Hazmat 7 Flashcards

1
Q

Third step in the Eight step process (****)

A

Hazard and risk evaluation

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2
Q

(****) refer to a danger or peril.

A

hazards

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3
Q

In hazardous material response operations, (***) generally refer to the physical and chemical properties of the material.

A

hazards

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4
Q

(*****) refers to the probability of suffering harm or loss.

A

(*****) risks

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5
Q

(*****) cant be determined from books or pulled from computerized databases – they are those intangibles that are different at every hazmat incident

A

risks

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6
Q

(****) Assessment of the hazards that may be involved in the incident, including the collection and interpretation of hazard and response information.

A

Hazard analysis

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7
Q

(*****) this is the process where responders analyze the problem and asses potential outcome.

A

Risk evaluation

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8
Q

(*******) The output of the risk evaluation process is the implementation of strategies and tactic that will produce a favorable outcome.

A

Development of the IAP

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9
Q

(*****) Pure substance that can not be broke down into simpler substances by chemical.

A

element

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10
Q

(****) Chemical combination of two or more elements or different ones that is electrically neutral.

A

compound

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11
Q

(*****) Substances made up of two or more elements or compounds, physically mixed together.

A

mixture

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12
Q

(*****) Mixture in which all of the ingredients are completely dissolved.

A

solution

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13
Q

Solutions are composed of a (**) and a dissolved substance (known as a solute)

A

solvent

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14
Q

(*****) pourable mixture of a solvent and a liquid.

A

slurry

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15
Q

(****) Gases that have been transformed into extremely cold liquids stored a temperatures below -130F

A

Cryogenic Liquid

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16
Q

(*****) substances are chemically altered and are changed into different substances with different physical and chemical properties after the change.

A

chemical change

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17
Q

(****) Process that leads to the transformation of one set of chemical substance to another.

A

chemical interactions.

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18
Q

(****) within a closed container can result in a build up of heat that, in turn, causes an increase in pressure.

A

chemical interactions

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19
Q

(****) The electrostatic attraction of oppositely charges particles. Atoms or groups of atoms can form ions or complex ions

A

Ionic bounding

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20
Q

(*****) The force holding together atoms that share electrons/

A

Covalent bounding

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21
Q

(****) Materials that contain carbon atoms.

A

Organic materials

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22
Q

(****) Compounds derived from other than vegetable and animal sources, which lack carbon chains but may contain a carbon atom.

A

In organic material

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23
Q

(***) Compounds primarily made up of hydrogen and carbon.

A

Hydrocarbons

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24
Q

(***) A hydrocarbon possessing only single covalent bonds, and all the carbon atom are saturated with hydrogen.

A

Saturated hydrocarbons

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25
Q

(****) A hydrocarbon with at least one multiple bound between two carbon atoms somewhere in the molecule.

A

unsaturated hydrocarbons

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26
Q

(*****) A hydrocarbon containing the benzene “ring” which is formed by six carbon atoms and contains resonant bonds.

A

Aromatic Hydrocarbons

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27
Q

(****) A hydrocarbon with a halogen atom substituted for a hydrogen atom.

A

Halogenated hydrocarbons.

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28
Q

(****) the state of a material at normal temperatures.

A

Normal physical state.

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29
Q

Of the 700 chemicals listed in the NOSH Pocket guide to chemical hazards, approximately (**) are listed as toxic through skin absorption.

A

85

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30
Q

(*****) the pressure exerted by the vapor within the container against the sides of the container.

A

vapor presure

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31
Q

760 mmhg is equivalent to () or ()

A

14.7 psi or 1 atmosphere/

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32
Q

Materials with vapor pressures greater than 760 mmhg are usually found as (*****)

A

gases

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33
Q

Water has a vapor pressure of (**)

A

25 mm hg

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34
Q

Materials with a vapor pressure above (****) are producing vapor and can present a significant inhalation risk.

A

25 mm hg

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35
Q

(***) The weight of a solid material as compared to the weight of an equal volume of water.

A

Specific gravity

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36
Q

If the specific gravity is less than one, the material is lighter than water and will (**)

A

float

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37
Q

If the specific gravity is greater than one, the material is heavier than water and will (*****)

A

sink

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38
Q

Most insoluble hydrocarbon are lighter than water and will (**) on the surface.

A

float

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39
Q

(*****) the weight of a pure vapor or gas compared with the weight of an equal volume of dry air at the same temperature and pressure.

A

Vapor density

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40
Q

If the vapor density of a gas is less than 1.0 the material is lighter than air and may (**)

A

rise

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41
Q

If the vapor density is greater than 1.0, the material is heavier than air and will collect in (*****)

A

low enclosed areas

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42
Q

Materials with a vapor density (***)will likely hang in the mid level and will not travel unless moved by wind or ventilation drafts

A

close to 1.0

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43
Q

The molecular weight of air is (*****)

A

29

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44
Q

materials with a molecular weight 29 will (*****)

A

rise

sink

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45
Q

An easy way to remember common hazardous gases and simple asphyxiants lighter than air is the acronym (*******)

A

4H MEDIC ANNA

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46
Q

(****) the temperature at which a liquid changes its phase to a vapor gas.

