URR 76 Flashcards by Billie Harney

What is the top normal post-residual volume in the bladder of patients 65 and older, if measured within 5 minutes of voiding?
a. <10 ml
b. < or equal to 100 ml
c. < or equal to 500 ml
d. <50 ml

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When the superior mesenteric artery is in view in a transverse plane, the probe must be angled __ to see the celiac axis.
a. cephalad
b. ventral
c. caudal
d. oblique

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Which of the following describes how to correctly measure the AP diameter of iliac artery?
a. transverse view, outer wall to inner wall
b. transverse view, outer wall to outer wall
c. longitudinal view, outer wall to inner wall
d. longitudinal view, outer wall to outer wall

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An infant patient is referred for an abdomen ultrasound to rule out UPJ obstruction of the left kidney. What are the expected findings if the exam is positive?
a. a normal ureter will be identified but the left renal calyces and renal pelvis will be chronically dilated, with or without the bladder distended
b. the left renal calyces, renal pelvis, and ureter will be dilated when the bladder is distended
c. the renal calyces and renal pelvis will be normal but the ureter will be dilated anytime the bladder is distended
d. the left renal calyces, renal pelvis, and ureter will be dilated with or without the bladder distended

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A patient presents for a renal ultrasound due to high serum levels of anti-diuretic hormone, low urine output and a recent pulmonary embolism. These clinical findings are most suggestive of:
a. abscess formation in the renal pelvis
b. formation of a renal carbuncle
c. renal vein thrombosis
d. obstructive bladder calculi

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Which exam would be improved by the administration of Simethicone prior to the ultrasound evaluation?
a. breast ultrasound
b. renal artery duplex
c. thyroid ultrasound
d. carotid duplex

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A patient presents for a bladder ultrasound due to a recent onset of visible hematuria. Which of the following conditions is commonly associated with this symptom?
a. ureterocele
b. transitional cell carcinoma
c. renal artery stenosis
d. portal thrombosis

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Which of the following is normally identified in the urine?
a. minimal amount of red blood cells
b. glucose
c. protein
d. creatinine

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Which of the following is a risk factor for the formation of splenic artery aneurysms?
a. multigravida
b. chronic hypotension
c. nulligravida
d. male gender

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Which renal arteries are evaluated with Doppler in an ultrasound exam that is used to perform an indirect evaluation for renal artery stenosis?
a. aorta
b. segmental and parenchymal arteries
c. main renal artery, segmental, and parenchymal arteries
d. main renal artery

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If renal calculi are identified in the kidney:
a. the thyroid should be evaluated for signs of hypothyroidism
b. color Doppler should be used to evaluate the urinary bladder
c. the gallbladder should be evaluated for associated stone formation
d. PW Doppler should be used to evaluate the parenchymal resistance in the tissue around the stones

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A patient presents with a history of Gaucher disease. What do you expect to see on the abdominal ultrasound exam?
a. numerous cysts within the mesentery
b. bilateral atrophied kidneys with increased echogenicity
c. significant atherosclerosis in the aorta
d. massive splenomegaly

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What is the most common symptom of renal cell carcinoma?
a. hematuria
b. increased AFP
c. proteinuria
d. HTN

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A patient presents for his annual renal scan due to a long history of dialysis treatment. He does not currently have any related complaints. What are the expected findings on the exam?
a. bilaterally hypertrophied kidneys with little to no visible parenchyma and multiple cyst formation
b. bilaterally atrophied kidneys with little to no visible parenchyma and multiple cyst formation
c. bilaterally atrophied kidneys with thickened, echogenic parenchyma and multiple calculi formation
d. bilaterally enlarged kidneys due to compensatory hypertrophy

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Increased hematocrit levels are associated with which of the following?
a. sickle cell anemia
b. dehydration
c. hemorrhagic cyst of the liver
d. esophageal varices

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A patient presents for a renal ultrasound with a history of increased serum BUN and creatinine and HTN. Right renal artery occlusion was documented on an ultrasound evaluation performed last year. What are the expected findings on the ultrasound exam today?
a. the right kidney will be atrophied and surrounded by ascites due to decreased renal function. The left kidney will appear normal.
b. the right kidney will be atrophied and hyperechoic and the left kidney may demonstrate a mild increase in size since the last exam
c. the right kidney will be consumed by cyst formation with a normal left kidney
d. the right kidney will be enlarged and edematous with decreased corticomedullary definition. The left kidney will appear normal.

