiration and a core biopsy sample taken from the liver?
a. the needle used for the FNA is usually much larger than the biopsy needle
b. the cytology lab evaluates the sample obtained from the FNA. The histology lab evaluates the same obtained from the needle biopsy.
c. FNA procedures are more traumatic to the tissues than needle biopsy procedures
d. Core needle biopsies are more commonly performed for liver masses than to assess parenchymal liver disease

A

b

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7
Q

What transducer would be preferred for the evaluation of sialothiaisis on an average sized patient?
a. 10-12 MHz linear
b. 3-5 MHz sector
c. 3-5 MHz curvilinear
d. 5-7 MHz linear

A

a

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8
Q

When evaluating a patient with a complete thyroidectomy, what is the best way to differentiate level VI nodes from level III/IV nodes?
a. turn the neck to a neutral position and document lymph node position relative to the carotid artery
b. hyperextend the neck and rotate until the chin touches the contralateral shoulder to document lymph node position relative to the carotid artery
c. turn the neck to a neutral position and document lymph node position relative to the angle of the mandible
d. hyperextend the neck and rotate until the chin touches the contralateral shoulder to document lymph node position relative to the hyoid bone

A

a

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9
Q

An area of plaque or thrombus in an artery will be demonstrated as ___ on angiography.
a. a highly reflective area within the vessel
b. a dark black area within the vessel
c. an area of increased concentration of contrast material
d. an area of absence of contrast material

A

d

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10
Q

Which of the following lymph node chains should be evaluated for related metastasis with thyroid cancer?
a. supraclavicular
b. internal mammary
c. axillary
d. pectoral

A

a

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11
Q

A 30 year old presents with history of a normal clinical exam of the scrotum and infertility? What is the referring doctor expecting to find on the US exam?
a. acute epididimymitis
b. varicocele
c. seminoma
d. torsion

A

b

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12
Q

Patients diagnosed with a multinodular goiter will also have:
a. increased T3 and T4, normal TSH
b. increased TSH, Normal T3 and T4
c. Decreased T3 and T4. normal TSH
d. increased TSH, decreased T3 and T4

A

d

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13
Q

Which of the following will help the radiologist select the correct biopsy needle size/length for the biopsy of a mass in the posterior right liver?
a. using color Doppler to locate surrounding vascularity
b. usually the sonographer opens multiple sizes of core biopsy needles and places them on the sterile procedure tray in case they are needed
c. measuring the wide of the mass in the liver
d. measuring the depth of the mass within the liver

A

d

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14
Q

which of the following is a violation of HIPAA policies?
a. discussing exam results with the patient’s physician
b. discussing exam results with the patient
c. sharing an anonymized image from an exam with your Sonography class
d. posting patient symptoms and demographics with an anonymous ultrasound image on social media

A

d

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15
Q

A 65 year old female presents for a neck ultrasound with a script that states hypophophatemia and hypercalcemia. What do you expect to find on the exam?
a. atrophied thyroid gland
b. papillary thyroid cancer
c. medullary thyroid cancer
d. enlarged parathyroid glands

A

d

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16
Q

What is a Point of Care Ultrasound?
a. focused evaluation used to answer a specific question
b. ultrasound exam performed on the same day as the clinical evaluation
c. follow up exam on a known abnormality
d. ultrasound exam performed at the office of the referring physician

A

a

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17
Q

Hypertension, nephrolithiasis, osteopenia, weakness, and malaise are common symptoms of:
a. hyperthyroidism
b. hypoparathyroidism
c. hypothyroidism
d. hyperparathyroidism

A

d

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18
Q

Which of the following scrotal abnormalities would be better displayed if the patient performed the Valsalva maneuver?
a. varicocele and scrotoliths
b. inguinal hernia and adenomatoid tumors
c. testicular torsion and inguinal hernia
d. varicocele and inguinal hernia

A

d

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19
Q

Which of the following commonly leads to acute scrotal pain?
a. epididymitis
b. microlithiasis
c. tubular ectasia
d. seminoma

A

a

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20
Q

Which type of thyroid cancer is associated with elevated calcitonin levels?
a. papillary
b. anaplastic
c. medullary
d. follicular