A

Boiling ponit

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47
Q

(***) the temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid equals atmospheric pressure

A

boiling point

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48
Q

the lower the (*****) the more vapors that are produced at a given temperature.

A

boiling point

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49
Q

In NIOSH Packet guide to chemical hazards, vapor density is identified as (***) or relative density

A

RgasD

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50
Q

A low flash point flammable liquid will also have a low (*****), which translates into greater amounts of vapor being giving off.

A

boiling point

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51
Q

(****) the temperature at which a solid changes its phase to a liquid.

A

melting point

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52
Q

This temperature is also the freezing point depending upon the direction of the change.

A

melting point

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53
Q

(*****) The ability of a substance to change from the solid to the vapor phase without passing through the liquid phase.

A

sublimation

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54
Q

The opposite of sublimation is (*****)

A

deposition

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55
Q

(*****) is the temperature above which a gas can not be liquefied no matter how much pressure is applied.

A

critical temperature

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56
Q

(**) is the pressure that must be applied to liquefy a gas at its critical temperature.

A

critical pressure

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57
Q

A gas can not be liquefied above its (****)

A

critical temperature

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58
Q

The lower the (****), the less pressure required to bring a gas to its liquid state.

A

critical temperature

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59
Q

(***) occurs during the rapid release of a liquefied gas that causes it to rapidly cool, slow the boiling process, and remain a liquid state.

A

Auto refrigeration

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60
Q

(*****) the ease with which a liquid or solid can pass into the vapor state.

A

volatility

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61
Q

The higher a materials (**) the greater its rate of evaporation.

A

volatility

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62
Q

(**) is a measure of a liquids propensity to evaporate, the higher a liquids vapor pressure, the more (*) the material is

A

vapor pressure

volatile

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63
Q

(****) the rate at which a material will vaporize or change from liquid to vapor, as compared to the rate of vaporization of a specific known material—n butyl acetate

A

Evaporation rate

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64
Q

The relative evaporation rate of butyl acetate is (***), and other materials are then classified.

A

1.0

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65
Q

(****) The amount of gas produced by the evaporation of one volume of liquid at a given temperature.

A

Expansion ratio

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66
Q

(****) this is a significant property when evaluating liquid and vapor releases of liquefied gases and cryogenic liquids.

A

expansion ratio

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67
Q

The greater the (**), the more gas produced and the larger the hazard area.

A

expansion ratio

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68
Q

(****) The ability or a solid, liquid, gas, or vapor to dissolve in water or other specified medium

A

solubility

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69
Q

(*****) the ability of one material to blend uniformly with another, as in a solid in liquid, liquid in liquid, gas in liquid or gas in gas

A

solubility

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70
Q

(*****) this is a significant property in evaluating spill control tactical options and for the selection of water and class B firefighting foams

A

solubility

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71
Q

(****) The ability of materials to dissolve into a uniform mixture.

A

miscibility

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72
Q

If a material is (*****) in water, we mean it is infinitely dissolvable in water.

A

miscible

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73
Q

(****) an indication of the solubility and / or miscibility of a material.

A

degree of solubility

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74
Q
degree of solubility
negligible --(******)
slight --  (******)
Moderate --  (*****)
Appreciable  --  (*****) 
complete --  (****)
A
less than 0.1%
0.1 to 1.0%
1 to 10%
greater than 10%
soluble at all portions
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75
Q

(****) Measurement of the thickness of a liquid and its ability to flow.

A

Viscosity

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76
Q

(****) are the intrinsic characteristics or properties of a substance described by its tendency to undergo chemical change.

A

Chemical properties

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77
Q

the true identity of the material is changed as the result of a (****)such as reactivity and the heat of combustion.

A

chemical reaction

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78
Q

(*****) typically provide responders with the understanding of how a material may harm.

A

chemical properties

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79
Q

(*****) concentration of a material to which the body is exposed over a specific time

A

dose.

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80
Q

dose = (****)

A

concentration x time

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81
Q

(****) biological reaction caused by the dose in the body.

A

dose response

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82
Q

The degree of harm is directly related to the (****) and its impact at the biological site of action.

A

dose

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83
Q

(****) the minimum temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient vapors that will ignite and flash over, but will not continue to burn without the addition of more heat.

A

Flash point

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84
Q

(*****) significant in determining the temperature at which the vapors from flammable liquid are readily available and may ignite.

A

flash point.

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85
Q

(*****) is also linked to the boiling point and vapor pressure; low flash point materials will typically have low boiling points and increasing vapor pressures.

A

flash point

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86
Q

(****) Minimum temperature that a liquid gives off sufficient vapors that will ignite and sustain combustion.

A

fire point

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87
Q

(***) the minimum temperature required to ignite gas or vapor without a spark or flame begin present.

A

ignition (auto ignition)

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88
Q

(****) the range of a gas or vapor concentration (percentage by volume in air) that will burn or explode if an ignition source is present.

A

Flammable (explosive) range

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89
Q

Below the lower flammable limit the mixture is to lean to burn; above the flammable limit the mixture is to (**) to burn,

A

rich

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90
Q

(*****) the byproducts of the combustion process that are harmful to humans.