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A 60 year old presents with a history of sickle cell anemia. What do you expect to find on the us evaluation of the spleen?
a. abnormal spleen size
b. agenesis of the spleen
c. subcapsular hematoma
d. splenic artery aneurysm

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If a solid renal mass is identified in the right kidney on an US exam, which of the following should also be closely evaluated for associated findings?
a. portal veins
b. renal veins
c. hepatic veins
d. mesenteric veins

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Doppler evaluation of the parenchymal arteries is required in patients with:
a. acute pancreatitis
b. splenic infarction
c. significant hydronephrosis
d. angiomyolipoma

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A patient presents with LUQ pain and a history of MVA 3 days ago, a cystic structure is seen in the spleen with layered debris within it. This most likely represents:
a. hemangioma
b. hydatid cyst
c. carcinoma
d. hematoma

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Which of the following frequently occurs as a late complication of pharyngitis (throat infection)?
a. cholecystitis
b. renal artery stenosis
c. adrenal hemorrhage
d. acute glomerulonephritis

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Which type of infection is considered a critical finding?
a. glomerulonephritis
b. acute pyelonephritis
c. chronic pyelonephritis
d. emphysematous pyelonephritis

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A patient presents for a post biopsy scan of the right kidney. A subcapsular hematoma is suspected. What will be the appearance of this abnormality on the image?
a. free fluid with debris levels found within Murphy pouch
b. free fluid with debris levels found within Morrison pouch
c. cystic formation with debris levels found within the renal sinus
d. free fluid beneath the renal capsule that distorts the contour of the parenchyma

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When evaluating a patient with an aortic aneurysm, which of the following must be reported?
a. aortic/IVC diameter ratio
b. distance below the superior mesenteric artery
c. peak velocity in the renal arteries
d. position related to the renal artery origins

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Which of the following correctly describes hemodialysis? a. an arteriovenous fistula is created by connecting an artery and a vein, usually in the arm b. a cleansing fluid flows is injected through an intraperitoneal catheter c. can be performed by the patient at home d. contraindications include abdominal wall scarring, hernia, inflammatory bowel disease, or diverticulitis

a 6 year old is referred for an abdominal ultrasound due to a history of Epstein Barr infection. What organ should be closely evaluated for associated findings? a. adrenal glands b. kidneys c. gallbladder d. spleen

Elevated blood urea nitrogen levels are associated with __, while decreased blood urea nitrogen levels are associated with __. a. renal failure, liver failure b. renal failure, dehydration c. overhydration, dehydration d. liver failure, overhydration

A patient presents with an order for a renal ultrasound due to increased serum BUN and creatinine levels and bilateral decreased renal size identified on a recent CT scan. What are the expected findings on the ultrasound exam? a. medical renal disease b. nephrocalcinosis c. medullary sponge kidney d. multicystic kidney disease

A patient presents for a post biopsy scan of the right kidney. A lymphocele is suspected. What will be the appearance of this abnormality on the image? a. anechoic free fluid beneath the renal capsule that distorts the contour of the parenchyma b. heterogeneous mass within the renal parenchyma c. cystic formation with debris levels found within the renal sinus d. fluid collection with debris and septations located adjacent to the kidney

When an organ transplant is being evaluated by ultrasound: a. the resistive index should be assessed at several locations in the allograft b. power Doppler imaging should not be used due to increased beam intensity c. a 60 degree cursor angle must be used on all vessels d. harmonic imaging should not be used due to increased beam intensity

All of the following are contraindications for a renal transplant, except: a. significant cardiac disease b. marked increase in serum creatinine c. untreated kidney infection d. metastatic disease

Which of the following abnormalities is commonly associated with painless hematuria? a. tuberous sclerosis b. ureterocele c. transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder d. ureteral calculi

You are performing a renal Doppler exam. What is the best patient position to visualize the full length of the left renal artery? a. supine, contralateral arm above head b. supine, ipsilateral arm above head c. left lateral decubitus d. right lateral decubitus

Where is the most common location for the occurrence of retroperitoneal fibrosis? a. at the level of the aortic bifurcation b. adjacent to the diaphragm surrounding aorta c. at the level of the renal arteries d. at the lateral borders of the kidneys

What is the sonographic appearance of pseudomyxoma peritonei? a. mucinous secretions and tumor formation within the lower abdomen cause bowel to be matted down against posterior abdominal wall b. multiple echogenic foci throughout the abdominal wall c. mucinous secretions and tumor formation within abdomen that cause the liver to be pushed inferiorly against the diaphragm d. multiple echogenic foci throughout the psoas muscle

Which of the following is not an expected finding with adrenal myelolipoma? a. propagation speed artifacts b. attenuation artifacts c. comet tail artifacts d. increased echogenicity compared to adrenal and renal cortical tissues

