Test 13: All Flashcards

(57 cards)

1
Q

what is the Uterine Curettage for ectopic pregnancy

A
  • decidual changes in the endometrium due to progesterone secretion but no embryonic or trophoblastic tissue
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2
Q

most common cause of inherited intellectual disability

A

Fragile X syndrome

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3
Q

pathogenesis for fragile X syndrome

A

trinucleotide repeats CGG

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4
Q

key physical findings for fragile X syndrome

A
  • large jaw
  • protruding ears
  • long face
  • macroorchidism
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5
Q

what is frequently injured in retroperitoneal bleeding

A

pancreas

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6
Q

what compartment is the speed, liver, stomach and transverse colon located

A

intraperitoneal organs

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7
Q

What is common in pencicllins, cephalosporins and vancomysins

A

disrupt peptidoglycan cell wall of gram +, - organisms

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8
Q

Lesions of macular causes what type of scotomas

A

central scotomas

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9
Q

Acetyl-CoA is an allosteric activator of gluconeogenesis that acts by increasing the activity of what enzyme

A

pyruvate carboxlase

- allows pyruvate to be shunted toward acetyl-CoA production when Acetyl-CoA levels are low

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10
Q

can pyruvate be converted to phosphoenolpyruvate

A

no- pyruvate kinase is unidirectional

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11
Q

how is pyruvate converted to phosphoenopyruate

A

pyruvate to oxaloacetate catalyzed by pyruvate carboxyl’s in mitochondria

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12
Q

behavioral disorder of childhood characterized by argumentative and defiant behavior toward authority figures in absence of serous violation of social norms

A

oppositional defiant disorder

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13
Q

Repeptive and pervasive behavior violating the basic rights of other or societal norms

A

conduct disorder

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14
Q

Akathisia

A

inner restlessness and inability to sit or stand in one position

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15
Q

Akathisia can be a side effect for what drug

A

extrapyramidal side effect of antipsychotic medication

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16
Q

when is a test reliable

A

test is reproducible, gives similar results on repeat measurements

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17
Q

relate reliability and random error

A

reliability is maximal when random error is minimal

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18
Q

what causes coronary sinus to become dilated? most common factor

A
  • any factor that increases right atrial pressure

- pulmonary hypertension

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19
Q

explian the rapid onset of action and short duration of action for Propofol

A
  • diffuse across membranes fast

- redistributed to organs receiving less blood flow

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20
Q

inactivated (killed or component) viral vaccines predominantly generate what immune response

A

humoral immune response

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21
Q

live-attenuated viral vaccines generate what immune response

A
  • strong cell-mediated immune response

- humoral response

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22
Q

Maturing erythrocytes lose their ability to synthesize heme when they loose what

A

mitocondria

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23
Q

What is the most common cause of congenital bilateral absence of vas deferens

A

CFTR gene mutation

24
Q

what is diagnostic for cystic fibrosis

A

elevated sweat chloride levels

25
MOA for Ondansetron
inhibits serotonin receptors
26
What is Ondansetron used for
nausea and vomiting following chemotherapy
27
Branched-chain alpha ketoacid dehydrogenase requires what enzymes
``` Tender Loving Care for Nancy Thiamine Lipoate Coenzyme A FAD NAD ```
28
what has to be restricted for maple syrup urine disease
leucine, isoleucine, valine
29
Pure red cell aplasia is associated with what other problems
- thymoma - lymphocytic leukemias - parvovirus B19
30
child has abnormal blue sclerae and a history of several fractures after only minimal trauma
osteogenesis imperfecta
31
what causes osteogenesis imperfecta
deficiency or abnormality in type 1 collagen
32
Defective mineralization of bone matrix is characteristic of
vitamin D deficiency
33
What is the primary impairment of osteogenesis imperfecta
bone matrix formation
34
Normal tracheal pO2 pressure is
150 mmHg
35
normal alveolar pO2 is
104 mm Hg
36
normal alveolar carbon dioxide pressure
40 mm Hg
37
muscles used when sitting up from the supine position include
1. external abdominal obliques 2. rectus abdominis 3. hip flexors
38
what are the hip flexors
1. psoas muscle 2. psoas minor 3. iliacus
39
Muscles responsible for hip abduction
- glutues medius | - gluteus minimus
40
muscles responsible for hip adduction
- adductor brevis - adductor longus - adductor magnus
41
muscles for hip extension
- gluteus maximus - semitendinosus - semimembranosus - bicep femoris - long head
42
muscles for flexion of hip
- iliopsoas - rectus femoris - tensor fascia lata
43
Mycobacteria microscopically observed to grow in parallel chains ( "serpentine cords"). what is this called and what is the growth pattern mean for mycobacteria
- cord factor | - virulence factor
44
What is Trazodone
sedating antidepressant | - treat insomnia
45
side effect of trazodone
priapism
46
priapism
persistent erection of penis greater than 4 hours and not associated with sexual excitement
47
Imipramine and clomipramine are what types of drugs
TCA
48
What virulence factor inhibits phagocytosis and complement activation, mediates bacterial adherence and is a target of type-specific humoral immunity to S. progenies
Protein M
49
antibodies against what enhances host defense against S progenies
protein M
50
Duration of cauterization is the most significant risk factor for what
UTI
51
what is the underlying mechanism of Zenker diverticulum
cricopharyngeal motor dysfunction
52
Medullary thyroid cancer is a malignant cancer of what cells
parafollicular C cells
53
Chromatin cells of adrenal medulla and parafollicular C cells of thyroid have what embryonic origin
neural crest tissue
54
patient with severe hypertension, increased urinary excretion of catecholamines and metanephrines and an adrenal mass has
pheochromocytoma
55
What cytokines and all the fun immune stuff is critical for the formation and maintanence of granulomas
- interferon gamma - IL-12 - TNF alpha
56
Name everything that is neural crest derived
MOTEL PASS - Melanocytes - odntoblasts - tracheal cartilage - enterochromaffin cells - laryngeal cartilage - parafollicular cells - adrenal medulla - Schwann cells - spinal membrane
57
in mycobacteria what do concomitant macrophage produce and what do activated marcophages produce
- concomitant macrophages release IL-12 - IL 12 induces T helper cells - mature T helper cells produce interferon gamma - activates macrophages which make TNF alpha