A

toxic products or combustion

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91
Q

(**) the ability of a material to undergo a chemical reaction with the release of energy.

A

reactivity/instability

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92
Q

(*****) can be initiated by mixing or reacting with other materials, the application of heat, physical shock, and so on.

A

reactivity

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93
Q

(****) the ability of a material to 1 either give up its oxygen molecule to stimulate the oxidation of organic materials or 2 receive electrons being transferred from the substance undergoing oxidation.

A

oxidation ability

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94
Q

(****) Materials that react with water or release a flammable gas

A

water reactivity

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95
Q

(****) Materials that ignite spontaneously in air without an ignition source.

A

air reactivity pyrophoric materials

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96
Q

(**) A process involving the bonding, un bonding, and re bonding of atoms, that can chemically change substances into other substances.

A

chemical reactivity

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97
Q

(***) A reaction during which a monomer is induced to polymerize by the addition of a catalyst or other unintentional influences, such as excessive heat, friction, contamination.

A

polymerization

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98
Q

(****) used to control the rate of a chemical reaction by either speeding it up or slowing it down.

A

catalyst

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99
Q

(*****)added to products to control there chemical reaction to other products.

A

inhibitor

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100
Q

(***) The maximum storage temperature that an organic peroxide may be maintained, above which a reaction and explosion may occur.

A

Maximum safe storage temperature

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101
Q

(*****) the temperature at which an organic peroxide or synthetic compound will react to heat, light, or other chemicals and release oxygen, energy, and fuel in the form of an explosion or rapid oxidation.

A

Self accelerating decomposition temperature SADT

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102
Q

(**) a material that causes a visible destruction of, or irreversible alterations to, living tissue by chemical action at the point of contact.

A

corrosivity

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103
Q

Corrosive materials include

A

acids and caustics or bases.

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104
Q

(*****) the process by which acids and bases break down when dissolved to produce hydrogen ions or hydroxide ions

A

dissociation

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105
Q

(*****) Compound that forms hydrogen(H+) ions in water

A

acids

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106
Q

These compound have a PH <7

A

acids

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107
Q

Acidic aqueous solutions will turn litmus paper (**)

A

red

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108
Q

Materials with a pH less than (*****) are considered strong acids

A

2.0

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109
Q

(****) compound that forms hydroxide (OH-) ions in water

A

caustic (base, alkaline)

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110
Q

these compounds have a pH >7

A

caustic (base, alkaline)

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111
Q

caustic solutions will turn litmus paper (**)

A

blue

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112
Q

Acidic or base corrosives are measured to one another by their ability to (****) in solution

A

dissociate

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113
Q

Those that for the greatest number of hydrogen ions are the strongest (*****)

A

acids

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114
Q

those that form the hydroxide ions are the strongest (*****)

A

basses

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115
Q

The measurement of the hydrogen ion concentration in solution is called the (***) of the compound in solution

A

pH (power of hydrogen)

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116
Q

The pH scale ranges from (****).

A

0 to 14

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117
Q

A neutral substance would have a value of (*****)

A

pH 7

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118
Q

(*****) the degree to which a corrosive ionizes in water .

A

strenght

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119
Q

Strong acids (****)

A

pH <2

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120
Q

strong base (*****)

A

pH>12

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121
Q

(***) the percentage of an acid or base dissolved in water.

A

concentration

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122
Q

(*****) The ability of a material to emit any form of radioactive energy.

A

radioactivity

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123
Q

(****) is the movement of energy through space or matter in the form of waves or particles.

A

radiation

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124
Q

(*****) the rate of disintegration or decay of a radioactive material.

A

activity

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125
Q

(*****) indicates how much radioactivity is present and not how much material is present.

A

activity

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126
Q

(****) standard unit of measurement for alpha and beta radiation, and is also commonly used to express background radiation in numerical terms.

A

Counts per minute CPM

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127
Q

(*****) the quantity of radiation or energy absorbed in the body, usually measured in millirems (mrem)

A

dose

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128
Q

(**) the radiation dose delivered per unit of time.

A

dose rate

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129
Q

(*****) The time it takes for the activity of radioactive material to decrease to one half of its initial value through radioactive decay.

A

half life

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130
Q

Biological threat agents consist of (**) and (*)

A

pathogens

toxins

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131
Q

(*****) are disease producing organisms and include bacteria and viruses.

A

pathogens

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132
Q

(****) are produced by a biological source and include ricin, botulinum toxins, and T2 mycotoxins

A

toxins

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133
Q

(****) the time from exposure to a biological agent to the appearance of symptoms in infected persons

A

incubation period

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134
Q

(****) The amount of pathogen required to cause infection in the host

A

infectious dose

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135
Q

(*****) are classified in military terms based on there effects on the enemy.

A

chemical agents

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136
Q

nerve agent

A

neurotoxins

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137
Q

chocking agent

A

respiratory irritants

138
Q

Blood agent

A

chemical asphyxiants

139
Q

Vesicants and blister agents

A

skin irritant

140
Q

Anti personnel agents

A

riot control agents

141
Q

(****) refers to the length of time a chemical agent remains as a liquid.