A 2 year old presents with a swollen abdomen and pain for 3 days. The doctor suspects an intussusception is present. How will this appear on the exam? a. fluid filled colon with multiple intramural masses b. prominent focal area of concentric rings of bowel c. fluid filled colon with inflamed walls d. thickened pylorus muscle

The most common cause of small bowel obstruction in adults is __. The most common cause of small bowel obstruction in an infant is __. a. extrinsic compression by pelvic mass, intussusception b. bezoars, pyloric stenosis c. adhesions, intussusception d. diverticulitis, pyloric stenosis

How can you differentiate a ganglion cyst from a giant cell tumor of the hand? a. giant cell tumors will move along with the adjacent tendon, ganglion cyst will not move with the adjacent tendon b. giant cell tumor will demonstrate posterior enhancement, ganglion cyst will not demonstrate enhancement c. ganglion cyst will demonstrate posterior enhancement, giant cell tumor will demonstrate posterior shadowing d. ganglion cyst will demonstrate posterior enhancement, giant cell tumor will not demonstrate enhancement

What is the most significant complication of a hernia? a. recanalization of the umbilical vein b. ascites c.. strangulation d. lymphadenopathy

What is the most common retroperitoneal neoplasm? a. rhabdomyosarcoma b. fibroma c. myxoma d. liposarcoma

Adrenal hemorrhage is most commonly seen in: a. adults over 50 years b. adults over 70 years c. newborns d. juvenile patients with chromosomal defects

Which of the following is a common cause of transudate pleural effusion? a. tuberculosis b. pneumonia c. congestive heart failure d. malignancy

Most patients with adrenal cortical cancer have associated: a. Budd Chiari Syndrome b. Addison Disease c. Conn Disease d. Cushing Syndrome

Massive adrenal gland enlargement, hepatomegaly and splenomegaly are common findings in what fatal autosomal recessive disorder? a. Wilson disease b. Beckwith-Weidemann syndrome c. Marfan Syndrome d. Wolman disease

A patient presents with right groin pain. You identify a hernia sac medial to the common femoral vein. What type of hernia is present? a. direct inguinal b. femoral c. umbilical d. spigelian

Which of the following describes carpal tunnel syndrome? a. Damage to the cartilage between the carpal bones of the wrist causing swelling and pain with motion b. compression of the blood vessels as they enter/exit the wrist causing thrombus formation and emboli c. Damage to the median nerve by chronic compression between the metacarpal bones of the palm d. compression of the median nerve by the carpal sheath causing numbness, weakness and pain

Which of the following correctly describes a pneumothorax? a. fluid accumulation between the visceral and parietal pleura b. there are two types of pneumothorax, transudate and exudate c. the lung-gliding sign is not present with free air in the chest d. ultrasound is not able to demonstrate a pneumothorax

All of the following correctly describes a scalp hematoma, except: a. most commonly caused by motor vehicle trauma b. caput succedaneum hematoma is associated with vacuum assisted delivery c. described by their location related to the galea aponeurosis and skull periosteum d. sonographic appearance with age of the hematoma

All of the following correctly describe a mechanical bowel obstruction, except: a. best evaluated by US after patient drinks at least 32 oz of water b. physical impediment to the progression of the luminal contents c. adhesions are the most common cause in adults d. must assess GI tract caliber

Which of the following describes how to differentiate a ventral hernia from diastasis recti? a. ventral hernias are a weakening of the anterior abdominal wall, diastasis recti is a weakening of the lateral abdominal wall b. ventral hernias require an increase in abdominal pressure for visualization, diastasis recti is best visualized with the patient relaxed c. ventral hernias have an associated fascial defect, but there is no defect with diastasis recti d. ventral hernias never contain bowel loops, diastasis recti always contain bowel loops

Corpora amylacea is a benign condition of what organ? a. kidneys b. spleen c. prostate d. liver

Loculated fluid in the abdomen usually __, while free fluid in the abdomen will __. a. is resorbed over time by the body, require a paracentesis to remove the fluid b. displaces adjacent structures, fill spaces around structures c. indicates a benign process, indicate a malignant process d. fills spaces around structures, displaces adjacent structures

You identify free fluid above the right diaphragm that contains internal debris and septations. The fluid collection has a honeycomb appearance. These findings are most suggestive of? a. exudative pleural effusion b. transudative pleural effusion c. hemothorax d. pneumothorax

What penile structure is usually fractured with penile trauma? a. pampiniform plexus b. glans penis c. corpus spongiosum d. corpus cavernosum

