Miscellaneous topics 2 Flashcards

(55 cards)

1
Q

Patients with extensive burn injuries require

A

aggressive fluid resuscitation as well as surgery for debridement and skin grafting to prevent bacterial sepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the four classes of burn injury?

A

superficial
partial-thickness
full-thickness 3rd degree
full-thickness 4th degree

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe a superficial burn

A

epidermis only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe a partial-thickness burn.

A

extends to the dermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe a full thickness 3rd degree burn.

A

complete destruction of the epidermis and dermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe a full thickness 4th degree burn

A

Extends to muscle and bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

We can use _________________ to assist with fluid replacement calculations

A

“rule of nines”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Complications of burns include

A

hypovolemic shock
inhalation injury
sepsis
contractures
scarring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the patient experience with a 1st degree burn?

A

stinging, tender and sore

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does the patient experience with a 2nd degree burn?

A

very painful

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does the patient experience with a 3rd degree full thickness burn?

A

no sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does the patient experience with a 4th degree burn?

A

no sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

For children 1-4, the rule of nine’s looks a little different in that

A

more percentage is given to the child’s head (19%) and slightly less to the legs (15%) and torso (16%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the BEST IV fluid to administer in the initial 24 hours after a major burn?
a. D5W
b. 3% NaCl
c. 5% albumin
d. Lactated ringers

A

d. Lactated ringer’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Immediately after a burn, microvascular permeability

A

increases and this creates a capillary leak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Capillary leak leads to

A

edema formation
hypovolemia
shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Fluid shifts and edema formation are greatest in the first ______________ and begin to stabilize by _____________

A

12 hours; 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

________________- should be avoided during the first 24 hours because it’s lost to the interstitial space

A

Albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the two commonly used fluid resuscitation formulas used for the acutely burned patient?

A

Parkland and Modified Brooke
-both use LR in the 1st 24 hrs. and then use D5W

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Additional considerations for burn injuries include

A

abdominal compartment syndrome
carbon monoxide poisoning
airway complications
up-regulation of extrajunctional receptors after 24 hours
impaired temperature regulation
increased oxygen consumption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A rising hemoglobin in the first few days following a burn suggests

A

inadequate volume resuscitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Describe the Parkland fluid resuscitation goals.

A

4 mL LR x %TBSA burned x kg
1/2 in first 8 hours
1/2 in next 16 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Describe the Modified Brooke resuscitation goals.

A

2 mL LR x %TBSA burned X kg
1/2 in first 8 hours
1/2 in next 16 hours

24
Q

What are the clinical end points of burn resuscitation for adults?

A

UO: >0.5 mL/kg/hr
MAP> 60 mmHg
HR: 80-100
Base deficit <2
Oxygen delivery index: 600 mL O2/min/m2
Mixed venous oxygen tension: 35-40 mmHg

25
What are the clinical end points for children and infants?
UO child <30 kg: >1 mL/kg/hr SBP 70-90 + (2x age in years) SBP for infants >60 mmHg
26
What are considerations with electrical burns
dysrhythmias are common myoglobinemia is caused by extensive muscle damage and is nephrotoxic so needs to be flushed out of the body
27
Abdominal compartment syndrome may result from
aggressive fluid resuscitation
28
Abdominal compartment syndrome is defined as
intraabdominal pressure >20 mmHg (transduction of bladder pressure) AND evidence of organ dysfunction (hemodynamic instability, oliguria, increased PIP)
29
Treatment of abdominal compartment syndrome includes
neuromuscular blockade sedation diuresis abdominal decompression via laparotomy
30
With carbon monoxide poisoning, blood takes on
a cherry red appearance
31
The SpO2 with carbon monoxide poisoning
may give a falsely elevated result
32
Treatment of carbon monoxide poisoning is
100% FiO2 or hyperbaric oxygen
33
The first priority in all burn patients is to
administer a high FiO2
34
The gold standard for diagnosing the extent of airway injury is
fiberoptic bronchoscopy
35
A surgical airway with the patient with a burn injury increases the risk of
pulmonary sepsis and late pulmonary complications - it should only be used as a last resort
36
When can succinylcholine be used with burns?
only within 24 hours; after that it can cause lethal hyperkalemia
37
The dose of nondepolarizing NMBs with burns should be
increased 2-3 fold b/c there are more receptors
38
Patients become ________________ after a burn
hypermetabolic
39
Hypermetabolism leads to increased
catabolism, oxygen consumption, heart rate, and respiratory rate
40
Choose the statement that BEST describes the anesthetic considerations for the patient undergoing electroconvulsive therapy. a. there is an initial increase in sympathetic tone followed by an increased in parasympathetic tone b. hypocarbia increases the seizure duration c. pregnancy is an absolute contraindication d. lithium shortens the duration of action of succinylcholine
b. hypocarbia increases the seizure duration
41
Electroconvulsive therapy is a treatment for
medication resistant depression as well as mania, catatonia, suicidal ideation, and some types of schizophrenia
42
________ is the gold standard induction agent for ECT
Methohexital
43
The efficacy of ECT is primarily dependent on
the seizure duration
44
The best response is obtained when the seizure lasts
>25 seconds
45
__________ during induction can produce a better quality seizure
hyperventilation
46
Select absolute contraindications to ECT include
pheochromocytoma unstable C-spine brain tumor MI within the past 4-6 months recent intracranial surgery (<3 months) recent stroke (<3 months)
47
Key relative contraindications to ECT include
pregnancy CHF glaucoma presence of a pacemaker/ICD retinal detachment severe pulmonary disease
48
The physiologic response to ECT includes
initial response: increased PNS activity during the tonic phase secondary response: increased SNS activity during the clonic phase
49
What drugs are avoided because they decease seizure duration?
propofol midazolam lorazepam fentanyl lidocaine
50
What actions are avoided because they decrease seizure duration?
hypoventilation hypercarbia hypoxia
51
What drugs increase seizure duration?
etomidate ketamine alfentanil with propofol aminophylline caffeine
52
____________ may be given during ECT to blunt the SNS response
Esmolol
53
___________________________ is used as an antisialogogue and reduces the risk of bradycardia and asystole
Glycopyrrolate
54
This drug prolongs the duration of action of succinylcholine AND nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers
lithium
55
Patients on MAOIs who receive indirect acting sympathomimetics can experience
hypertensive crisis