A

persistence

142
Q

A chemical agent is said to be (*****) if iit remains as a liquid for longer than 24 hours and

A

persistent

143
Q

despite the large number of resources available most responders initially rely on (**) primary response guidebooks for most of their data and information.

A

three to five

144
Q

In the US the most recognized emergency information center is (***)

A

CHEMTREC

145
Q

The (***) is the federal governments central reporting point for all oil, chemical, radiological, biological, and etiological releases into the environment in the US

A

NRC National Response center

146
Q

the (*****) must be notified by the responsible party if a hazardous materials release exceeds the reportable quantity (RQ) provisions of CERCLA

A

NRC

147
Q

(***) is the leading federal public health agency for hazmat incidents and operates a 24 hour emergency number for providing advice on health issues involving hazmat releases.

A

Agency for Toxic Substance and Disease Registry (ATSDR)

148
Q

Operated by OSU in cooperation with EPA, (****) provides information on pesticide related health/ toxicity questions, properties, and minor clean up to physicians, veterinarians, responders, and the general public.

A

National Pesticide Information Center (NPIC)

149
Q

(**) is the most widely used computer based software tool used by hazmat responders.

A

CAMEO Computer Assisted Management of Emergency Operations

150
Q

(**) is the mapping application that allows users to “see” their data, display this information on computer maps…..

A

MARPLOT (Mapping Applications for Response Planning, and Local Operational Tasks)

151
Q

(****) is the atmospheric plume dispersion model used for evaluating releases of hazardous materials vapors.

A

ALOHA (area locations of hazardous atmospheres)

152
Q

(*****) allows users to estimate the down wind dispersion of a chemical cloud …….

A

ALOHA

153
Q

(*****) is an electronic tool developed by the US Library of Medicine.

A

WISER

the wireless information system for emergency responders

154
Q

(*****) was specifically designed for emergency responders to provide a wide range of information on hazardous substances, including substance identification support…..

A

WISER

155
Q

(*****) is an excellent tool that can be downloaded and used for determining the effects of various chemical mixtures.

A

the NOAA Chemical reactivity work sheet

156
Q

the OSHA (**) has specific requirements pertaining to hazard markings, worker access to hazard information, and worker exposures to chemicals in the work place.

A

Hazard Communication Standard

157
Q

(*****) is an integral part of site safety operations and a cornerstone of a risk based emergency response philosophy

A

monitoring

158
Q

Hazardous materials concentrations can be identified, quantified, and / or verified in two ways

A
  1. on site use of direct reading instruments

2 laboratory analysis

159
Q

(*****) provide information at the time of sampling, thereby allowing for rapid, on scene evaluation and decision making.

A

direct reading instruments

160
Q

(****) also known as lag time, this is the period of time between the instrument senses a product and when the monitoring reading is produced.

A

Instrument Response time

161
Q

Monitors with a pump typically have a response time of (*****).

A

3 to 5 seconds

162
Q

Monitors with a pump and a diffusion mode have response times of (***)

A

30 to 60 seconds

163
Q

Use of tubing — add (**) of lag time for each foot of hose.

A

1 to 2 seconds

164
Q

monitors also have a (****) which is the amount of time it take the monitor to clear itself of the sample.

A

recovery time

165
Q

(****) the lowest concentration to which the monitor will respond.

A

lower detection limit

166
Q

The lower the (***), the quicker the contaminate concentrations can be evaluated.

A

lower detection limit

167
Q

(****) the process of adjusting a monitoring instrument so that its reading correspond to actual, known concentrations of a given material.

A

calibration

168
Q

(****0 a field test in which an instrument is exposed to a known calibration gas and the sensors show a response or alarm.

A

bump test

169
Q

A reading of zero should be reported as (***) rather than clean, since quantities of chemicals may be present that can not be detected by that particular instrument.

A

no instrument response

170
Q

Hazardous locations are defined in article 500 of NFPA 70 (***)

A

the National Electric Code NEC

171
Q

Three simultaneous conditions can create a hazardous location

A
  1. vapors, dust, or fibers are present in sufficient quantity to ignite
  2. source of ignition may be present
  3. the resulting exothermic reaction could propagate beyond where it started.
172
Q

(****) flammable gases or vapors

A

class I location

173
Q

(***) concentrations of combustible dusts

A

class II location

174
Q

(****) areas concerned with the presence of easily iqnitable fibers or flyings.

A

class II location

175
Q

(***) encases the electrical equipment in a rigid built container.

A

Explosion proof construction

176
Q

(*****) equipment or wiring is incapable or releasing sufficient electrical energy

A

Intrinsically safe

177
Q

(*****) is used for protecting totally enclosed electrical equipment with an inert gas under a slight positive pressure from a reliable source

A

purging

178
Q

three type of radiation detectors

A

scintillation
Geiger Mueller tubes
ion chambers

179
Q

(***) are used for detecting gamma and x ray radiation, but may also detect high energy beta particles

A

Radiation pagers

180
Q

(****) monitor the accumulated dose receive by an individual

A

personnel dosimeters

181
Q

three types of LEL sensors:

A

catalytic bead
metal oxide semi conductors
infrared

182
Q

(**) uses a bar code chip that is inserted into a pump .

