Test 27: Immunology/Microbiology Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Test 27: Immunology/Microbiology Deck (95):
1

acute hemolytic transfusion reaction is what type of hypersensitivity? Caused by

Type II
pre-existing anti-ABO antibodies

2

what is the clinical presentation for acute hemolytic transfusion reaction

- fever and chills
- Chest and/or back pain
-hemoglobinuria

3

hemoglobinuria

red-to-brown colored urine

4

Acute hemolytic reactions occur within what timeframe

minutes to hours of staring blood transfusion

5

What do you do if you realize a patient has acute hemolytic reactions

immediate cessation of transfusion

6

Type II hypersensitivity activates what process

complement

7

role of C3a and C5a

vasodilation and symptoms of shock

8

role or MAC (C5b-C9)

complement-mediated cell lysis

9

Humoral component for Type I Hypersensitivity

IgE

10

Humoral component for Type II Hypersensitivity

IgG
IgM

11

Humoral component for Type III hypersensitivity

antibody-antigen complexes

12

Humoral component for Type IV hypersensitivity

NONE
Cellular component: T-cell & macrophages

13

Major adaptive immune mechanisms that prevent reinfection with influenza virus include what?

anti-hemagglutinin antibodies

14

What is the function of meningococcal pili (fimbriae)

bacterial attachment to epithelial surfaces

15

Meningococci (Niesseria meningitidis) attach to and conolize where

pharynx via pilus-mediated adherence to mucosal epithelial cells

16

What allows Niesseria Meningititidis to destroy mucosal antibodies

produced IgA protease
- inhibits bacterial attachment and penetration

17

What is the impact of Epstein-Barr virus on B cells

-infect them
- proliferate B cells continuously (immortalization)
- Then infected B cells maintain ability to secrete immunoglobulins

18

How do you test for EBV

Monospot test: heterophile IgM antibodes detected by agglutination of sheep or horse RBC

19

What are cryoglobulins? It can detect what virus

cold-precipitable serum proteins that contain Igs
-Hep C infection

20

What is Hemadsorption

hemagglutinins or glycoproteins with high affinity for erythrocytes expressed on the host cell surface.

21

Papanicolaou test is used to screen what

cervical cytology specimens for dysplasia caused by oncogenic strains of human papillomavirus

22

How do you use Tzanck smear

scrape ulcer base, prepare with Wright-Giemsa stain

23

When are interferons alpha and beta produced

by most human cells in response to viral infections

24

Role of interferon alpha and beta

suppress viral replication by halting protein synthesis and promoting apoptosis of infected cells

25

Interferon gamma is produced by who

T cells and NK cells

26

Role of interferon gamma

-promotes Th1 differentiation
- increases expression of class II MHC molecules
- improves intracellular killing ability of macrophages

27

Streptococcus gallolyticus former name

Strep. bovis

28

Strep. gallolyticus causes what? associates with what

bacteremia and subacute endocarditis (no preexisting valvular abnormality)
-associated with colon cancer

29

How is Strep. viridans impact the heart

subacute bacterial endocarditis following dental work

30

how does staph aureus impact heart

right-sided endocarditis

31

onset of acute transplant rejection

weeks to months

32

What is used to prevent acute transplant rejection

calcineurin inhibitors
-cyclosporine or tacrolimus

33

What is used to treat acute transplant rejection

systemic corticosteroids

34

What is the pathogenesis for hyperacute transplant rejection

Preformed antibodies against graft in recipient's circulation

35

What happens to the organ in acute transplant rejection

-mononuclear infiltrate on histopathology
- graft dysfunction

36

What is the cellular component of acute transplant rejection

host T-lymphocytes sensitization against graft (foreign) MHC antigens

37

What is graft T-cell sensitization against Host MHC antigens

graft vs. host disease
- after bone marrow transplant

38

Chronic renal allograft rejection is characterized in the patient as ( kidney transplant)

- worsening hypertension
- progressive rise in serum creatinine

39

Chronic renal allograft rejection is characterized in kidney as

-fibrous intimal thickening
- tubular atrophy
- interstitial fibrosis

40

Vascular fibrinoid necrosis and neutrophil infiltration of the arterioles, glomeruli, and peritubular capillaries are characteristic of what type of organ transplant rejection

hyperacute

41

achlorhydria

inadequate gastric acid production to maintain the normal gastric pH of less than 4

42

Pregnant women with HIV do what for prevention? how does this work

antiretroviral therapy
- reverse transcriptase inhibitor

43

What are baby symptoms for mother-to-child vertical transmission of HIV-1

- oral thrush
- interstitial pneumonia
- severe lymphopenia
during first year of life