A

c

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21
Q

You are performing a parathyroid ultrasound and cannot locate a known adenoma. Which of the following would be most helpful in locating the mass?
a. use IV contrast to locate the blood supply of the mass
b. ask the patient to swallow
c. give the patient oral contrast to outline the trachea
d. report the mass as unidentifiable so that a CT scan can be performed instead

A

b

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22
Q

Which of the following is related to renal failure and vitamin D deficiency?
a. hyperthyroidism
b. nephrocalcinosis
c. pulmonary HTN
d. secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

d

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23
Q

Iodine deficiency is a primary cause of:
a. hypothyroidism
b. sialolithiasis
c. cirrhosis
d. renal calculi

A

a

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24
Q

Sjogren syndrome is an immune system disorder that commonly affects the:
a. bile ducts
b. thyroid
c. adrenal glands
d. salivary glands

A

d

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25
Which of the following should be avoided for at least 7 days before a renal biopsy? a. insulin b. multivitamin c. aspirin d. hypertension medication
c
26
When preparing the sterile tray for a liver biopsy, the cover on the tray should be opened: a. by pulling the far corner of the cover toward you b. no more than 2 hours before the procedure begins c. while wearing sterile gloves d. by the radiologist
a
27
A patient has a history of thyroid cancer and bilateral thyroidectomy 3 years ago. What lab values should be reviewed before starting the annual post-surgical neck ultrasound? a. serum levels of T3 b. serum levels of thyroglobulin c. serums levels of CEA 123 d. serum levels of T4
b
28
When wearing a protective gown and gloves: a. the open end of the gloves should be fitted under the wrist cuffs of the gown b. the open end of the gloves should be pulled over the wrist cuffs of the gown c. two pairs of gloves should be worn d. the open end of the gloves should not be touching the wrist cuffs of the gown
b
29
The greatest advantage of ultrasound guided percutaneous needle biopsy over biopsy performed with cat scan guidance is the: a. ability to take multiple samples during one procedure b. decreased cost to the patient c. lack of radiation exposure d. ability to view the biopsy needle passing into the mass into real time
d
30
Which of the following statements is true regarding the Sonographer assisting the radiologist with a renal biopsy? a. the sonographer should wear sterile gloves when disposing of the needles and devices used for the biopsy b. the sonographer's hands must be sterile when opening needles and biopsy device packaging c. the sonographer's hands must be covered by sterile gloves when passing the biopsy device to the physician to tart the procedure d. the sonographer is responsible for creating the point of entry on the patient for the biopsy device
c
31
Which of the following will have no effect on serum levels of alpha-fetoprotein? a. hepatocellular carcinoma b. seminomatous tumor of the testicle c. yolk sac tumor of the right testicle d. pregnancy
b
32
Which of the following is demonstrated by the same color on an ultrasound image as on a CT image? a. cysts b. uncomplicated pleural effusion c. calcifications d. more than one of the above
c
33
When setting up for a liver biopsy, which of the following must be performed by a sterile person? a. opening the bottle of numbing agent b. verifying the expiration date of the numbing agent c. attaching the needle and filling the syringe with the numbing agent d. opening the biopsy needle package
c
34
Which of the following correctly describes proper ergonomics during a Sonography exam? a. position your wrist to allow for full flexion during imaging b. place the transducer cord around your neck to provide support for the weight of the probe c. adjust the table height to maintain a minimum of 90 degree angle of the elbow joint d. choose a seat that allows your knees to fall below the level of your hips
d
35
Which of the following is a contraindication for a liver biopsy? a. patient with severe liver atrophy caused by cirrhosis b. patient with allergies to iodinated contrast c. patient with Budd Chiari syndrome d. patient with advanced Alzheimer disease and hepatitis
d
36
Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to an ultrasound guided biopsy? a. history of diabetes mellitus b. uncooperative patient c. current antibiotic use d. daily aspirin use
b
37