A

Drager chip measurement system

183
Q

Monitoring results should be documented as follows:

A
instrument
location
time
level
reading
184
Q

If a corrosive liquid is suspected, responders should use (****) wetted with sterilized water to determine if a corrosive atmosphere is present.

A

pH paper

185
Q

A positive reading (**) above background confirm the existence of a radiation hazard/

A

twice

186
Q

Since flammability and oxygen level are directly related, monitoring for flammability an oxygen is usually implemented simultaneously through combination (****)

A

CGI/O2 meters

187
Q

(***) detector tubes can be used for both known and unknown substance.

A

colorimetric

188
Q

(**) Any positive reading twice above back ground level or alpha and/or beta particles that are (***) counts per minute above back ground would confirm the existence of a radiation hazard and should be used for the basis of initial actions.

A

Radiation

200 to 300

189
Q

Flammability — the IDLH action level is (**)

A

10% of Lower explosive Limit

190
Q

An IDLH oxygen deficient atmosphere is () oxygen or lower, while an oxygen enriched atmosphere contains (**)

A
  1. 5%

23. 5%

191
Q

Toxicity— unless a published action level or similar guideline is available, the (**) or (*) values should initially be used.

A

STEL

IDLH

192
Q

If there is no published IDLH value, responders may consider using an estimated IDLH of (****)

A

10 X TVL/TWA

193
Q

HOT ZONE – Monitor readings above (****)

A

STEL or IDLH

194
Q

WARM ZONE – monitor readings equal to or greater than (***)

A

TLV/TWA or PEL exposure values

195
Q

COLD ZONE – Monitor readings less than (***)

A

TLV.TWA or PEL exposure values

196
Q

the risk based response must include

A
  1. analyzing the problem
  2. identifying and assessing the hazards
  3. evaluating the potential consequences
  4. determining the appropriate response action based on the facts.
197
Q

You should be able to apply and use the basic principles outlined in the (**) for initial hazard and risk assessment tasks posed by a hazardous materials incident

A

General Hazardous Material Behavior Model

198
Q

The (*****) will prescribe the specific monitoring and detection equipment that should be used for initial entry and assessment task.

A

AHJ

199
Q

A baseline capability used for most HMRT will include:

A
  1. a radiological detection device
  2. a multi gas detector to determine flammability and oxygen levels.
  3. a photoionization detector(PID) to evaluate potential toxicity.
  4. pH paper to evaluate corrosivity hazards
200
Q

(****) may be used tor the initial assessment of radiological hazards.

A

Radiation pagers

radiation survey meters

201
Q

A (****) will assist in identifying or classifying the basic flammability and oxygen deficiency/enrichment hazards that may be present.

A

multi gas detector

202
Q

A (*******) detector may assist in classifying and identifying toxic products that emit vapors and gases.

A

photoionization detector

203
Q

(****) will detect both acids and caustics.

A

pH paper

204
Q

(****) is focused on the correct use of detection and monitoring equipment available by the AHJ to the HMT.

A

NFPA 472 7.2.1.3.5

205
Q

classifying and identifying unknown materials, and quantifying the hazards posed by known materials, is a (****) task for the HMT

A

bread and butter

206
Q

Field screening begins with the (**) including instrumentation, to determine the general characteristics of an unknown substance.

A

selection of the appropriate tools and equipment.

207
Q

A field screen of any scene should include and initial check for (***)

A

explosive devices

208
Q

Field screening must include a check for (*****)

A

radiation

209
Q

flammability risk should be checked with a (***)

A

combustible gas indicator

210
Q

Corrosivity should be checked using either (*******)

A

pH paper or a pH meter

211
Q

oxygen levels should also be checked, especially when operating in an indoor confined area. This is commonly accomplished with an (*****), but single oxygen meters may also be used.

A

oxygen sensor

212
Q

An unknown container or atmosphere should also be evaluated for the presence of volatile organic compounds (VOCs). this is typically done with a (*****) which may be integrated into a multi gas instrument.

A

photoionization detection devices (PID)

213
Q

If air monitoring provides no information on the identity or the hazard class or the unknown, responders may collect samples to conduct (**) of the material or send the sample to a (*) for further analysis.

A

field test

lab

214
Q

(****) these systems relay on a series of field chemical test that follow a predefined logic sequence to identify unknown liquids and solid materials.

A

commercial chemical identification kits

215
Q

(****) This technology records the interaction of infrared spectra with chemical samples, measuring the frequencies at which a sample absorbs light and the intensities of the absorption.

A

Fourier - Transform Infrared Spectrometry (FT-IR)

216
Q

FT-IR technology can allow for the specific identification of (****) samples

A

liquid and solid

217
Q

(*****) systems currently used in the field rely on responders acquiring a sample and then subjecting the sample to some testing process.

A

Biological detection systems

218
Q

(****) compares the DNA of the samples to those in a library

A

Polymrease chain reaction (PCR)

219
Q

Any materials and equipment used for evidence collection must be certified (*****), kept sealed, and only used one time to collect each sample.

A

clean

220
Q

If a sample becomes part of a criminal or regulatory investigation, (**) procedures must be followed and documented.