44

Patient with central vascular catheter and receipt of parenteral nutrition is at risk for

candidemia

45

what is the morphology/shape of candida

branching pseudohyphae with blastoconidia

46

morphology/shape of blastomyces

borad-based budding

47

morphology/shape of coccidiodies

spherules with endospores

48

morphology/shpae of cryptococcus

capsule

49

morphology/shape of histoplasma

small oval yeast within macrophages

50

Where do T cells reside in lymph nodes

paracortex

51

agammaglobulinemia prevents what from forming in lymph nodes

- primary lymphoid follicles
- germinal centers

52

In order, the pathogens most often responsible for secondary bacterial pneumonia are

strep. pneumoniae
Steph aureus
H. Flu

53

Localized bony back pain, low-grade fever, and recent staphylococcal bacteremia suggests what

vertebral osteomyelitis

54

What is the most common way bacteria can reach in the spin in adults

hematogenous

55

What diagnosis tools should be used if vertebral osteomyelitis is suspected

blood culture
MRI

56

What are 3 major causes of neonatal meningitis

1. Group B strep
2. E. Coli
3. listeria monocytogenes

57

What strain of e. coli causes neonatal meningitis ? how does it work

K1 capsular antigen
- allows survival in bloodstream

58

In older infants ( greater than 3 months) and adults, most common pathogens for meningitis

Strep. pneumoniae
Neisseria meningitidis

59

verotoxin is what type of toxin

Shiga-like toxin

60

Lipid A unit in lipopolysaccharides is similar for all enteric bacteria, what does it cause

activation of macrophages
- release IL-1 and TNF-alpha
- septic shock

61

Primary infection with vericella-zoster typically occurs in who and as what

children
chickenpox

62

Where does herpes zoster reside in body

dorsal root ganglia

63

Vericella IgG antibodies have immunity against what? and what does it now have immunity against

immunity for chickenpox
not- herpes zoster

64

Classical complement cascade begins with binding of what

C1 complement component to either
-2 IgG or 2 IgM

65

Which immunoglobulin is a better activator of complememtn

IgM

66

C1 molecule of complement binds to thwat region of the immunoglobulin chain

Fc region of heavy immunoglobulin chain in region near the hinge point

67

Who get rubella vaccine and what type of vaccine is it

-children and non-pregnant females of childbearing age
- live, attenuated rubella virus vaccine

68

A patient gets a blunt abdominal trauma and then dies. See Step. pneumo on blood cultures. What happened

Spleen did not work

69

Characterize Mononucleosis-like syndrome? seen in what

fever
malaise
myalgia
atypical lymphocytosis
elevated liver transaminases
-CMV

70

What is severe combined immune deficiency

combined T and B cell dysfunction

71

Patient comes in with
1. Severe bacterial and viral infections in infancy
2. chronic diarrhea
3. mucocutaneous candidiasis

SCID
Severe combined immunodeficiency

72

Patient comes in with
1. congenital heart disease
2. dysmorphic facies
3. hypocalcemia

DiGeroge sydnrome

73

Neisseria is grown on what media? what is special about this media

Thayer-Martin VCN (vancomycin/colistin/nystatin)
- inhibits gram +, gram - other than neisseria and fungi

74

Name a selective media for growth

Thayer-Martin agar

75

how does differential media help identify cultured oragnisms

metabolic and biochemical properties

76

type I hypersensitivity what immunoglobin and cells are used

IgE bound to basophils and mast cells

77

what process activates type I to release histamine and heparin

cross-linking of surface IgE molecules, signals cell to degranulate

78

initial symptoms of malaise and fever and then bone pain/abscesses. What is this

osteomyelitis
most common cause is staph aureus

79

Immunity against Neisseria meningitids is provided by antibodies against what virulance factor

polysaccharide capsules

80

What is the primary virulence factor of Strep. pneumoniae

polysaccharide capsule--> inhibits phagocytosis

81

Name a bacteria that is positive diplococci and is alpha-hemolytic

Strep. Pneumo

82

What bacteria causes atypical pneumonia

Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Chlamydophila pneumoniae
legionella

83

What is the agent that can cause hepatic abscesses via hematogenous seeding of the liver

Staph aureus

84

What agents cause hepatic abscesses by ascending the biliary tract, portal vein pyemia, or direct invasion from adjacen area

Enteric bacteria

85

presence of fluid-filled cavity in liver in conjunction with fevers, chills, and right upper abdominal pain

hepatic abscess

86

what causes hepatic abscess in underdeveloped countries and developed countries

underdeveloped countries: parasitic infection
developed: bacterial infection

87

how can staph aureus gain acess to the liver

biliary tract infection
portal vein pyemia

88

parotitis

inflammation of parotid gland

89

What does the parotid gland release

amylase

90

what is the most common bacterial etiology for acute parotitis

staph aureus

91

what diagnostic tools determine acute bacterial parotitis

- elevated amylase levels
- imaging

92

Bacterial genetics: transformation

direct uptake of naked DNA

93

Bacterial genetics: conjugation

one-way transfer of material

94

what do donor cells have in conjugation

F factor: codes for sex pilus

95

Bacterial genetics: transduction

transfer of DNA from one bacterium to another by means of a bacteriopahge