Miscellaneous topics 6 Flashcards

(52 cards)

1
Q

What are the respiratory presentation of anaphylaxis?

A

bronchospasm- decreased EtCO2, decreased SaO2, increased peak inspiratory pressure
laryngeal edema
increased mucus production

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2
Q

What are the GI effects of anaphylaxis?

A

abdominal cramping
N/V
diarrhea

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3
Q

What are the skin effects of anaphylaxis?

A

flushing
urticaria (hives)
erythema
pruritus

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4
Q

Type 1 is a _____________ mediated reaction

A

IgE

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5
Q

The best lab test to determine if an allergic response has occurred is

A

tryptase

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6
Q

Type 2 is a ______________ mediated reaction

A

IgG and IgM

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7
Q

High risk groups for a latex allergy include

A

spina bifida/myelomeningocele, atopy, health care workers and allergy to banana, kiwi, mango, papaya, pineapple, and tomato

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8
Q

Other common allergens in the OR include

A

chlorhexidine, protamine, contrast media, colloids, blood products, opioids, hypnotics, and local anesthetics

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9
Q

Cisplatin, a chemotherapeutic agent, can cause

A

acoustic n. injury + nephrotoxicity

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10
Q

Vincristine & vinblastine, a chemo drug, can cause

A

peripheral neuropathy

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11
Q

Bleomycin, a chemo drug, can cause

A

pulmonary fibrosis (keep FiO2 <30%)

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12
Q

Doxorubicin, a chemo drug, can cause

A

cardiotoxicity

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13
Q

5-fluorouracil, a chemo drug, can cause

A

bone marrow suppression

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14
Q

Methotrexate, a chemo drug, can cause

A

bone marrow suppression

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15
Q

A history of severe N/V can impact

A

volume status and electrolyte balance

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16
Q

____________ may be a reason to avoid an oral airway, nasal airway, LMA, or esophageal temperature probe.

A

Mucositis (ulceration of mucous membranes)

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17
Q

What are the five key GI hormones?

A

Gastrin
secretin
cholecystokinin
gastric inhibitory peptide
somatostatin

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18
Q

The universal “off” switch for digestion is this hormone:

A

somatostatin

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19
Q

This hormone increases stomach acid and stimulates chief cells to secrete pepsinogen:

A

gastrin

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20
Q

This hormone instructs the pancreas to secrete bicarbonate and the liver to secrete bile:

A

secretin

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21
Q

This hormone slows gastric emptying and stimulates pancreatic insulin release:

A

gastric inhibitory peptide (K cells)

22
Q

Barrier pressure is reduced by things that

A

reduce LES tone (cricoid pressure, anticholinergics, pregnancy)
increase intragastric pressure (pregnancy)

23
Q

__________ is increased in the patient with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

A

Gastrin (gastrin secreting tumor–> increased stomach acid–> gastric ulceration)

24
Q

Gallbladder pain after a fatty meal is caused by

A

increased CCK release

25
The treatment for carcinoid tumors is
somatostatin
26
___________ is a drug that increases barrier pressure
metoclopramide
27
Which agent primarily targets the chemoreceptor trigger zone? a. ondansetron b. scopolamine c. dexamethasone d. hydroxyzine
a. ondansetron
28
What are the 6 types of antiemetics?
5-HT3 antagonists Neurokinin-1 antagonists dopamine antagonists antihistamines anticholinergics steroids
29
What type of anesthetic reduces the risk of PONV?
TIVA & regional anesthesia
30
_____________ should be administered during induction to be effective
Dexamethasone
31
Ondansetron should be administered
30 minutes before emergence
32
Dopamine antagonists include
butyrophenones, phenothiazines, metoclopramide
33
Dopamine antagonists can cause
extrapyramidal symptoms
34
These drugs are contraindicated in the patient with Parkinson's disease:
dopamine antagonists
35
Metoclopramide is contraindicated with
bowel obstruction
36
Propofol at _____- produces an antiemetic effect
10-20 mg
37
Ephedrine given ___________ may reduce PONV by
25 mg IM by maintaining BP and cerebral perfusion
38
Transdermal scopolamine is best applied
>4 hours before the induction of anesthesia; lasts for 72 hours
39
The vomiting center resides in the
nucleus tractus solitarius (medulla)
40
Sensory input to the vomiting center arises from
the chemoreceptor trigger zone, GI tract, and vestibular system
41
The GI tract gives rise to these receptors involved in vomiting:
5-HT3 NK-1
42
The CTZ gives rise to these receptors involved in vomiting:
5-HT3 NK-1 DA-2 noxious chemicals
43
The vestibular apparatus gives rise to these receptors involved in vomiting:
H1 M1
44
Patient risk factors for PONV include
female gender nonsmoker history of motion sickness previous episodes of PONV age is loosely associated (youth> elderly)
45
Anesthetic risk factors for PONV include
halogenated anesthetics nitrous oxide (>50%) opioids etomidate neostigmine
46
Surgical risk factors for PONV include
long surgical duration (> 1 hr) GYN procedures laparoscopy breast plastics peds procedures: strabismus, orchiopexy, T&A
47
The most common side effects of ondansetron are
headache and/or diarrhea
48
5HT3 antagonists and butyrophenones can prolong
the QT interval (droperidol has a black box warning for QT prolongation)
49
Motion induced nausea is the result of
M1 & H1 stimulation in the vestibular system of the inner ear
50
Patients undergoing _______ should receive antiemetic agents that target the vestibular system
middle ear surgery
51
Prochloroperazine produces significant
sedation
52
A nonpharmacologic method of reducing PONV is
the P6 acupressure point- pressure point located 3 finger breadths below the wrist on the inner forearm