A

chain of custody

221
Q

(*****) is used to asses the level of risk, determine material hazards and characteristics, and make emergency response and clean up decisions.

A

sampling

222
Q

Bio samples should be collected in a (**), while chemical samples should be collected in certified (*) containers.

A

sterile

clean

223
Q

(*****) are the same container that has been used for evidence sample, but that has not been exposed at the scene.

A

Control blanks

224
Q

(****) have been used successfully by the FBI and USSS to manage and respond to threats at major public event.

A

Joint Hazards Assessment Teams (JHATs)

225
Q

The (****) concept is an effective response tool for public safety agencies challenged by major events that draw large numbers of people to a concentrated area where egress, response times, and crowd control could become a concern.

A

JHATs

226
Q

(****) are defined as organized teams that provide technical support for planning and responding to threats at special events.

A

JHATs

227
Q

the goal of (**) is to bring together a highly skilled cohesive response team that provides the IC with technical assessment, operational guidance, and communications support for identified threats that may occur at a major event.

A

JHATs

228
Q

the only time when evidence may be left alone is when stored at a (****) designed for holding evidence.

A

secured location

229
Q

(***) covers the bulk collection and packaging of suspicious visible powders that are suspected biological agents from solid non porous surfaces.

A

Sample Collection Method A

230
Q

(***) covers swab sampling

A

Sample Collection Method B

231
Q

When dealing with flammable liquids, bung caps should be unscrewed, at approximately (*****) per movement.

A

0.25 inches

232
Q

A hazmat (**), () or (***) is often used to collect drum samples.

A

drum thief
coliwasa
poly ethylene bailer

233
Q

a (***) is a simple cost effective and efficient tool and is the most widely used implement for drum sampling.

A

poly hazmat theif

234
Q

Use a (**) or small (*) attached to the end of a pole to collect a sample from a puddle

A

turkey baster

small plastic/ glass cup

235
Q

Slick on top of water. – use a piece of loosely woven (****) attached to a string.

A

fiberglass cloth

236
Q

Heavier than water unknowns – lower a (**) or (**) into the water and open it when the bomb enters the layer to be sampled

A

bomb sampler

weighted bottle sampler

237
Q

Deep holes – lowers a (****) on a string or fishing line into the hole to collect the sample.

A

glass or plastic bottle

238
Q

dry piles or solids – Surface samples from piles can be collected with a (**) or (**) attached to the end of a sample pole.

A

plastic or stainless steel scoop

cup

239
Q

Hazmat WMD incident scene

these incidents will pass though four distinct phases of management.

A

tactical
operational
crime scene
remediation

240
Q

(*****) involves the removal of any hostile threats from the hazmat environment

A

tactical phase

241
Q

(****) A critical step in this phase is the render safe of all explosive devices and anti personnel devices.

A

operational

242
Q

(***) responders should NOT gather samples with the intent of those samples becoming evidence.

A

non law enforcement

243
Q

Responders should consider using (), (), or (*****) sampling equipment when looking for trace organic compounds, .

A

glass
Teflon
stainless steel

244
Q

using (),(), (**) when sampling for trace metals

A

Teflon
plastic
glass

245
Q

Many responders rely on (),() and (**) to ensure all information requirements have been prioritized and addressed.

A

data forms
checklist
tactical worksheets

246
Q

() is the most critical task preformed by emergency responders. Failure to understand and preform the () process correctly can lead to scenarios where the responders ultimately take great risks in situations where there may be little or no gain.

A

risk evaluation

risk evaluation

247
Q

The overall objective of emergency responders at any emergency is to favorably change or influence the (****).

A

outcome

248
Q

(***) outcomes are typically stated as fatalities, injuries, property and environmental damage

A

direct outcome

249
Q

(****) outcomes include systems disruptions, damaged reputations, and residual fears.

A

indirect outcomes.

250
Q

(****) is defined as the process of breaking down complex actions into smaller more easily understood parts. It helps responders to 1. understand, track, and predict a given sequence of events; and 2. decide where and how to change that sequence.

A

event analysis

251
Q

an easy way to visualize hazmat behavior is by using the (***) an excellent tool for understanding and predicting the behavior of the container and its contents at a hazmat incident.

A

GHMBO

General Hazardous Materials Behavior Model

252
Q

Understanding and applying the (**) is the foundation of the hazardous materials risk based response.

A

GHMBO

253
Q

(****0) is defined as a applied force or system of forces that tend to either strain or deform a container (external action) or trigger a change in the condition of the contents (internal action).

A

stress

254
Q

Three types of stresses:

A

thermal , mechanical, chemical

255
Q

(*****) generally associated with hot or cold temperatures and their effects upon the container or its contents.

A

thermal stress

256
Q

(****) the result of a transfer of energy when object physically contacts or collides with another.

A

mechanical stress

257
Q

(****) the result of a chemical reaction between two or more materials

A

chemical stress

258
Q

There are five basic types of breach behaviors:

A
  1. disintegration
  2. Runaway crack
  3. Failure of container attachments
  4. container punctures
    5 container splits or tears
259
Q

(***) the total loss of container integrity.

A

disintegration

260
Q

(***) Occurs in closed containers such as liquid drums or pressure barrels. A small crack in a closed container may suddenly develop in to a rapidly growing crack the encircles the container.

A

Runaway crack

261
Q

Linear cracking is commonly associated with (*****)

A

BLEVE

262
Q

BLEVE

A

boiling liquid expanding vapor explosion

263
Q

(****) Usually associated with mechanical stressors that result in a breach of the container.

A

container punctures

264
Q

(****) examples include torn fiber or plastic bags such as those used for certain oxidizers.

A

Container splits or tears

265
Q

There are four types of release:

A
  1. detonation
  2. violent rupture
  3. rapid relief
  4. . Spills and leaks
266
Q

(*****) An explosive chemical reaction with a release rate of <0.01 seconds

A

detonation

267
Q

(****) Associated with chemical reactions having a release rate o 0.01 to 1 second.

A

Violent rupture

268
Q

(****) ranges from several seconds to several minutes, depending on the size of the opening, type of container and the nature of its contents.

A

Rapid relief

269
Q

(****) Release rate very from minutes to hours. These are generally a low pressure, non violent flow through broken or damaged valves…..

A

Spills or leaks

270
Q

Once the hazardous material and / or energy is released, it is free to travel or disperse, subsequently (****) an area

A

engulfing

271
Q

First responders routinely use the (****) to initially estimate the area potentially impacted by hazmat release.

A

Emergency response guidebook– Table of initial isolation and protective action distances

272
Q

(***) are another excellent tool for predicting the dispersion of air borne gases and high vapor pressure liquid releases

A

Computer based plume dispersion models

273
Q

Common plume dispersion models include (**) and ()

A

Aloha

CHARM

274
Q

As the hazardous material and / or its container engulf an area they will (*****) on or come into contact with exposures.

A

impinge

275
Q

Impingements are categorized based on their (****)

A

duration

276
Q

(****) impingements have durations of minutes to hours.

A

short term

277
Q

(****) impingements may extend over a period of days weeks or even months

A

medium term

278
Q

(****) impingements extend over years and perhaps even generations

A

long term

279
Q

Before responders can favorably influence the outcome of a hazmat incident, they must first understand what (*****) is likely to occur within the engulfed area if they do not intervene

A

harm

280
Q

Harm can be categorized in the following forms:

A
thermal
toxicity/poison
radiation
asphyxiation
corrosivity
etiological
mechanical
281
Q

(*****) harm resulting from exposure to hot or cold temperature extremes

A

thermal

282
Q

(****) Harm resulting from exposure to poisons or toxic material

A

toxicity/poisons

283
Q

(****) harm resulting from radioactive material

A

radiation

284
Q

(****) harm resulting from exposure to biological materials, including bacteria, viruses, and biological toxins

A

etiological

285
Q

(****) harm resulting from contact with fragmentation of debris scattered as a result of a pressure release.

A

Mechanical

286
Q

the (*****) provides responders with the mental framework to assess incident potential and estimate outcomes within engulfed areas.

A

GHMBO

287
Q

The IAP is based upon the ICs assessment of 1. () and 2. ()

A
  1. incident potential

2. the initial operating strategy

288
Q

(****) goals are a broad game plan developed to meet incident priorities.

A

strategic

289
Q

Essentially (**) goals are “what are you going to do to make the problem go away?”

A

strategic goals

290
Q

(*****) objective are specific and measurable processes implemented to achieve strategic goals.

A

tactical objectives

291
Q

Tactical response objective to control and mitigate the hazmat problem may be implemented in either an (),() or (**) mode

A

offensive
defensive
non intervention

292
Q

(****) these are aggressive leak, spill, and ire control tactics designed to quickly control or mitigate the emergency.

A

offensive mode

293
Q

(****) These are less aggressive spill and fire control tactics where certain areas may be conceded to the emergency, with response efforts directed toward limiting the overall size or spread of the problem.

A

Defensive mode

294
Q

(****) decrease the risk to responders and may be employed as a means of, for instance, reducing the size of a spill or reducing the pressure of an affected pipeline or tank.

A

defensive tactics

295
Q

(****) is essentially no action . ti brief, the risks of intervening are unacceptable when compared to the risks of allowing the incident to follow a natural outcome…

A

Non intervention

296
Q

In some situations (****) tactics may be implemented until sufficient resources arrive on scene and an offensive attack can be implemented.

A

non intervention

297
Q

(***) tactics are always preferable over offensive tactics if they can accomplish the same objective in a timely manner.

A

defensive

298
Q

MC331 cargo tank trucks must meet the container design requirements of both () and the (*)

A

DOT

ASME pressure vessel code

299
Q

(****) is the relative ability of a material to bend or stretch without cracking.

A

ductility

300
Q

(****) materials have a fine grain structure and tend to bend but not crack.

A

ductile

301
Q

(****) materials have a coarse grain structure and tend to crack rather than bend.

A

Brittle

302
Q

Area in the tank material next to the actual weld material. this area is less ductile than either the weld or the steel plate due to the effects of the heating during the welding process is is most vulnerable to damage as crack are likely to stat there.

A

heat-affected zone

303
Q

(*****) deformation of the steel when it is bent at ambient temperatures or results from an impact or static load.

A

cold work

304
Q

cold work reduces the (*****) of the metal.

