Intravenous anesthetics 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Choose the statements that demonstrate an accurate understanding of thiopental. Select 2
a. it causes a reflex tachycardia
b. prompt awakening is the result of hepatic metabolism
c. it provides neuroprotection against global ischemia
d. there is a sulfur molecule in the second position

A

a. it causes a reflex tachycardia
d. there is a sulfur molecule in the second position

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2
Q

Barbiturates should be avoided in patients with

A

acute intermittent prophyria

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3
Q

The mechanism of action of sodium thiopental is

A

GABA-A agonist

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4
Q

The onset of action of sodium thiopental is

A

30-60 seconds

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5
Q

The duration of action of sodium thiopental is

A

5-10 minutes

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6
Q

The clearance of sodium thiopental is

A

liver

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7
Q

The active metabolite of sodium thiopental is

A

none

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8
Q

The induction dose of sodium thiopental is

A

2.5-5 mg/kg IV

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9
Q

The respiratory effects of sodium thiopental include

A

decreased respiratory drive
histamine release can cause bronchoconstriction

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10
Q

The CV effects of sodium thiopental include

A

hypotension
myocardial depression
preserves the baroreceptor reflex so can lead to reflex tachycardia

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11
Q

The CNS effects of sodium thiopental include

A

decreased ICP
can cause hyperalgesia
decreased CMRO2
decreased cerebral blood flow
decreased EEG activity

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12
Q

Intra-arterial injection of sodium thiopental can cause

A

intense vasoconstriction and crystal formation leading to tissue necrosis

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13
Q

Treatment of intra-arterial injection of sodium thiopental includes

A

treatment with a vasodilator (phentolamine or phenoxybenazamine) or stellate ganglion nerve block (sympathectomy of upper extremity)

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14
Q

_______ is the gold-standard for ECT. It decreases the seizure threshold and produces a better-quality seizure.

A

Methohexital

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15
Q

Repeated doses of sodium thiopental can lead to

A

tissue accumulation–> prolonged wake up time + hangover effect

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16
Q

Compared to propofol, what effect does thiopental have on hypotension?

A

it produces less hypotension than propfol

17
Q

Describe the neuroprotective effects of sodium thiopental?

A

focal ischemia: yes (examples include carotid endarterectomy, temporary occlusion of cerebral arteries)
global ischemia: no (example: cardiac arrest)

18
Q

Acute intermittent porphyria is made worse by stimulation of

A

ALA synthase
emotional stress
prolonged NPO status
CYP450 induction

19
Q

Signs and symptoms of acute intermittent prophyria include

A

GI: severe abdominal pain (most common & typically first), N/V
CNS: anxiety, confusion, seizures, psychosis, coma
PNS: skeletal muscle weakness (risk of respiratory muscle failure), bulbar weakness (risk of aspiration)

20
Q

What drugs should be avoided with acute intermittent porphyria?

A

barbiturates, etomidate, ketamine, ketorolac, amiodarone, calcium channel blockers, birth control pills

21
Q

Anesthetic management of acute intermittent porphyria includes

A

liberal hydration
glucose supplementation
heme arginate
prevention of hypothermia

22
Q

With acute intermittent porphyrias, regional anesthesia is not

A

contraindicated, but many clinicians avoid it since it might be difficult to distinguish block-related complications from an acute porphyria attack

23
Q

The methohexital induction dose is

A

1-1.5 mg/kg

24
Q

Phenobarbital is excreted

A

unchanged in the urine (the hepatic P450 enzymes metabolize all of the other barbiturates)

25
Which anesthetic agent produces sedation that MOST closely resembles natural sleep? a. dexmedetomidine b. midazolam c. propofol d. ketamine
a. dexmedetomidine
26
What is the mechanism of action of dexmedetomidine?
alpha 2 agonist--> decreased cAMP--> inhibits the locus coeruleus in the pons (sedation)
27
What is the onset of action of dexmedetomidine?
10-20 minutes
28
What is the duration of action of dexmedetomidine?
10-30 minutes
29
What is the clearance of dexmedetomidine?
liver
30
What is the active metabolite of dexmedetomidine?
None
31
What is the loading dose of dexmedetomidine?
1 mcg/kg over 10 minutes
32
What is the maintenance dose of dexmedetomidine?
0.4-0.7 mcg/kg/hr
33
What are the respiratory effects of dexmedetomidine?
preserves respiratory drive
34
What are the CV effects of dexmedetomidine?
bradycardia & hypotension transient HTN can occur with rapid administration
35
What are the CNS effects of dexmedetomidine?
sedation & analgesia no change in ICP or CMRO2 decreased CBF
36
What are other properties of dexmedetomidine?
anti-shivering properties lowers risk of emergence delirium limited effects on evoked potentials can be used for preoperative sedation in children
37
What is the pKa of dexmedetomidine?
7.1
38
Describe why rapid administration of dexmedetomidine can cause hypertension.
this direct effect occurs before the centrally mediated reduction in SNS tone. Once the CNS effect kicks in, the central alpha-2 effect will overpower the peripheral alpha-2 effect
39
Does dexmedetomidine provide reliable amnesia?
No