When a patient presents with acute scrotal pain, the sonographer should always begin the scrotal ultrasound by: a. imaging the testicle on the affected side b. imaging the epididymis on the affected side c. imaging the unaffected side d. imaging the groin area
c
38
A FNA biopsy of a thyroid nodule is not recommended for nodules __. a. <1mm b. >50mm c. <10 mm d. <20 mm
c
39
Which of the following exam results is most likely to end up with an ultrasound guided biopsy of the area of interest? a. hot thyroid nodule seen on nuclear medicine exam b. cold thyroid nodule seen on nuclear medicine exam c. an irregular liver mass that is contiguous with the diaphragm seen on CT exam of the abdomen d. a spiculated lung mass seen on a CT exam of the chest
b
40
Which of the following is true regarding paracentesis? a. normally the patient is seated and leaning over a table to allow posterior lateral access for the catheter b. placing the patient in the supine position will improve the rate of fluid drainage c. normally only performed for diagnostic reasons d. placing the fluid collection container on the floor next to the patient bed increases the fluid drainage rate
d
41
Which of the following indicates the proper order for putting on personal protective equipment? a. gloves, gown, mask, goggles b. mask, goggles, gloves, gown c. goggles, gown, mask, gloves d. gown, mask, goggles, gloves
d
42
When evaluating a suspected testicular varicocele, what patient position will better demonstrate the abnormality? a. decubitus left b. decubitus right c. standing d. supine
c
43
A patient presents for an abdominal ultrasound exam due to recent general pain in the abdomen. While reviewing the patient chart, you note that they have a CT of the abdomen with contrast that is scheduled immediately after the ultrasound appointment. How should you proceed? a. contact the CT department to ask them to do their exam first b. ask the patient to finish drinking the CT contrast material before you start the ultrasound exam c. call the referring doctor to let the know that the two exams will image the same anatomy and one should be cancelled d. complete the ultrasound exam and guide the patient to the CT department where they can drink the necessary contrast material
d
44
Which of the following requires health care providers and organizations to develop and follow procedures that ensure the confidentiality and security of protected health information? a. ALARA principle b. Stark Law c. informed consent d. health insurance portability and accountability act
d
45
Which of the following statements is true regarding paracentesis? a. because the diagnostic paracentesis is performed with a long thin needle instead of a catheter, a sterile field is not required for the procedure b. the preferred entry point for fluid removal is on the right side at the level of Morrison pouch c. paracentesis requires the use of the sterile field technique d. an informed consent form is not required when a diagnostic paracentesis is performed. The form is only required for a therapeutic paracentesis.
c
46
Which of the following Doppler information is necessary to calculate the resistive index? a. peak systolic velocity and end diastolic velocity b. peak systolic velocity, average flow velocity and end diastolic velocity c. peak systolic velocity only d. peak systolic velocity and peak diastolic velocity
a
47
Which of the following describes the best patient position for a thyroid ultrasound? a. semi-erect with chin angled toward the side not being scanned b. posterior oblique with neck extended c. prone with the neck extended d. supine with neck extended
d
48
The radiologist asks you to set up the US room for a thyroid biopsy. Which probe should be covered with a sterile probe cover? a. curvilinear 8 MHz b. linear 5 MHz c. vector 10 MHz d. linear 10 MHz
d
49
If a patient forgets to take their hypertension medication before a renal duplex exam, what effect can have on the findings? a. underestimation of renal artery stenosis b. overestimation of renal artery stenosis c. underestimation of peak renal artery velocity d. overestimation of renal parenchymal thickness
b
50
Hematuria is defined as: a. the presence of red blood cells in blood b. the presence of urea in blood c. the present of white blood cells in urine d. the presence of red blood cells in urine
d
51
Where is the Doppler cursor placed in the aorta to obtain the velocity used in the renal aortic ratio? a. 2 cm above the aortic bifurcation b. at the level of the renal artery origins c. just below the diaphragm d. at the location of the highest recorded velocity
b
52
A patient presents for an abdominal sonogram due to a history of acute onset of malignant HTN. What structure(s) should be closely evaluated? a. distal aorta b. mesenteric arteries c. renal arteries d. celiac axis