A

ductility

305
Q

Almost all container damage in an emergency is (*****)

A

cold work

306
Q

bear in mind that the temperature of a tanks contents may lag behind ambient temperatures by up to (*****)

A

6 hours

307
Q

(*****) narrow split or break in the container metal, which may penetrate through the container metal.

A

crack

308
Q

(****) reduction in the thickness of the container shell. It is an indentation in the shell made by a relatively blunt object.

A

score

309
Q

A (**0 is characterized by the reduction of the container or weld materials so that the metal is pushed aside along the track of contact with the blunt object.

A

score

310
Q

Scores caused by prolonged contact with a tank car wheel are called (****)

A

wheel burns

311
Q

(*****)— reduction in the thickness of the tank shell. It is the indentation in the shell made by a sharp, chisel like object.

A

gouge

312
Q

A (**) is characterized by the cutting and removal of some of the container or weld material along the track of the contact.

A

gouge

313
Q

(***) reduction of the thickness of a railroad tank shell. It is similar to a score but is caused by prolonged contact with a turning railcar wheel.

A

wheel burn

314
Q

(****) a deformation of the tank head or shell. it is cause by impact with a relatively blunt object.

A

dent

315
Q

(*****) a deformation of the shell of a rail road tank car. it is actually a long dent with a gouge at the bottom of the inward dent.

A

rail burn

316
Q

A (*****) is general caused by the tank car passing over a stationary object, such as a wheel flange or rail

A

rail burn

317
Q

(**) a deformation in the shell of a highway cargo tank. It is actually a long dent that is inherently flat.

A

street burn

318
Q

A (*****) is generally caused by a container overturning and sliding some distance along a cement or asphalt road.

A

street burn

319
Q

(*****) consist of loose, unconsolidated surface materials, such as sand, gravel, silt, and clay.

A

soil

320
Q

(*****) is the hard, consolidated material, that lies under the soil, such as sandstone, limestone, or shale.

A

bedrock

321
Q

Generally, rocks and soil consist of small fragments or sand grains. When compressed together, they may form small voids or pores. Measurement of the total volume of these voids is called (*****) of the rock or soil.

A

porosity

322
Q

(*****) are permeable sections of soil or rock capable of transmitting water

A

aquifers

323
Q

The source of most groundwater is (****) over land, which percolates into porous soils and rocks at the surface.

A

precipitation

324
Q

(*****) accounts for the majority of the drinking water in the US.

A

ground water.

325
Q

ground water moves extremely slowly. the rate of flow depends on the permeability of the underground aquifer and the slope of the (****) of the water table.

A

hydraulic gradient

326
Q

Although combustible gas indicators(CGIs) are excellent tools for evaluating flammable atmospheres, they may not be very effective for assessing low level flammable concentrations such as those found with (***)spills

A

subsurface or sewer spills

327
Q

Ground water supplies can become contaminated by concentration as small as (****)

A

200 parts per billion ppb

328
Q

Most sewer emergencies involve (***) liquids

A

flammable and combustible liquids

329
Q

(****) this is a closed system that carries liquid and water carried waste from residences, commercial buildings, industrial plants and institutions, as well as minor quantities of storm water, surface water, and ground water that are not admitted intentionally.

A

Sanitary sewer

330
Q

(****) this is an open system that collects storm water, surface water, and street wash and other drainage from throughout the community but exclude domestic waste water and industrial waste.

A

Storm sewer

331
Q

Storm sewer are generally much larger that sanitary sewers ranging from (**) pipes to greater than () tunnel

A

2 foot

20 foot

332
Q

(****) carries domestic and industrial wastewater as well as storm or surface water

A

Combined sewer

333
Q

There are four primary elements of a waste water system

A
  1. collection and pumping
  2. filtering system
  3. liquid treatment system
  4. solid treatment system
334
Q

the highest risk of fire or explosion (waste water system) are associated with (****) operations and with the early stages of liquid and solid processing

A

collection and pumping

335
Q

The greatest potential for either environmental damage (waste water system) or shut down of a waste water treatment plant operation will take place at the (****) .

A

liquid and solid stream treatment process

336
Q

Most pumping stations will have two parts a (****)

A

wet and dry well

337
Q

The (**) receives and temporarily stores the waste water.

A

wet well

338
Q

(**) often contain electrical equipment such as fans pumps motors …

A

wet well

339
Q

the (*****) provides isolation and shelter for the controls and equipment associated with pumping the waste water. they are designed to completely exclude waste water and waste water derived atmospheres, although there may be accidental leakage from pump shafts or occasional spills.

A

dry well

340
Q

Depending of the type of sewer system and specific location, most areas are classified by the (*****)

A

NEC as Class I, division 2 areas

341
Q

There are two basic scenarios involving releases into a sewer collection system.

A

above ground release

underground tank and pipe leaks

342
Q

Some rules of thumb for evaluating monitoring readings (sewer) are as follows
1 if the readings are high in one area and drop off in a relative short period of time, the source of the problem is often a () or dumping
2. If readings are consistent over a period of time, the source of the problem is often a (
**) release, such as an underground storage tank or pipeline.

A

spill

subsurface release