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Flashcards in test 11-12: All Deck (77):
1

Thyroid peroxidase is responsible for what

- oxidation of iodide to iodine
- iodination of thyroglobulin tyrosine residues
- iodotyrosine coupling reaction that forms T3 and T4

2

Hashimoto thyroiditis has antibodies against what

thyroid peroxidase

3

equation for power

1 - beta

4

define power

probability of rejecting a null hypothesis when it is truly false
- blinded by truth

5

Streak ovaries, amenorrhea, infertility are gynecologic complications of

Turner syndrome

6

Heart problem associated with Turner

biscuspid aortic valve

7

hemolytic disease of the newborn most commonly occurs from what

maternal sensitization to Rh antigens during a prior pregnancy with an Rh(D)+ fetus

8

Haemophilus influenzae is a "blood-loving" organism hat requires what extra stuff for growth

Hematin and NAD+

9

Homophiles can be grown with what other bacteria, "satellite phenomenon"

Staph. aureus

10

Function of DNA polymerase I in prokaryotes

1. 5' to 3' exonuclease activity (remove RNA primer)
2. 5' to 3' polymerase
3. 3' to 5' exonuclease activity

11

Fabry disease is deficiency in what

alpha-galactoside A deficiency

12

what accumulates in Fabry disease

- sphingolipid globotriaosylceramide

13

what are early manifestations of Fabry disease

- neuropathic pain and angiokeratomas

14

What are adulthood complications of Fabry disease

glomerular, cerebrovascular complications

15

What are the important steps in the workup of metabolic alkalosis

volume status and checking urine chloride

16

Name 4 things that cause metabolic alkalosis

1. loop diuretics
2. vomiting
3. antacid use
4. hyperaldosteronism

17

Another name for radial head subluxation

nursemaid's elbow

18

what is nursemaid's elbow

sudden traction on outstretched and pronated arm of a child.
- annular ligament is torn and displaced

19

Lateral ankle sprain is due to inversion of plantar-flexed foot and involves what ligament

anterior talofibular ligament

20

Ankle flexion sprain damages what

achilles tendon

21

Eversion sprain damages what

medial deltoid ligament is very strong so damage medial malleolus

22

Amniocentesis is performed on a 35 year old pregnant women. the phospholipid content of the amniotic fluid is determined in order to check for

fetal lung maturity

23

fetal lungs are considered mature when they are producing adequate surfactant to yield what ratio

Lecithin /Sphingomyelin greater than 2

24

lecithin is what type of molecule? another name

phospholipid
- phosphatidylcholine

25

2 functions for Type II pneumocytes

1. regeneration of alveolar lining following injury
2. surfactant production

26

what can cause reactive arthritis and what does joint aspirate reveal?

infections (chlamydia, campylobacter, salmonella, Shigella, Yersinia)
- sterile arthritis due to deposition of immune complexes
-

27

Diphtheriae is cluttered on what agar

cysteine-tellurite agar
- results in black color

28

What does diphtheria produce what can be detected by what

-polyphosphate granules ( metachromatic granlues)
- methylene blue staining

29

MOA for methacholine

muscarinic cholinergic agonist
- bronchial smooth muscle contraction

30

name some atopic diseases

dermatitis
asthma
allergic rhinitis
food allergies

31

in addition to blocking histamine receptors, first-generation antihistamines have what other properties

1. antimuscarinic
2. anti-alpha adrenergic
3. anti-serotonergic properties

32

Anticholinergic effects on ocular ciliary muscles impairs what

accommodation and cause blurring of vision for close objects

33

the cardiorespiratory response to exercise includes

- increase HR, CO, RR
- constant arterial blood gas values
- venous oxygen decreased
- venous CO2 increased