Which of the following is most likely to be confused with a breast carcinoma? a. multiple fibroadenomas in both breast b. single 5cm fibroadenoma in the breast c. fat necrosis after breast surgery d. sebaceous cyst

What changes occur on the US image when scanning breast tissue affected by acute mastitis? a. posterior enhancement due to tissue edema b. improved visualization of the ductal system due to tissue edema c. decreased penetration due to tissue edema d. dilated ductal system with normal breast tissues

__ is the most common malignant neoplasm found in the prostate. a. transitional zone sarcoma b. metastasis c. adenocarcinoma d. central zone sarcoma

The term used to describe the involution of the small bowel upon itself is: a. colitis b. irritable bowel syndrome c. intussusception d. Crohn syndrome

What is an epiploic appendagitis? a. perforated appendix with pericolic fluid b. inflammation of the thick fatty strands that attach to the serosal surface of the colon c. another term to describe Crohn disease d. a fatal type of diverticulitis

The SMA is identified to the right of the SMV is a patient with acute abdomen symptoms. What should you suspect? a. intussusception b. normal anatomy c. pyloric stenosis d. midgut malrotation

Which of the following foreign body types is better visualized on sonography than with radiography? a. glass b. broken needle c. gravel d. rose thorn

The __ zone is the prostate zone most commonly affected by BPH. a. transitional b. paraprostatic c. central d. peripheral

Malignant ascites is described as: a. anechoic fluid with free-floating bowel loops b. anechoic fluid with free-floating bowel loops and septations c. complex fluid collection with matted bowel loops d. hyperechoic fluid with septations

What is one of the most common findings on a transrectal ultrasound in prostatitis? a. multiple macrocalcifications b. heterogeneous gland with hypovascularity c. hypoechoic halo at the periuretheral area d. homogenous gland with hypovascularity

__ is one of the most common surgical procedures in the US and most patients are males, less than 1 year old. a. herniaorrhaphy b. nephrectomy c. appendectomy d. cholecystectomy

Pyloric stenosis is diagnosed when the muscle wall thickness exceeds: a. 2mm b. 8mm c. 4mm d. 6mm

Which of the following describes a giant cell tumor of the hand? a. does not move with the adjacent tendon with flexion and extension b. anechoic structure that demonstrates posterior shadowing c. hypoechoic structure that demonstrates posterior enhancement d. moves with the adjacent tendon with flexion and extension

Which zone of the prostate has the highest risk for carcinoma development? a. central b. peripheral c. stromal d. transitional

An incidentaloma is: a. an aggressive splenic carcinoma b. an aggressive adrenal carcinoma c. always a critical finding d. an unexpected mass on an imaging exam

Concentric wall thickening of the terminal ileum, hyperemia, and mesenteric fatty proliferation are signs of what GI tract abnormality? a. Crohn disease b. diverticulitis c. colitis d. appendicitis

What type of hernia is a delayed complication of upper abdominal surgery? a. indirect inguinal hernia b. incisional hernia c. direct inguinal hernia d. amyand hernia

What is the key anatomic landmark in differentiating direct, indirect, and spigelian hernia? a. internal iliac artery b. inferior epigastric artery c. rectus abdominis surgery d. linea alba

A patient with a history of Conn disease presents for an abdomen ultrasound exam. Two 1 cm round hypoechoic tumors are identified in the left adrenal gland. These findings are most suggestive of: a. abscess formation b. aldosteronomas c. myelolipomas d. adenomas

Adrenal gland hemorrhage: a. is most commonly seen in patients over 70 years of age b. is associated with very high hematocrit levels c. in adults is usually related to trauma or hematologic disorders, such as thrombocytopenia d. is very rare because the adrenal glands are hypovascular fatty organs

Which of the following statements is correct regarding hernias? a. patients with one hernia should be evaluated for other types of ipsilateral and contralateral groin or anterior abdominal hernias b. herniorrhaphy is the most common surgical procedure performed on post-partum females c. varicose vein formation is the most significant complication of a hernia d. most hernias are closed using a skin graft taken from the opposite groin

Which of the following is an expected sonographic characteristic of prostatitis? a. homogeneous gland b. atrophied gland c. diffuse hypervascularity d. solid hypoechoic mass

Ascites is usually associated with all of the following except: a. renal failure b. congestive heart failure c. hepatocellular carcinoma d. oncocytoma

Demonstration of gastrohepatic and retroperitoneal lymphadenopathy in a patient is most suggestive of: a. gallbladder carcinoma b. renal cell carcinoma c. lymphoma d. irritable bowel syndrome