c
53
A patient presents for an abdominal ultrasound due to suspected displacement of the Greenfield filter. Where should you look to find the filter in the normal position? a. in the renal artery at the renal hilum b. in the IVC just below the level of the renal veins c. in the IVC just below the level of the hepatic veins d. in the renal vein at the renal hilum
b
54
You are attempting to scan the spleen with the patient in the right lateral decubitus position and using a coronal view. The spleen is obscured by the left lung. What can you do to obtain a better view of the spleen? a. have the patient drink water and repeat the image from the same patient and probe position b. turn the patient to the left lateral decubitus position c. scan the patient at full inspiration d. scan the patient at full expiration
d
55
The length measurements of the adult kidneys should be within ___ of each other a. 1cm b. 2cm c. 3 cm d. 4 cm
b
56
What lab test is used to evaluate the success of a renal transplant? a. blood glucose levels b. urine sedimentation rate c. anodal trypsinogen levels d. glomerular filtration rate
d
57
Which of the following correctly describes the lab values identified in a patient with acquired hemolytic anemia? a. significantly increased serum bilirubin and decreased hemoglobin levels c. significantly increased serum bilirubin and hemoglobin levels d. increased ALT, ALT, and alkaline phosphatase
a
58
Which of the following correctly lists the equation for the splenic volume index? a. (length x width x height)2 = SVI b. length x width x height x 2 = SVI c. length x width x height x 3.14 = SVI d. length x width x height / 27 = SVI
d
59
A 55 year old female patient presents for an abdominal sonogram due to a history of weight loss and recurrent pain just after eating. These symptoms are most suggestive of an abnormality in the: a. pyloric canal b. portal system c. splenic artery d. mesenteric arteries and celiac axis
d
60
Regarding the evaluation of a patient with a suspected abdominal aortic aneurysm: Identifying the __ guarantees a complete evaluation of the proximal segment while identifying the __ guarantees a complete evaluation of the infrarenal segment. a. SMA origin, IMA origin b. celiac axis and aortic bifurcation c. celiac axis and renal artery origins d. aortic connection to the heart
b
61
While performing an ultrasound of the abdominal aorta, the mid and distal portions of the vessel are partially obscured by bowel gas. Which of the following techniques can be used to improve your visualization of the aorta? a. roll that patient into an oblique or decubitus position and rescan the aorta b. scan the patient in the semi-erect position c. have the patient drink water and rescan the aorta d. give the patient a laxative and rescan after 60 minutes
a
62
While scanning a patient's RUQ you identify the aorta on the right side of the spine, duplicated IVC and a horseshoe kidney along the midline. Where should you look next for an associated abnormality? a. RUQ for ectopic liver tissue b. LUQ to determine the presence or absence of the spleen c. LLQ for an ectopic kidney d. midline to identify a patent azygous vein
b
63
A patient presents with fever, flank pain, dehydration, electrolyte imbalance, and positive serum and urine bacterial cultures for E. coli. These clinical findings are most suggestive of: a. emphysematous pyelonephritis b. renal artery stenosis c. acute renal failure d. urinary tuberculosis
a
64
A 3 year old presents with a history of sickle cell anemia. What do you expect to find on the US evaluation of the spleen? a. splenomegaly b. splenic artery aneurysm c. agenesis of the spleen d. subcapsular hematoma
a
65
A pregnant female presents with lateral LUQ pain and bruit in the same area. What is the most likely finding on the abdominal ultrasound exam? a. splenic artery aneurysm b. IVC congestion due to uterine compression c. splenic varices d. pancreatic pseudocyst
a
66
Anemia is least likely to be related to abnormalities of which of the following organs? a. esophagus b. spleen c. thyroid d. aorta
c
67
What modality is preferred for mass characterization of a renal angiomyolipoma? a. xray b. CT scan c. Nuclear medicine d. angiography
b
68
What equation is used to calculate post-void residual urine volume? a. bladder (length x width) divided by height b. bladder length + width + height x 0.52 c. bladder x length x width height divided by 3 d. bladder length x width x height x 0.52
d
69
