Miscellaneous topics 5 Flashcards

(50 cards)

1
Q

______- is the most important method of infection prevention

A

Hand-washing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The most common source of bloodstream infection in hospitalize patients is

A

the central venous catheter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The preferred method of skin prep before central line placement is

A

chlorohexidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Alcohol based products are ________________ and must be allowed to dry for __________

A

flammable; two minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What three surgical care improvement project (SCIP) measures are we responsible for

A
  1. a prophylactic abx is administered within 60 minutes of surgical incision (vancomycin is 120 minutes)
  2. cardiac surgery patients must achieve glycemic control (<200 mg/dL)
  3. colorectal patients are normothermic upon arrival to PACU (>36 C)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is required in contact precautions?

A

gown and gloves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is required for droplet precautions?

A

gown, gloves, and surgical mask

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is required for airborne precautions?

A

gowns, gloves, N95 respirator, negative pressure room

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Creutfeldt-Jakob disease can lead to

A

encephalopathy and dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Etiologies of prion disease include

A

consumption of contaminated animal protein
contaminated implants (corneal or dural tissue)
cadaveric pituitary hormone supplementation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which procedure places health care workers at the HIGHEST risk of developing a positive skin TB test?
a. bronchoscopy
b. VATs
c. cataract removal
d. Open reduction internal fixation of a femur

A

a. bronchoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Tuberculosis targets the

A

anterior apical segments of the lung but it can also infect the brain, kidney, joints, spine, and GI tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Patients with TB experience

A

a productive cough, hemoptysis, weight loss, fever, night sweats, anorexia, and general malaise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The most common test for TB is

A

a tuberculin skin test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A positive tuberculin skin test necessitates a

A

CXR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Treatment of TB includes

A

isoniazid, rifampin, pyridoxine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Side effects of TB treatment drugs include

A

thrombocytopenia & kidney failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Providers should observe ______ precautions when caring for a patient with TB

A

airborne

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Procedures that produce the highest TB exposure risk for health care personnel are

A
  1. bronchoscopy (highest risk)
  2. endotracheal intubation (second highest risk)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Elective procedures for the patient with TB should be delayed until the patient is

A

on antituberculous chemotherapy
has 3 negative acid-fast bacillus tests and demonstrates symptom improvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

If doing a procedure on a positive TB patient, observe the following:

A

wear N95 mask
HEPA filter placed between the y-piece and the patient’s airway
bacterial filter placed on the expiratory limb of the circle circuit
dedicated anesthesia machine and ventilator whenever possible
pre-and postop care in a negative pressure isolation room

22
Q

What is the first-line treatment for tuberculosis?

23
Q

What defines a positive Mantoux test?

A

induration >10 mm at side of injection

24
Q

Anaphylaxis causes degranulation of: (select 2):
a. neutrophils
b. monocytes
c. basophils
d. mast cells

A

c. basophils
d. mast cells

25
White blood cells can be divided into
granulocytes and agranulocytes
26
Granulocytes include
neutrophils basophils eosinophils
27
Neutrophils (role)
immune defense
28
The role of basophils is
essential component of allergic reactions
29
The role of eosinophils is
immune defense against parasites
30
Agranulocytes include
monocytes lymphocytes- B lymphocytes, T lymphocytes, natural killer cells
31
The role of monocytes is
immune defense
32
The role of B lymphocytes is
humoral immunity
33
The role of T lymphocytes is
cellular immunity
34
The role of natural killer cells is to
limit spread of tumor and microbial cells
35
_______________ prevents degranulation of basophils and mast cells
Epinephrine
36
B lymphocytes are different than t lymphocytes in that they
produce antibodies
37
The function of natural killer cells is reduced by
opioids (concern of cancer recurrence)
38
What are the four types of hypersensitivity reactions?
type 1: immediate hypersensitivity type 2: antibody-mediated type 3: immune complex mediated Type 4: delayed
39
What is an example of a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction?
anaphylaxis extrinsic asthma
40
What is an example of a type 2 hypersensitivity reaction?
ABO-incompatibility heparin-induced thrombocytopenia
41
What is an example of a type 3 hypersensitivity reaction?
snake venom reaction
42
What is an example of a type 4 hypersensitivity reaction?
contact dermatitis
43
Common culprits for perioperative allergic reactions include
NMBD- succinylcholine, rocuronium latex antibiotics- beta-lactams are the most common
44
Treatment of intraoperative anaphylaxis includes
1. discontinue the offending agent 2. administer epinephrine 3. liberal IV hydration 4. Administer H1 & H2 receptor antagonists 5. Hydrocortisone 250 mg IV 6. albuterol for bronchospasm
45
What can be given for refractory hypotension in the setting of anaphylaxis?
vasopressin
46
What are the three ways in which epinephrine treats anaphylaxis?
prevents degranulation provides CV support dilates the airways
47
Anaphylaxis requires prior
sensitization or cross-reactivity
48
An anaphylactoid reaction requires
no prior exposure
49
Anaphylaxis and anaphylactoid reactions lead to the degranulation of
mast cells & basophils
50
What are the CV presentation of anaphylaxis?
hypotension tachycardia arrhythmia cardiac arrest