CNS Flashcards
(116 cards)
1
Q
ventral means __
A
anterior
2
Q
dorsal means
A
posterior
3
Q
cell bodies in the anterior (ventral) horn transmit _ impulses
A
motor
4
Q
cell bodies in the posterior (dorsal) horn transmit _ impulses
A
sensory
5
Q
H shaped mass in spinal cord is white or grey matter?
A
grey matter. white matter surrounds the H shaped mass. this is opposite of the brain where there is white matter on the inside and grey on the outside
6
Q
The “horns” refer to the H shape in the center of the spinal cord. The H shape is made of grey/white matter?
A
grey
7
Q
the white matter surrounding the horns= myelinated nerve fibers which form ascending and descending tracts. A _ is a group of axons within the central nervous system that have the same origin, termination and function
A
tract
8
Q
the tracts are often named by their
A
origin and termination ex. spinothalamic tract
9
Q
axons of cells that run on the same side as their CELL BODIES of origin are called
A
ipsilateral
10
Q
axons of cells that run on the opposite side as their CELL BODIES of origin are called
A
contralateral
11
Q
spinothalamic tract is an ascending/descending tract?
A
names will be origin followed by termination -= therefore this is an ascending sensory tract (all ascending are sensory)
12
Q
Dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathway
(DC-ML) is ascending or descending tract
A
ascending
13
Q
pyramidal tract is an ascending/descending tract?
A
descending (motor)
14
Q
extrapyramidal tract is an ascending/descending tract?
A
descending (motor)
15
Q
gray/white matter is where the processing of info is done
A
gray
16
Q
gray/white matter is where communication is done
A
white
17
Q
bundles of axons coated with myelin are __ white/gray matter
A
myelinated axons are white matter
18
Q
cell bodies and dendrites are covered with ___ and are gray/white matter
A
synapses
gray
19
Q
- optic nerve is CN
2. olfactory nerve is CN#
A
You have two eyes and one nose”:
Optic nerve is cranial nerve two.
Olfactory nerve is cranial nerve one.
20
Q
Name the CN’s and give the mnemonic
A
"Oh, Oh, Oh, To Touch And Feel Virgin Girls Vaginas And Hymens". Olfactory Optic Occulomotor Trochlear Trigeminal Abducens Facial Auditory [or Vestibulocochlear] Glossopharyngeal Vagus Accessory [or Spinal root of the accessory] Hypoglossal
21
Q
mnemonic for Broca’s area and Wernicke
A
“Broca”: your speech machinery is Broken.
· Broca is wanting to speak, but articulation doesn’t work, and very slow.
“Wer-nick”: “were” and “nick” are both words of English language, but together they are nonsensical.
· Wernick is having good articulation, but saying words that don’t make sense together.
22
Q
dysphasia
dysphagia
what is the difference
A
DysphaSia is for Speech
DysphaGia is for your Gut [swallowing].
23
Q
basal ganglia damage causes: weakness/motor abnormalities?
