Hazmat 5 Flashcards

1
Q

(****) is the first step in the Eight step process.

A

Site management

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2
Q

The major emphasis of site management is establishing control of the incident scene by assuming command of the incident an isolating people from the problem by establishing an (**) and (*****)

A

isolation perimeter

Hazard control zones

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3
Q

The MINS defines (*****) as the location where the resources can be placed while awaiting a tactical assignment.

A

staging

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4
Q

The (****) is responsible for the management of the staging area.

A

opreations section

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5
Q

The first arriving unit responds to the incident scene, while all other units are ordered to stage at a safe location close to, but away from the scene, from where they can be deployed in a safe timely, and effective manner. (***)

A

Level 1 staging

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6
Q

As an incident grows or escalates, the IC designates a fixed location where resources responding beyond the initial response can be placed until they are given a tactical assignment.

A

Level 2 staging

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7
Q

The designated crowd control line surrounding the Hazard control Zones.

A

Isolation Perimeter

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8
Q

The isolation perimeter is always the line between the general public and the (****)

A

Cold zone

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9
Q

Designation of area at a hazardous materials incident based on safety and the degree of hazard. These zones are defined as the (), () and (**) zones and located inside the isolation perimeter.

A

Hazard control zones

hot warm cold

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10
Q

(****) The control zone at a hazardous material incident that extends far enough to prevent adverse effects from hazardous materials releases to personnel outside the zone

A

Hot Zone

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11
Q

(*****) The control zone at a hazardous materials incident site where personnel and equipment DECON and HOT zone support takes place.

A

Warm zone

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12
Q

(****) The areas at hazardous material incident that contains the incident command post and other support functions necessary to control the incident.

A

cold zone

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13
Q

(*****) A holding area within the HOT zone where personnel are controlled until they can be safely decontaminated, treated, or removed

A

Area or Refuge

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14
Q

(****) The strategy used by the IC to protect the general population from the hazardous material by implementing a strategy of either 1 protect in place 2. evacuation 3. a combo of protect in place and evacuation.

A

Public Protective Actions

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15
Q

(***) Directing people to go inside a building, seal it up as effectively as possible, and remain inside the building until the danger has passed.

A

Protect in place (shelter in place)

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16
Q

(***) The controlled relocation of people from an area of danger to a safer area or one in which the risk is considered to be acceptable.

A

Evacuation

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17
Q

(**) is the highest strategic priority.

A

life safety

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18
Q

An experienced commander only gives up the advantage of a stationary command post when it is absolutely necessary for the IC to personally provide (****) to responders operating in forward positions.

A

one on one direction

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19
Q

(*****) of Hazardous Materials Response Teams is an effective way to ensure the mutual aid hazmat capability you need is what shows up at the scene.

A

Resource typing

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20
Q

The DOT (**) can serve as a good reference to establish initial evacuation zones.

A

Emergency Response Guide

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21
Q

The (*****) account for all incoming emergency response units, assigns resources from the staging area to their tactical assignment at the request of the IC, and request additional emergency resources as necessary.

A

Staging Area Manager STAM

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22
Q

Normally staging as part of initial response operations places when a units stop short of the scene (approximately (****) typical block in their direction of travel)…

A

one

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23
Q

When confronted with an incident inside of a structure, the best place to begin controlling people is at (*****)

A

points of entry

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24
Q

(**) are designated areas at a hazardous materials incident based on safety and degree of hazard.

A

Hazard control zones

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25
Q

As a general rule the news media should be located outside of the (***)

A

isolation perimeter

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26
Q

The ICP and support personnel should be located in the (*****).

A

Cold Zone

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27
Q

Emergency responders supporting the tactical hazmat response should be position within the () and (*).

A

cold zone

warm zone

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28
Q

The entry teams should be located in the (*****).

