Cardiac rhythm monitors & equipment 4 Flashcards

(50 cards)

1
Q

A patient with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome develops atrial fibrillation during surgery. Select the BEST treatment for this situation. (select 2)
a. cardioversion
b. verapamil
c. digoxin
d. procainamide

A

a. cardioversion
d. procainamide

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2
Q

Wolff-Parkinson White is the most common

A

pre-excitation syndrome

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3
Q

The defining feature of WPW consists of

A

an accessory conduction pathway (Kent’s bundle) that bypasses the AV node & the conduction delay associated with it

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4
Q

A key diagnostic feature of WPW on the EKG is

A

a delta wave

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5
Q

The most common tachydysrhythmia associated with WPW is

A

AV nodal reentry tachycardia

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6
Q

AV nodal reentry tachycardia can be classified as

A

orthodromic or antidromic

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7
Q

The most common AV nodal reentry tachycardia is

A

orthodromic

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8
Q

Orthodromic AV nodal reentry tachycardia is associated with

A

a narrow QRS complex

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9
Q

Treatment for orthodromic AV nodal reentry tachycardia includes

A

increasing the refractory period at the AV node (vagal maneuvers, amiodarone, adenosine, beta-blockers, verapamil, or cardioversion)

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10
Q

Antidromic AV nodal reentry tachycardia is associated with

A

a wide QRS complex

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11
Q

Treatment for antidromic AVNRT includes

A

increasing the refractory period of the accessory pathway (procainamide or cardioversion)

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12
Q

With antidromic AVNRT, these agents should be avoided:

A

agents that increase the refractory period of the AV node

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13
Q

Common characteristics observed on the EKG of a WPW include:

A

delta wave caused by ventricular preexcitation
short PR interval (<0.12 seconds)
wide QRS complex
possible T wave inversion

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14
Q

Drugs to avoid with antidromic AVNRT include

A

adenosine
digoxin
calcium channel blockers
beta-blockers
lidocaine

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15
Q

The combination of AF & WPW can precipitate

A

CHF, ventricular fibrillation, & death

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16
Q

Definitive treatment for WPW is

A

ablation of the accessory pathway

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17
Q

A complication of radiofrequency ablation of the left atrium is

A

thermal injury to the left atrium and esophagus
monitor esophageal temperature & let cardiologist know if it rises

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18
Q

Is orthodromic AVRNT or antidromic AVRNT more dangerous in the patient with atrial fibrillation? Why?

A

antidromic AVRNT- the AV node is bypassed and the ventricular rate can increase dramatically (up to 300 bpm) causing CHF and ventricular fibrillation

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19
Q

All of the following increase the likelihood of torsades de pointes in the patient with long QT syndrome EXCEPT:
a. hyperventilation
b. furosemide
c. methadone
d. metoprolol

A

d. metoprolol

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20
Q

Torsades de pointes is a

A

polymorphic ventricular tachycardia

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21
Q

Torsades de pointes is typically

A

self-limiting but it can deteriorate into ventricular fibrillation

22
Q

Torsades de pointes is usually associated with a

A

prolonged QT interval

23
Q

Conditions that prolong the QT interval include

A

hypokalemia
hypomagnesemia
methadone
droperidol
ondansetron
amiodarone
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
bradycardia

24
Q

Acute treatment for torsades de points includes

A

magnesium sulfate & cardiac pacing

25
What genetic syndrome can prolong QTc?
Romano-Ward Syndrome Timothy syndrome
26
The mnemonic for QTc prolongation is
POINTES
27
POINTES stands for
phenothiazines other meds intracranial bleed no known cause type 1 antiarrhythmic drugs electrolyte disturbances syndromes
28
A prolonged QT interval is defined as
>0.45 seconds in men >0.47 seconds in women
29
Prevention of torsades de points in patients with a long QT interval includes
patients with long QT syndrome may require beta-blocker prophylaxis and/or IC placement avoid SNS stimulation
30
All drugs that prolong the QTc interval include
methadone droperidol haloperidol ondansetron halogenated agents amiodarone quinidine
31
What type of electrical stimulus can initiate torsades de pointes?
A PVC or poorly timed pacer discharge during the second half of the T wave (R on T phenomenon)
32
Name 3 electrolyte disturbances that can prolong the QTc.
hypomagnesemia hypokalemia hypocalcemia
33
A pacemaker consists of a
pulse generator & pacing leads that deliver electrical current to the heart
34
Pacemakers are characterized by a
5 letter code
35
Position 1 indicates
chamber paced
36
Position 2 indicates
chamber sensed
37
Position 3 indicates
response to sensed native cardiac activity
38
Position 4 indicates
programability options
39
Position 5 indicates
the pacemaker can pace multiple sites
40
Common pacing modes include
asynchronous pacing single-chamber pacing dual-chamber pacing
41
Failure to capture occurs when the
pacemaker delivers an electrical stimulus but fails to trigger myocardial depolarization
42
Indications for pacemaker insertion include
symptomatic diseases of impulse formation symptomatic disease of impulse conduction long QT syndrome dilated cardiomyopathy hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
43
The pneumonic for pacemakers is
PaSeR chamber Paced Chamber Sensed Response
44
O in the positions stands for
none
45
Position 3 can have the following letters:
O= none T= triggered I= inhibited D= dual (triggered & inhibited)
46
Position 4 can have the following letters:
o= none R= rate modulation
47
Single-chamber demand pacing can be thought of as
a backup mode- it only fires when the native heart rate falls below a predetermine rate
48
Asynchronous pacing delivers
a constant rate
49
The most common mode of pacing is
dual-chamber AV sequential demand pacing - improves AV synchrony
50
A patient undergoing a bunionectomy has a VOO pacemaker with a rate of 80 bpm. During the procedure, there is a failure to capture and the heart rate decreases to 50 beats per minute. Which of the following BEST explains why this complication occurred? a. the EtCo2 was 20 mmHg b. an ultrasonic harmonic scalpel was used c. the patient was hyperthermic d. the electrocautery setting was changed from "coagulation" to "cutting"
a. the EtCo2 was 20 mmHg