Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Uworld > Test 4-7: All > Flashcards

Test 4-7: All Flashcards

1
Q

which cells in the heart have the fastest firing rate

A

SA node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Where are Beta1 adrenergic receptors found

A
  1. cardiac tissues

2. renal juxtaglomerular cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

MOA for atenolol

A

selective Beta 1 antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

MOA for propranolol

A

nonselective beta blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Glycolysis of a single glucose molecule always yields pyruvate but sometimes generates no net ATP? What cell am i in?

A

Erythrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Role of 2,3-BPG

A

decrease hemoglobin affinity for oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What molecule makes 2,3-BPG, via? What is special about this reaction

A
  • 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate via mutase

- bypasses ATP generating step of glycolysis, causing no net gain in ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is used to measure GFR

A

creatinine and inulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

PAH is used to calculate what

A

renal plasma flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How is G6PD deficiency inherited

A

X-linked recessive disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Role of viral encoded surface glycoprotein

A

mediates vision attachment to target host cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A reduced Left ventricular heart compliance is what type of heart failure

A

diastolic dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What type of cardiomyopathy causes diastolic dysfunction

A

restrictive/infiltrative cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Decreased protein/albumin levels in capillaries change what pressures

A
  • lowers plasma oncotic pressure

- increases net plasma filtration in capillary beds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Pulmonary tuberculosis infection is controlled through the action of what cells

A
  • CD4+ TH1 lymphocytes

- macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Hematocrit

A

ratio of RBC to total volume of blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

In patients with sickle cell anemia and other chronic hemolytic disorders, the most common viral infection of erythroid progenitor cells is what

A

parvovirus B19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the difference between aplastic crisis and aplastic anemia

A

crisis: Sickle cell patient, Parvovirus, infection of erythroid precursor cell
anemia: pancytopenia not just anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

genome for Parvovirus B19

A

non-envoloped single-stranded DNA virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Both adenosine and dipyridamole have what same MOA

A

vasodilators of coronary vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is coronary steal syndrome

A
  • blood flow in ischemic ares is reduced due to arteriolar vasodilation in nonischemic areas .
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Epicardial vessles

A

Large coronary arteries of heart, RC, LAD, LCA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How many patients need to be treated with Superstation to prevent one additional myocardial infarction. What calculation is this asking for

A
  • Number needed to treat

- number of patients who need to be exposed to be treated for 1 patient to benefit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