34

In the United States, bats are a main source of what

rabies

35

agitation and spasms progressing to coma with weeks of exposure to bats is strongly suggestive of what

rabies encephalitis

36

what is used for prevention for individuals at high risk for exposure to rabid animals or their tissue

prophylactic inactivated vaccination

37

Primary adverse effects of Niacin are

flushing
hyperglycemia
hepatotoxicity

38

primary side effects of statins

myopathy
hepatitis

39

Fibrates ( gemfibrozil) side effects

- impair hepatic clearance of statins and increase risk of severe myopathy

40

equation for number needed to harm

1/ attributable risk

41

equation for attributable risk

difference between in risk between exposed and unexposed groups

42

interstitial myocardial granulomas are also called? what causes them

Aschoff bodies
- due to acute rheumatic fever

43

what do aschoff bodies contain

- plump macrophages with abundant cytoplasm and central, slender ribbons of chromatin ( anitschkow or caterpillar cells)

44

what is used as a marker for mast cell activation

tryptase

45

high affinity IgE receptor is found on the surface of what cells

mast and basophil cells

46

what mechanism triggers vasoactive substance release by mass cells

receptor aggregation

47

What hormones use protein kinase A

FLAT ChAMP
FSH
LH
ACTH
TSH
CRH
hCG
ADH
MSH
PTH
glucagon, calcitonin, GHRH

48

equation for clearance

([urine][urine flow rate] / [plasma])

49

what nerve did i damage: sensory loss over the lateral shoulder and weakness on shoulder abduction

axillary

50

long-standing pattern of eccentric behavior, odd beliefs, perceptual distortions, and social anxiety despite familiarity

schizotypal

51

what nerve is at risk of injury during thyroidectomy? what vessels is it near

-external branch of superior laryngeal nerve
- superior thyroid artery and vein

52

external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve innervates what muscle

cricothyroid

53

Lesions of the occipital cortex ( posterior cerebral artery occlusion) can produce what visual defect

contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing

54

What has the strongest and most predictable effects on inflammaotry component of asthma

Corticosteroids ( Fluticasone)

55

drug of choice for treatment-resistant schizophrenia

Clozapine

56

treatment with clozapine requires monitoring of what

absolute neutrophil count due to risk of agranulocytosis

57

Tetanospasmin blocks the release of what neurotransmitter

GABA
glycine

58

Name 4 things that characterize SIADH

1. low plasma sodium
2. osmolality
3. concentrated urine
4. normal body fluid volume

59

An important cause of SIADH is what

paraneoplastic effect secondary to small cell carcinoma of lungs

60

what are markers of hemolysis

1. lactase dehydrogenase
2. reticulocytosis
3. decreased haptoglobin

61

what is a distinguishing lab value for hereditary spherocytsisi

no central pallor
- mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration is increased ( due to dehydration of RBC)

62

what is the most commonly transmitted bacteria transmitted through food ingestions and can cause meningitis in immunocompromised adults

listeriosis

63

gram-positive rod with tumbling motility

listeria

64

where can listera grow and makes it unique

cold temperature, can contaminate refrigerated food

65

Being vaccinated for H. flu does not cover what?

- nontypable strains
- capsular strains other than type b

66

A cystic tumor in the cerebellum of a child is most likely what

pilocytic astrocytoma

67

histo for pilocytic astrocytoma

- spindle cells with hair-like glial processes that are associated with micro cysts.
- mixed with Rosenthal fibers and granular eosinophilic bodies

68

Name 5-alpha reducatase inhibitors

Finasteride
Dutasteride

69

emotions are transferred from the person or object causing the negative emotions to a more neutral, personally acceptable person or object

displacement

70

triad for serotonin syndrome

1. autonomic instability
2. altered mental status
3. neuromuscular irritability

71

how can Linzeolid precipitate serotonin syndrome

Linezolid has MAOI activity

72

-mab

monoclonal antibody

73

-cept

receptor molecule

74

-nib

kinase inhibitor

75

MOA for Anastrozole

aromatase inhibitors
- decrease synthesis of estrogen from androgens

76

Why is maternal serum quadruple screen performed

asses risk of congenital defects in fetuses

77

what is a cause for inaccurate pregnancy dating

history of irregular menses