A

hot zones

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29
Q

Emergency responders can be challenged by scenarios where civilians and the public are exposed to a hazmat prior to their arrival. In this scenario, an (***) should be established within the Hot zone to control any exposed personnel until they can be safely managed.

A

Area of refuge

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30
Q

When a hazard is inside a building, the zones can be denoted by their location within the structure. For example a spill in room 321 may dictate that rooms 320 to 322 would be the (**), the rest of the building would be the (), and the outside of the building itself would be designated the (**).

A

hot zone
warm zone
cold zone

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31
Q

As a guideline any area with a measurable concentration of contaminant using available monitoring should initially be considered within the (*****) until additional data are obtained and evaluated.

A

hot zine

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32
Q

Initial monitoring efforts should concentrate on determining if (***) concentrations are present.

A

IDLH

33
Q

(****) is usually measured in percent of the atmosphere using a combustible gas indicator that displays the result percentage.

A

Flammability

34
Q

The IDLH action level is (**)

A

10% of the LEL

35
Q

(****) is measured in percent of the atmosphere using an oxygen meter and displays in %.

A

Oxygen

36
Q

An IDLH oxygen deficient atmosphere is (*****) oxygen or lower.

A

19.5 %

37
Q

an oxygen enriched atmosphere contains (****) oxygen or higher

A

23.5%

38
Q

(****) is measured in parts per million and is normally measured by Photo Ionization Device with substances that are organic.

A

toxicity

39
Q

Unless a published action level or similar guideline is available such as Emergency Planning Guidelines the () or (*) values should be used initially.

A

STEL

IDLH

40
Q

It her is no published IDLH value, consider using and estimated IDLH of (**)

A

10 times the TLV/TWA

41
Q

(****) zone– Monitoring readings above STEL or IDLH exposure values.

A

Hot Zone

42
Q

(*****) zone — Monitoring readings equal to or greater than TLV/TWA or PEL exposure values.

A

warm

43
Q

(****) zone – Monitor readings less than TLV?TWA or PEL exposure values

A

cold

44
Q

Any positive reading () times above background levels or alpha and / or beta particles that are () to (***) counts per minute (cpm) above background would confirm the existence or a radiation hazard and should be used as the basis for establishing a Hot Zone.

A

2

200 to 300

45
Q

Retaining large (*****) during prolonged operations without good safety and technical reasons will eventually create problems with property owners and the effected community.

A

Hazard Control Zones

46
Q

For rescue operations in a hazmat environment to be effective, first responders must have (1)() (2)() (3) (****)

A
  1. the proper training
  2. pre established SOPs
  3. appropriate personal protective clothing and equipment, on scene and rapidly donned
47
Q

(***) are the strategies used by the IC to protect the general population from hazardous material by implementing 1. Protect in place 2. evacuation 3. combination of evacuation or protect in place.

A

Public Protective Actions

48
Q

PPA strategies are implemented after the IC has established an (**) and defined (**) for emergency responders.

A

isolation perimeter

Hazard Control Zones

49
Q

Be aware that if the situation deteriorates rapidly, exposures within (****) may be contaminated.

A

1000 feet

50
Q

The (***) is a good resource document to guide the IC in making quick initial judgment calls on which PPA option to implement.

A

Emergency Response Guidebook

51
Q

Protection in Place may not be the best option if the nature of the incident involves a prolonged release of a (**). It is also not the best option when the release involves a (**) when the gas can permeate the structure and create an internal explosion hazard.

A

toxic material

flammable gas

52
Q

High humidity and warm air can force vapors towards the (*****)

A

ground

53
Q

As a general rule, the older a building the less likely it will provide a safe refuge for periods longer than (*****)

A

1 hour

54
Q

You should be familiar with the local (**) which indicates the direction the wind blows the majority of the time for the time of year in the area you live in.

A

wind rose

55
Q

(****) evacuations are implemented by the IC when the incident affects one or two buildings in the vicinity of the incident.