What is the best way to explain a renal Doppler exam to a 9 year old female? a. demonstrate the gel on the probe and how you will slide it around on her belly to obtain pictures for the Doppler b. tell her you will be using Doppler ultrasound to evaluate blood flow to the kidneys and it will take about 30 mintes c. give her a pamphlet that describes the procedure d. tell their mom to tell them it wont hurt and pretend to be asleep
a
70
Which of the following is the least likely cause for bilateral pedal edema? a. retroperitoneal fibrosis b. mesenteric vein thrombosis c. congestive heart failure d. 5cm AAA
b
71
A patient presents for an abdominal sonogram due to a history of Marfan syndrome. What structure(s) should be closely evaluated for related findings? a. aorta b. portal system c. kidneys d. liver
a
72
While scanning the LUQ you identify multiple dilated vessels at the hilum of the spleen. Which of the following describes the best way to identify a cause for the findings? a. check the aorta for an aneurysm b. check the splenic artery for stenosis c. evaluate the porta hepatis for choledocholithiasis d. evaluate the liver vasculature for signs of portal HTN
d
73
Which renal arteries are evaluated with Doppler in an ultrasound exam that is used to perform a direct evaluation for renal artery stenosis? a. main renal artery, segmental arteries, arcuate arteries b. main renal artery c. aorta d. segmental and arcuate arteries
b
74
A patient presents for an abdominal ultrasound due to new onset of hematuria, proteinuria, and increased serum BUN and creatinine. He complains of recent fever, sore throat, joint pain, and peripheral edema. These clinical findings are most suggestive of? a. transitional cell carcinoma b. tuberous sclerosis c. acute glomerulonephritis d. renal cell carcinoma
c
75
Which of the following are commonly associated with retroperitoneal fibrosis? a. hydronephrosis and ureterocele formation b. scrotal calcfications and cryptorchidism c. scrotal swelling and pedal edema d. pedal edema and portal HTN
c
76
Which of the following describes how to correctly measure the width of the iliac artery? a. transverse view, outer wall to inner wall b. longitudinal view, outer wall to outer wall c. longiudinal view, outer wall to inner wall d. transverse view, outer wall to outer wall
d
77
You are performing a renal artery Doppler exam for renal stenosis? The mid aortic peak velocity is 70 cm/s. The RRA peak velocity is 140 cm/s and the LRA peak velocity is 240 cm/s. What is the RAR for the right kidney? a. 2.0 b. 0.5 c. 0.3 d. 3.4
a
78
A patient is referred for a renal ultrasound due to suspected horseshoe kidney. What is the expected ultrasound finding for this condition? a. the lower poles of the kidneys are joined across the midline, usually anterior to the mid aorta b. the hilums of the kidneys are joined across the midline by a bridge of renal parenchyma c. displacement of the kidney to the pelvic area d. both kidneys are abnormally shaped like two horsehoes. The upper pole of the kidney is "bent" toward the lower pole
a
79
A 45 year old patient presents with increased serum serum BUN and creatinine, a recent history of oliguria and bilateral flank pain. The US exam demonstrates bilateral hydronephrosis and hydroureter, but the bladder is nearly empty. Which of the following statements is true regarding this patient and the findings? a. acute intrinsic renal failure is present that is most likely due to acute tubular necrosis b. acute postrenal failure is present and the radiologist should review the case immediately c. the patient has a neurogenic bladder and the radiologist should review the case immediately d. the patient will most likely return for a follow up exam in 7-10 days after anticoagulant treatment
b
80
A 10 year old patient presents with an order for a renal ultrasound due to suspected multicystic kidney disease. What are the expected findings on the ultrasound exam if the abnormality is present? a. bilateral increased echogenicity of the renal parenchyma with atrophied kidneys b. unilateral formation of multiple renal cysts consuming the renal parenchyma c. bilateral formation of multiple medium to large cysts causing renal enlargement d. bilateral formation of multiple microscopic cysts caused renal enlargement and increased echogenicity
b
81
Which of the following correctly describes how ultrasound is used to guide treatment of a pseudoaneurysm of the external iliac artery? a. the physician uses ultrasound guidance during the injection of Lovenox into the body of the pseudoaneurysm b. the technologist uses ultrasound to guide the probe placement during compression therapy applied in 30 minute intervals c. The physician uses ultrasound guidance during the injection of Lovenox into the stalk of the pseudoaneurysm d. The technologist uses ultrasound to guide the probe placement during compression therapy applied in 10 one minute intervals
