Kidney 6 Flashcards

(46 cards)

1
Q

Drugs to avoid in the patient on dialysis include: (select 2):
a. vecuronium
b. meperidine
c. succinylcholine
d. dexmedetomidine

A

a. vecuronium
b. meperidine

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2
Q

________- do not directly cause kidney dysfunction

A

The modern halogenated anesthetics

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3
Q

Although there’s no human data that links AKI and compound A, the FDA recommends that sevoflurane be administered at a rate of

A

1 L/min for no more than 2 MAC hours

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4
Q

The rate of compound A production is increased by

A

low FGF
high sevo vol%
warm soda lime
increased CO2 production

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5
Q

Succinylcholine can increase serum potassium by _________ for up to ________

A

0.5-1.0 mEq/L for up to 10-15 minutes

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6
Q

Due to their organ-independent elimination ____________ are the best nondepolarizing NMBs for renal failure.

A

Cisatracurium and atracurium

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7
Q

The following do not require dosage adjustments in patients with kidney disease

A

Both anticholinesterases and anticholinergics

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8
Q

____________ is not recommended in patients with severe renal impairment

A

Sugammadex

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9
Q

____________ may need an upward dosage adjustment due to a hyperdynamic circulation and disruption of the blood-brain barrier secondary to uremia

A

Propofol

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10
Q

Morphine is metabolized to

A

morphine-6-glucuronide which relies on renal excretion

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11
Q

Meperidine is metabolized to

A

nonmeperidine

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12
Q

Accumulation of normeperidine can cause

A

convulsions

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13
Q

Altered responses to anesthetic drugs in the setting of kidney disease are usually due to one or more of the following:

A

active metabolites
acidosis increases the nonionized fraction
decreased protein binding increases the free fraction
impaired elimination of active metabolites
uremia-induced disruption in the blood-brain barrier

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14
Q

Patients with renal failure may experience exaggerated hemodynamic effects due to:

A

antihypertensive medications- specifically ACEI & ARBs
attenuation of SNS tone
positive pressure ventilation

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15
Q

_____________ metabolism liberates a significant amount of free fluoride ions and was related to high output renal failure

A

methoxyflurane

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16
Q

All of the following reduce the incidence of contrast-induce nephropathy EXCEPT:
a. sodium bicarbonate
b. fluid bolus with 0.9% NaCl
c. low-osmolar contrast dye
d. furosemide

A

d. furosemide

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17
Q

The risk of AKI related to nephrotoxic agents is increased in patients with

A

pre-existing kidney disease
hypovolemia
sepsis
CHF

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18
Q

_________ can also cause anaphylaxis

A

Radiographic contrast media

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19
Q

Prevention of contrast-induced nephropathy includse

A

use nonionic, iso or low-osmolar contrast instead of hyperosmolar contrast
use the lowest volume allowed
withhold other drugs with known nephrotoxic effects
hydrate with IV 0.9% NaCl before administration of contrast dye
sodium bicarb injection or infusion

20
Q

__________ is nephrotoxic and can lead to tubular obstruction and acute tubular necrosis

21
Q

Myoglobin is best treated with

A

aggressive IV hydration and an agent to alkalize the urine (e.g. sodium bicarb or acetazolamide)

22
Q

Nephrotoxic antibiotics include

A

gentamycin
tobramycin
amikacin
vancomycin
amphotericin B
sulfonamide
tetracyclines
cephalosporins

23
Q

The two ways that sevoflurane can theoretically impair renal function include

A

compound A (produced in the breathing circuit)
production of free fluoride ions (produced by the liver)

24
Q

______________ are immunosuppressant agents that prevent the rejection of transplanted organs

A

Calcineurin inhibitors (cyclosporine & tacrolimus)

25
___________ is a non-calcineurin inhibitor that carries a much lower risk of nephrotoxicity
Sirolimus
26
The extent of nephrotoxic effects is determined by the
concentration of the toxin & duration of exposure
27
How does radiographic contrast media cause nephrotoxicity?
ischemic injury d/t vasoconstriction in the renal medulla direct cytotoxic effects
28
Signs of AKI begin at
24-36 hours & peak at 3-5 days
29
Myoglobin is released into the circulation during
a hemolytic reaction or rhabdomyolysis
30
Rhabdomyolysis and myoglobinemia are sequelae of
direct muscle trauma muscle ischemia prolonged immobilization MH succinylcholine in a patient with Duchenne muscular dystrophy
31
A level of creatine phosphokinase above _______ is associated with an increased risk of kidney injury
10,000 units/L
32
Prevention strategies with myoglobin include
maintenance of renal blood flow and tubular flow with IV hydration osmotic diuresis with mannitol keep UOP >100-150 mL/hr administer sodium bicarb and/or acetazolamide to alkalize the urine
33
The risk of AKI with aminoglycosides is reduced with
IV fluids correction of correctable risk factors close monitoring of serum trough levels
34
For the patient undergoing TURP, match each irrigation fluid with its unique anesthetic consideration sorbitol glycine distilled water normal saline hemolysis transient blindness hyperglycemia risk of electrocution
distilled water- hemolysis sorbitol- hyperglycemia normal saline- risk of electrocution glycine-transient blindness
35
The most common approach to TURP is
neuraxial anesthesia
36
A level of ___ is required for TURP
T10
37
Neuraxial anesthesia is preferred b/c it allows for
earlier detection of complications since the patient's neurologic status can be assessed
38
Risk of TURP related to continuous fluid administration include
circulatory overload & toxicity from irrigation solutes
39
Resection time of TURP should be limited to
1 hour
40
The absorbed volume can be estimated as
10-30 mL/min of resection time
41
Absorption of a large volume of ___________ can produce TURP syndrome
hypo-osmolar irrigation solution
42
The classic triad of TURP syndrome includes
hypertension bradycardia change in mental status
43
Glycine absorption can lead to
transient blindness
44
Treatment for transient blindness includes
no treatment is required
45
Treatment for TURP syndrome includes
cardiopulmonary support correcting serum sodium levels administering midazolam for seizures
46
Other complications of TURP include
bladder perforation (abdominal and shoulder pain) bleeding hypothermia