A

limited scale

56
Q

The majority of evacuations required at hazmat incidents affect a (***)

A

small number of people

57
Q

The US Dept of Health and Human services, agency for toxic substances disease registry (ATSDR) conduct a biennial study. The study found that evacuations were ordered in 1,155 of 15,462 events for which evacuation status was reported Of this sample, the majority (****) was from the affected building or effected areas of one or more buildings.

A

75.9%

58
Q

Emergency responders are sometimes called to incidents where several people are exhibiting signs and symptoms of illness but there is no apparent source. This may be indicative of (***)

A

sick building syndrome (SBS)

59
Q

THe IC should consider initiating a(((**))) of a suspected SBS incident whenever the signs and symptoms of the affected people become acute

A

limited scale evacuation

60
Q

(****) requires fixed facilities to have written evacuation procedures.

A

OSHA

61
Q

(****) evacuations involve the relocation of large populations from hazardous area to a safe area

A

full scale

62
Q

(*****) incident protection action — requires all employees and contrators to evacuate the work site in an upwind direction and report to their pre designated area as defined in the site specific emergency plan.

A

level I

63
Q

(***) Incident Protective Action – requires personnel to evacuate the immediate work site and meet at the pre designated assembly area for accountability and emergency work assignments as specified in the site specific emergency plan The public surrounding the work site should be protected in place.

A

Level II

64
Q

(****) Incident Protective Action – is a major incident which requires the total evacuation of all company personnel and the surrounding public to pre designated locations outside the immediate area. Depending upon the nature of the incident and the potential for the problem to mitigate off site, there will also be PPA instructions given to the surrounding community.

A

Level III

65
Q

Door to Door – Responders are required to go door to door to advise residents in the affected area. This is usually completed by (****)

A

Law Enforcement

66
Q

Sounds from public address systems on emergency vehicles travel () , which means the vehicles has to stop every (***) to broadcast the message.

A

500

1000

67
Q

The (****) is an effective method of alerting people in buildings and automobiles.

A

Emergency Alert System EAS

68
Q

The EAS must be available to the president of the united states within (*****) using normal activation procedures form any area of the united states for national emergencies.

A

10 minutes

69
Q

(***) This system has the ability to send emergency text messages over participating commercial wireless networks through cell towers

A

Personalized Localized Emergency Network

PLAN

70
Q

There are three types of alert that can be sent out over PLAN:

A

message issued by POTUS
alerts involving imminent threats to life safety
Amber Alerts

71
Q

(****) can reach potentially large numbers of people by telephoning hundred of phone numbers simultaneously by computer

A

Computerized Telephone Notification System

CT/NS

72
Q

The US Coast Guard may also contact boaters directly by issuing special broad cast on (****)

A

marine channel 16

73
Q

(***) are defined as people who can not self evacuate by any means of transportation.

A

Critical Transportation Needs CTN

74
Q

(*****) are the only practical cost effective way of moving large numbers of people with CTN

A

Commercialized Motor Coach

75
Q

When large numbers of CTN are known to exist the Evacuation Plan should be supported by a (**) For example, if the CTN population in your town is estimated to be 10,000 people, it would take about () motor coaches

A

Motor Coach Evacuation Plan Annex

222

76
Q

Special Emergency extraction may be required to transport people from areas close to the hazardous materials release. Some organizations have addressed this problem by purchasing (***) These devises typically have about 5 to 10 minutes of breathing air in their cylinders. The face piece is a simple plastic hood placed over the head to provide fresh air breathing supply for a limited duration.

A

Emergency Escape Packs

Emergency Breathing Apparatus (EBA)

77
Q

One study suggest that approximately (*****) of evacuees don not stay at public relocation shelters.

A

65 %

78
Q

The (*****) usually coordinates the shelter program, provides the funding, and trains the shelter managers, while the cooperating organizations provide the personnel to staff the shelter.

A

local Emergency Preparedness Agency