d
82
Sudden onset of hematuria, azotemia, and proteinuria is an indication of: a. chronic renal failure b. oncocytoma c. acute glomerulonephritis d. tuberous sclerosis
c
83
__ causes abdomen pain 20-30 minutes after eating, while __ usually causes abdomen pain several hours after eating. a. cholelithiasis, cholecystitis b. pyloric stenosis, mesenteric ischemia c, mesenteric ischemia, cholelithiasis d. pyloric stenosis, appendicitis
. c
84
Hematocrit levels are determined by: a. measuring clotting time b. counting red blood cells c. counting white blood cells d. counting platelets
b
85
Hypovolemic shock is a common symptom of: a. renal artery stenosis b. cirrhosis c. hepatic congestion d. aortic rupture
d
86
Which of the following is a common symptom of renal transplant injection? a. oliguria b. reduced serum levels of BUN and creatinine c. hyperbilirubinemia d. urinary frequency and urgency
a
87
Which of the following is the preferred method for obtaining the most accurate measurement of the length of the spleen? a. intercostal coronal view that does not demonstrate the hilum b. intercostal coronal view with the patient in left lateral decubitus position c. intercostal coronal view that demonstrate the hilum d. subxiphoid longitudinal view that includes the upper pole of the left kidney
c
88
Which of the following is the most likely cause for renal vein thrombosis? a. pulmonary embolism b. dehydration c. decreased serum BUN and creatinine d. cavernous transformation
d
89
What is the preferred position of a patient having a transplant kidney biopsy? a. prone with a pillow under the abdomen b. supine c. Trendelenburg d. semi-erect
b
90
A patient presents for a post biopsy scan of the right kidney. An extracapsular hematoma is suspected. What will be the appearance of this abnormality on the image? a. cystic formation with debris levels found within the renal sinus b. free fluid with debris levels found within Murphy pouch c. free fluid beneath the renal capsule that distorts the contour of the parenchyma d. free fluid with debris level found within the Morison pouch
d
91
Which of the following is a fungal infection that can affect the kidney? a. salmonella infection b. streptococcus aureus infection c. E. coli infection d. candidiasis infection
d
92
Renal function lab testing includes serum levels of: a. alanine transaminase b. white blood cell count c. lipase d. blood urea nitrogen
d
93
A patient presents for an abdominal sonogram due to a history of median arcuate ligament syndrome. What structure(s) should be closely evaluated for related findings? a. renal arteries b. celiac axis c. splenic artery and vein d. left renal vein
b
94
Which of the following defines renal colic? a. consistently elevated serum BUN and creatinine levels b. consistently elevated renal function c. cyclical inflammation with recurrent urinary tract infection d. recurrent flank pain that radiates to the groin
d
95
Placing the patient in an oblique position and using a lateral transducer position on the lower abdomen would best demonstrate what vessels? a. hepatic artery b. common femoral veins c. common iliac arteries d. suprarenal arteries
c
96
Which of the following correctly describes peritoneal dialysis? a. a cleansing fluid flows is injected through an intraperitoneal catheter b. requires regular visits to a dialysis center for the treatment c. requires the creation of an arteriovenous fistula d. blood is removed from the body, cleaned and returned
a
97
Which of the following should be performed on a patient with suspected acute renal failure? a. evaluate the resistive index of the parenchymal arteries b. evaluate the kidneys for suspected unilateral hydronephrosis c. evaluate the patient for signs of cortical thinning d. evaluate the post-void bladder volume
a
98
A patient is referred for a renal ultrasound due to suspected right renal agenesis. Which of the following is not an expected finding associated with right renal agenesis? a. absent right renal artery and vein b. compensatory hypertrophy of the left kidney c. right kidney located in the right lower quadrant d. empty right renal fossa
c
99
Elevated hematocrit levels are associated with: a. overhydration and anemia b. leaking aortic or splenic aneurysm c. dehydration and polycythemia vera d. colon cancer and gastric ulcers
c
100
A patient arrives with an order that reads, "R/O fluid in Morison pouch". Where do you need to scan to answer this question? a. porta hepatis and GB fossa b. between the liver and right kidney c. splenic hilum d. all four quadrants
b

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