Bilateral ureteral obstruction can be caused by: a. renal cell carcinoma of the left kidney b. liver mass in the posterior right lobe c. splenic varices d. retroperitoneal fibrosis

Which of the following correctly describes a mechanical bowel obstruction? a. functional obstruction is much more common than mechanical obstruction b. paralysis of the wall muscles inhibit peristalsis and the progression of the luminal contents c. adhesions are the most common cause of mechanical obstruction in adults d. best evaluated by us after patient drinks at least 32 oz of water

A patient with diastasis recti will have an increased: a. risk of developing carpal tunnel syndrome b. risk of developing hepatocellular carcinoma c. distance between the bladder and the rectum d. distance between the rectus abdominis muscles

All of the following are signs of pyloric stenosis, except: a. doughnut b. olive c. sandwich d. cervix

The most common benign breast mass is the ___ and the most common malignant breast mass is ___. a. fibroadenoma, invasive ductal carcinoma b. acute mastitis, chronic mastitis c. ductal carcinoma in situ, invasive ductal carcinoma d. lipoma, invasive lobular carcinoma

Primary sclerosing cholangitis is usually seen in patients with: a. ulcerative colitis b. pancreatic head mass c. HIV infection d. biliary ascariasis

What are the most common causes of ascites? a. urinary and biliary obstruction b. trauma and invasive procedures c. congestive heart failure and hepatic congestion d. cirrhosis and malignancy

Which of the following is caused by a pituitary tumor? a. Conn syndrome b. myelolipoma c. adrenal hemorrhage d. Cushing disease

A patient presents for a groin ultrasound with a history of right inguinal repair 3 years ago. He's currently having right groin pain. What should you do next for this patient? a. assess the edges of the mesh in the groin while the patient performs the valsalva maneuver b. because the patient had prior hernia repair in the right groin, no maneuvers are performed during imaging c. because the highly reflective mesh will severely limit the US exam of the right groin, no maneuvers are performed during imaging d. call the referring physician and get an order for an MRI because ultrasound cannot demonstrate recurrent hernias

Which of the following is a common finding in hepatitis, cirrhosis, and hepatic abscess formation? a. hepatoma b. portal HTN c. ascites d. hydatid cyst

The Achilles' tendon most commonly ruptures: a. at the proximal insertion point b. mid-tendon c. at the distal insertion point d. about 4 cm from the distal insertion point

Loculated ascites with echogenic debris and matted bowel loops are most suggestive of: a. peritoneal metastasis b. congestive heart failure c. Budd Chiari Syndrome d. portal hypertension

Which portion of the GI tract contains numerous valvulae conniventes that a feathery appearance of the structure on ultrasound? a. cecum b. ilium c. jejunum d. appendix

A 55 year old female presents with a fever, leukocytosis, and LLQ pain. She states she suffers from Crohn disease. The exam demonstrates a 2.7 cm ill-defined hypoechoic mass in the LLQ that is surrounded by a small amount of ascites. There is no flow within the mass and no movement with peristalsis. These findings are most suggestive of: a. intussusception b. appendicitis c. retroperitoneal lymphadenopthy d. abscess

If an inguinal hernia does not increase in size with Valsalva strain, __ should be suspected. a. spontaneous closure b. strangulation c. malignancy d. infection

Cervical lymphadenopathy is a common finding with: a. parathyroidism b. branchial cleft cyst c. hyperfunctioning thyroid adenoma d. papillary thyroid carcinoma

Which of the following is an immune system disorder that commonly affects the salivary glands? a. Epstein-Barr Syndrome b. Sjogren Syndrome c. Kasabach-Merritt syndrome d. Klippel-Trenaunay-Weber Syndrome

A lab report demonstrates that a testicular tumor contains choriocarcinoma cells and embryonal cell carcinoma. Which of the following best describes the tumor? a. Metastatic tumor b. Mixed germ cell tumor c. Mature teratoma d. Seminomatous tumor

Which of the following is most likely to cause anterior displacement of the abdominal aorta? a. pleural effusion b. mass in the left diaphragm crura c. lymphadenopathy d. ascites

Which of the following typically presents in men over 60 yrs with bilateral hypoechoic, solid masses within the testicular parenchyma? a. seminoma b. lymphoma c. choriocarcinoma d. orchitis

Which of the following area associated with an increased risk of thyroid malignancy? a. psamomma bodies and intranodular flow patterns b. wider than tall mass orientation and intranodular cystic changes c. prominent halo around mass and intranodular flow patterns d. prominent halo around mass and intranodular cystic changes

URR 76 Flashcards

(100 cards)