equation for number needed to treat

A

1/ARR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
arrangement in which a payor pays a fixed, predetermined fee to provide all the services required by the patient
Capitation
26
payment arrangement in which an insurer pays a provider for each individual service provided at a pre-arranged, discounted rate
Discounted fee-for-service
27
arrangment in which an insurer pays a provider a single payment to cover all expenses associated with an incident of care
Global payment
28
patients have access to personal physician who coordinates care and sees the patient through all aspects of care - can include captivated or fee-for-service
Patient-centered medical home
29
- patients must have primary care provider and obtain referrals for specialty consultations - allows patients to see providers outside the network, (different from HMO)
Point-of-service
30
Most common site for unilateral fetal hydronephrosis
ureteropelvic junction
31
All 3 prokaryotic DNA polymerases have what same job
- remove misatched nucleotides via their 3' to 5' exonuclease ( "proofreading") activity
32
What unique function does DNA polymerase I have
excises RNA primer with 5' to 3' exonuclease
33
What is the Electron microscopy for acute post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
- subepithelial immune complex humps
34
T-lymphocyte, moncytes and eosinophilic infiltration may be seen in what kidney problem
Acute interstitial nephritis
35
Prominent fibrin deposition is characteristic of what kidney disease
rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
36
Hyaline, acellular deposits composed of plasma protein deposited in kidney is seen in what
Kimmelsteil-Wilson nodules of diabetic nephropathy
37
How is chronic granulomatous disease inherited
X-linked recessive
38
How can one test for Chronic granulomatous disease
1. abnormal dihydrorhodamine (flow cytometry) test - decrease green fluorescence 2. Nitroblue tetrazolium dye reduction test obsolete
39
Left anterior descending artery arises from what
left main artery
40
How does the left anterior descending artery course on the heart
-Anterior aspect of the anterior inter ventricular groove toward apex of heart
41
Where is coronary sinus located
runs transversely in the left AV groove on the posterior side of the heart
42
Deletion of a single nucleotide from the DNA sequence can cause what type of mutation
frameshift mutation
43
conservative mutation
- type of missense | - one amino acid is replaced with another amino acid similar in chemical structure
44
Missense mutation
- point mutation (nucleotide substitution) resulting in change in amino acid
45
Nonsense mutation
- single base substitution that introduces a premature stop codon
46
Silent mutation
- single base substitution within a codon that does not change amino acid coded for by codon
47
What are stop codons
UAA UAG UGA
48
What is minute ventilation? equation
total volume of gas entering lungs per minute | = tidal volume * Respiratory rate
49
how does increased elastic resistance in lung impact minute ventilation
- increase respiratory rate (rapid shallow breaths) | - decrease tidal volume
50
how does high airflow resistance in lung impact minute ventilation
- increase tidal volume | - decrease respiratory rates ( slow, deep breaths)
51
Leads I and aVL corresponds to what on the heart
Lateral Circumflex
52
What does lateral circumflex supply
- lateral and posterior walls of left ventricle, anterolateral papillary muscles
53
Anterior chest leads V1-V4 refer to what part of the heart and blood supply
- Left anterior descending artery | - anterior aspect of left ventricle and inter ventricular septum
54
Right coronary artery corresponds an ST elevation in what leads
II, III, aVF
55
Ureteric bud gives rise to what
collecting system of kidney | collecting tubule and ducts, major and minor calyces, real pelvis, and ureters
56
The metanephric mesoderm (blastema) gives rise to
- Glomeruli - Bowman's space - proximal tubules - Loope of Henle - distal convoluted tubules
57
In phenotypically normal parents, the probability that a female sibling of male affected by an X-linked recessive disease will give birth to an affected child is what
1/8
58
Who produces interleukin-2
All T cells
59
What does IL-2 activate
- CD4 and CD 8 T cells - B cells - Natural killer cells - monocytes
60
What part of the immune system is responsible for it's anti-cancer effect on metastatic melanoma and renal cell carcinoma
T cells release IL-2 to activated natural killer cells release
61
pulmonary elastase enzyme is derived from what cell
alveolar macrophage and neutrophils
62
What gets rid of pulmonary elastase
antiprotease
63
Where are club cells found
terminal portions of bronchioles
64
What do club cells secrete
1. proteins ( protect against airway inflammation) | 2. surfactant components
65
Name the 5 dimorphic fungi
1. sporothrix 2. coccidioides 3. histoplasma 4. blastomyces 5. paracoccidioides
66
What is the form os Aspergillus
mold
67
What is the form of candidia
budding yeast or forming pseudohyphae
68
Cyrptococcus is in what form
yeast
69
What is the FEV1/FEC ration, TLC, and diffusing capacity in emphysema
1. decreased ( FEV1/FVC) 2. increased ( TLC ) 3. decreased ( diffusing capacity)
70
What happens to the diffusing capacity in asthma
increased
71
What is the diffusing capacity for intrinsic restrictive lung disease and extrinsic
intrinsic: decrease extrinsic: increase
72
What does carbon monoxide bind to in body and what is it called
- heme iron in hemoglobin | - carboxyhemoglobin
73
If only 1 out of the 4 heme sites has a CO molecule, how are the 3 remaining groups changed
increase oxygen affinity
74
At the cellular level, what does CO bind to
cytochrome oxidase
75
The probability that a child of parents from 2 populations with different mutant alley carrier frequencies will inherit an autosomal recessive disease is what
25% * carrier frequencies
76
What is the principal stabilizing force for the secondary structure of proteins
hydrogen bonds
77
A proteins' primary structure is a sequence of amino acids linked by what bonds
covalent
78
disulfide bond connects what
2 cysteine residues
79
What is SaO2 lab value tell you
oxygen saturation of hemoglobin
80
what does PaO2 tell you
partial pressure of oxygen dissolved in blood
81
What are oxygen lab values for anemia
1. decrease [Hb] | 2. normal SaO2 and PaO2
82
What are oxygen lab values for cyanide
All normal
83
What causes tetralogy of fallout
anterosuperior displacement of infundibular septum
84
Primary infection with HSV-1 can cause
- gingivostomaitis | - dehydration
85
How does latent HSV-1 present
mild perioral vesicles
86
Homozygous DeltaF508 mutation is what disease
cystic fibrosis
87
What is sweat content of someone with cystic fibrosis
sweat high with sodium and high chloride
88
Which electrolyte disturbance is most likely to cause symptoms in cystic fibrosis
hyponatremia
89
Lesion in optic tract cuases
- contralateral homonymous hemianopia | - afferent pupillary defect ( marcus Gunn pupil) in pupil contralateral to tract lesion
90
18 year old college student as fever, petechial rash on trunk and extremities, including palms and soles. What does she have
Neisseria species
91
Deficiency of complement factors that form membrane attack complex results in recurrent infections of ?
Neisseria species
92
Some vaccines have what conjugated to them , enhancing immunogenicity by promoting T-cell activation and class swtiching
polysacharide capsule antigens
93
KRAS mutations are seen in what diseases
colon cancer, lung cancer, pancreatic cancer

Uworld (63 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions