Test78: All Flashcards
1
Q
Absent P waves, narrow QRS complexes, and irregularly irregular R-R intervals?
A
Atrial fibrillation
2
Q
Conditions where atria undergo rapid depolarization, what regulates the number of impulses that reach ventricles
A
AV node refractory period
- also determines ventricular contraction rate
3
Q
Bundle branch conductivity determines what in EKG
A
QRS complex
4
Q
what is the assume pacemaker in patients with severe bradycardia
A
Purkinje system
5
Q
Patient with no apparent liver disease who have mild uncojucated hyperbilirubinemia, suggetsts
A
Gilbert
6
Q
When does surfactant get made in fetal baby
A
end of pregnancy
7
Q
what is a component of surfactant
A
Dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine
- type of lecithin
8
Q
What ratio indicates mature fetal lungs
A
lecithin-to-sphingomyelin ratio greater than 1.9
9
Q
How is betamethasone administration to a pregnant women before 32 weeks delivery do to the baby
A
accelerates maturation of type II pneumocytes
10
Q
Chronic lithium toxicity can be caused by what?
A
- volume depletion
- Thiazide
- Diuretics
- ACE inhibitors
- NSAIDS
11
Q
Positive and negative predictive values are influenced by what
A
disease prevalence
12
Q
Squamous cell carcinoma can produce whwat
A
HyperCalcemia from PTHrP
13
Q
Growth hormone causes the release of what from where
A
Insulin-like growth factor -1 from liver
14
Q
Laron dwarfism
A
defective GH receptors
15
Q
Role of Homeobox genes
A
- encode DNA-binding transcription
- segmental organization of embryo along crania-caudal axis
16
Q
Releasing factors recognize what
A
stop codons and terminate protein synthesis
17
Q
What are the stop codons
A
UAA
UAG
UGA
18
Q
Role of elongation factors
A
facilitate tRNA binding and translocation steps of protein synthesis
19
Q
2 year old healthy boy with fever and mouth pain. Swollen gums and vesicular inflamed lesions of hard palate and lips. Enlarged tender cervical lymph nodes. probably has
A
HSV-1
20
Q
Genome for HSV-1
A
Enveloped double stranded DNA
21
Q
Genome for Adenovirus
A
non-enveloped double stranded DNA
22
Q
Single-stranded, non-enveloped DNA
A
parvovirus
23
Q
Double-stranded, positive sense, non-envoloped RNA
A
rotavirus
24
Q
Genome for Coxsackievirus
A
- single stranded
- positive sense RNA virus
25
Difference between Coxsackie and HSV PE on child
HSV involves gums and hard palate not Hand-foot-mouth disease
26
Which drugs inhibit dihydrofolate reductase
- Trimethoprim
- Methotrexate
- Pyrimethamine
27
What is Imipenem always given with and why
Cilastatin - inhibits renal dehydropeptidase I
| - decrease inactivation of Imipenem
28
MOA of imipenem
binds penicillin binding proteins
29
MOA for metronidazole
binds to DNA within susceptible cells
30
MOA of sulfamethoxazole
competes with PABA in inhibit dihydropteroate syntheses
31
Fever, cough, rhinorrhea, and conjunctivitis followed by maculoopapular rash that starts on the face and spreads downwards? Tiny white/blue gray lesions on buccal mucosa
Measles
32
PE for Galactokinase deficiency
- galactose in blood
- galactose in urine
- infantile cataracts
33
11 year old girl: blurry vision, bilateral lens opacities and reducing substances found in urine. What enzyme is deficient
Galactokinase
34
lactose is broken down into what
- galactose
| - glucose
35
What causes cataracts in galactokinase deficiency
- galactitol
36
Aldolase B deficiency can't metabolize what
fructose
37
Tay-Sachs disease is a deficiency of what
hexosaminidase A deficiency
38
Sphingomyelinase deficiency is seen in what disease
Niemann-Pick disease
39
2-year old boy has giardiasis which is treated. One week later gets frothy, loose, stools and abdominal bloating and cramping. What is the defective enzyme
Lactase
40
Acidosis stimulates what in the kidney
remal ammoniagensis
41
What is renal ammoniagenesis
- renal tubular epithelial cells metabolize glutamine to glutamate generating
1. ammonium that is excreted in urine
2. Bicarbonate is absorbed into blood
42
What does Alanine get converted to
pyruvate
43
What does aspartate get converted to
oxaloacetate
44
Role of Arginine
remove nitrogenous bases from blood
45
Pernicious anemia impacts what part of the stomach
body of stomach rather than antrum
46
What part of the stomach does H. pylori usually impact
gastric antrum
47
Chronic granulomatous disease is what? inheritance pattern
- Deficiency of NADPH oxidase
| X-linked
48
Nitroblue tetrazolium dye reduction test is obsolete
Chronic granulomatous disease
49
Who produces Lecithinase
Clostridium perfingens
50
Where does intussusception usually occur
ileocecal valve
51
how does intussusception manifest
- intermittent, severe, colicky abdominal pain
- "current jelly" stool
- sometimes palpable mass
52
MOA for polyethylene glycol
- provide osmotic load to draw water into the GI lumen
53
How is Polyethylene glycol and lactase deficiency similar
both osmotic
54
Anterior compartment of the leg contains what nerve
deep perennial (fibular) nerve
55
What is located in the anterior compartment of the leg
1. anterior tibial artery
| 2. deep perennial fiber
56
lateral compartment of leg contains what nerve
superficial peroneal nerve
57
the deep posterior compartment of the leg contains what nerve
tibial nerve
58
Branching papillary structures with interspersed calcified bodies of thyroid
Papillary thyroid cancer
59
Extensive stromal fibrosis that extends beyond the thyroid capsule in thyroid
Riedel thyroiditis
60
Follicular hyperplasia with tall cells forming intrafollicular papillary projections in thyroid
Papillary thyroid
61
Mixed cellular infiltration with occasional multinucleate giant cells in thyroid
Subacute ( de quervian, granulomatous) thyroditis
62
Mononucelar parenchymal infiltration with well developed germinal centers
Hashimoto thyroiditis
63
Brain natriuretic peptide has what 2 roles
1. diuretic natruretic
| 2. vasodilator effect
64
What is Neprilysin
Metalloprotease that cleaves and inactivates endogenous peptides including natriuretic peptides
65
28 year old women with eye irritation and double vision. Complains of weight loss, mood swings, and heart palpitation. High BP. Bilateral eye redness and severe proptosis. What does she have? txt?
Grave's disease
| - Glucocorticoids, antithyroid drugs do not have an impact of ophthalmopathy
66
which group of women have a higher bone density and lower risk of fractures than other women
African American
67
Flutamide MOA
competitive inhibitor of testosterone receptors
68
What is flutamide used for? What is it combined with
Prostate carcinoma
| - Lueprolide
69
Inferior wall of left ventricle forms most of the interior surface of the heart and is supplied by who
Posterior descending artery
| Right dominant: right coronary artery
70
What does right dominant heart mean
- Right coronary artery gives rise to posterior descending artery
71
Specifically where is the trigeminal nerve located
middle cerebellar peduncle at lateral aspect of mid pons
72
Function of Trigeminal nerve
1. muscles of mastication
2. Facial sensation
3. Somatosensation from anterior 2/3 of tongue
73
Location of facial nucleus
Dorsolateral aspect of caudal pons
| - exits at ventrolateral pontomedullary junction
74
Location of hypoglassal nuclea
medially on floor of 4th ventricle at level of medulla
75
Location of exit of trochlear nucleus
caudal midbrain and nerve exists dorsal midbrain just below inferior colliculus
76
What artery runs with the radial nerve
deep brachial artery
77
What type of injury can hurt both the radial nerve and deep brachial artery
mid shaft of humerus
78
Axillary nerve runs with what artery? type of injury
Posterior circumflex
| - Surgical neck of humerus
79
Fluphenazine is what type of drug
1st generation antipsychotic
80
What are the high potency antipsychotics
Trifluoperazine
Fluphenazine
Haloperidol
81
Side of effects of high potency antipyschotics
neurologic /extrapyramidal symptoms
82
What are low potency Antipsychotics
- Chlorpromazine
| - Thioridzine
83
Side effects of low dow antipsychotics
- histaminergic
- cholinergic
- noradernergic
blockade
84
What is the mitochondiral enzyme that activates capsizes and indirectly brings about cell death through intrinsic pathway apoptosis
cytochrome C
85
What prevents cytochrome c release
bcl-2
86
Who usually gets Hemosiderin accumulation
- hemolytic anemia
| - frequent blood transfusion
87
Role of Succinate dehydrogenase
in electron transport chain that acts by oxidizing succinate into fumarate and reducing FAD to FADH2
88
What does bcl-2 bind to and what are their roles
- binds APAF-1
| - normally binds cytochrome c and induces activation of capsize 9
89
MOA for organophosphate toxicity
prevent ACh degradation within synaptic cleft
90
MOA for Botulism
blocks presynaptic exocytosis of ACh vesicles
91
How can Botulinum toxicity be prevented
it is heat labile, throughly heating food prior to consumption
92
What organ is spared in polyarteritis Nodosa
lungs
93
Most common disorder of porphyrin heme synthesis
Porphyria cutanea tarda
94
Porphyria cutanea tarda is deficient in what enzyme
- uroprophyrinogen decarboxylase
95
Enyzme deficiencies in early steps of porphyrin synthesis causes what physical exam findings
- neuropsychiatric without photosensitivity
96
Late step enzyme deficiency leads to what physical exam
photosensitivity
97
Role of bilirubin glucuronyl transferase
- conjugation of bilirubin with glucuronide
| - improves solubility for biliary excretion
98
What cofactor is needed for ALA synthase
pyridoxal phosphate
| vitamin B6
99
PBG deaminase deficiency is seen in what problem
acute intermittent porphyria
100
What is subclavian steal syndrome
severe stenosis of proximal subclavian artery
| - reversal blood flow from contralateral vertebral artery to ipsilateral vertebral artery
101
Symptoms of subclavian steal syndrome
- arm ischemia
| - vertebrobasilar insufficiency ( dizziness, vertigo)
102
equation for relative risk reduction
( absolute risk control - absolute risk treatment) /( absolute risk control)