A
does NOT cause weakness
causes motor abnormalities
24
Q
clinical syndromes associated w damage to basal ganglia
A
parkinsons and huntingtons disease
25
name the parts of the basal ganglia
caudate nucleus and putamen (part of the striatium), subthalamic nuclei, substantia nigra, globus pallidus
26
The ___ is a collection of grey matter (nuclei) that relays ALL SENSORY STIMULI except olfactory to the cerebral cortex
thalamus
27
hindbrain made up of
medulla oblongata
pons
cerebellum
28
forebrain is aka
prosenchephalon
29
the cerebral hemispheres are called the
telencephalon (part of forebrain)
30
hindbrain is aka
rhombencephalon
31
cerebellum function
motor coordination, motor learning and equilibrium
32
the __ connects the cerebrum with the cerebellum and the midbrain to the medulla oblongata
pons
33
Which CN is associated with the pons
V
34
what CN are associated with the medulla oblangata
CN IX, X, XII
35
what CN associate with the junction of the pons and the medulla oblongata
CN VI-VIII
36
cardiovascular and respiratory control, auditory and vestibular input and brainstem reflexes are associated with the
medulla
37
the neurons controlling breathing have _ receptors to which opiates bind
mu (think morphine)
38
the _ lies immediately inferior to the cerebellum and anterior to the cerebellum
brain stem
39
brain stem consists of
midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata
40
1. mesencephalon =
2. prosencephalon
3. rhombencephalon
4. telencephalon
1. mesencephalon = midbrain
2. prosencephalon = forebrain
3. rhombencephalon = hindbrain
4. telencephalon = cerebral hemispheres
41
the diencephalon = central part of the brain = is located in the
forebrain
42
hypothalamus is located in the
diencephalon
43
the limbic system is located in which lobe
temporal lobe
44
limbic system drives
basic drives = hunger aggression emotional feelings and sexual arousal and screens all sensory info coming into the cerebral cortex
45
this lobe controls hearing, language comprehension, storage and recall of memories
temporal
46
this lobe contains the primary motor (movement) area and influences personality, judgment, reasoning, social behavior and language expression
frontal
47
this lobe functions mainly to interpret visual stimuli
occipital
48
this lobe interprets and integrates sensations of pain, temperature and touch, particularly in regards to size, shape, distance, and texture. important for awareness of body shape
parietal
49
I forget if I brushed my teeth ...what lobe affected
temporal lobe (storage and recall of memory)
50
if the person has problems with his memory he may also have problems
```
hearing you and understanding you
temporal lobe (controls hearing and language comprehension)
```
51
problems with speech and cant move his brush
frontal lobe = prob with motor and language expression
52
it hurts to have water on my teeth and my brush wont fit in my mouth
prob with parietal lobe (sensations)
53
I cant see my toothbrush
occipital lobe
54
How to remember nephrotic vs nephritic syndrome?
nePHROtic = ne PHROtein in urine
so the other one is nephritic =
must be blood
55
Warfarin is a __ antagonist
vitamin K
56
1. Warfarin acts on the intrinsic/extrinsic pathway
| 2. heparin acts on the intrinsic/extrinsic pathway.
1. extrinsic (think x and w close)
| 2. intrinsic (think h and I are close)
57
Warfarin efficacy is measured using __ – which utilises prothrombin time; prothrombin time is a measurement of the extrinsic pathway
INR
58
the __ pathway produces a bit of fibrin quickly whilst the intrinsic pathway produces large amounts but takes a while to get going. Thus the PT (prothrombin time), which is a measurement of how quickly a small clot forms, relies on the extrinsic pathway
extrinsic
59
what does INR stand for
INR – the internal normalised ratioa comparison of the patients clotting ability compared to the ‘average’ of the population. It is a ratio of the patient’s PT (prothrombin time)to that of the average PT – and as a result, this test only looks at the extrinsic clotting pathway. You can use it to look at liver function, warfarin dose and vitamin K status
60
The normal INR value is between 0.9 and 1.3. When someone is on warfarin therapy, the target is usually between 2-4 but may vary for individuals. i.e. this basically means the target when on warfarin therapy is to have a prothrombin time 2-4x __ than that of the ‘average’ person
greater (take longer to clot)
61
By preventing the activation of vitamin K, warfarin reduces the production of what factors
II, VII, IX and X.
62
warfarin Peak time of action is about 48 hours after administration, but peak concentration in the blood is about an hour after administration For immediate effect anti-coagulation, you have to give __ for the first few days of warfarin therapy
HEPARIN
63
can you give warfarin to pregnant person
It crosses the placenta, and is teratogenic – thus it should not be given in pregnancy at all!
64
Warfarin is monitored by using the ___which is expressed as the INR.
The dose of warfarin is adjusted to give an INR of__
```
prothrombin time (PT)
2-4
```
65
we monitor heparin therapy by measuring the _ pathway
(PTT) = partial thromboplastin time of intrinsic clotting cascade
66
1. thrombin clotting time (TT) is used to asses the _ pathway
2. prothrombin clotting time (PT) asseses _ pathway
3. partial thromboplastin clotting time (PTT)
1. common pathway
2. extrinisic (warfarin)
3. intrinsic (heparin)
67
the most common inherited bleeding disorder is
vonWilliebrand' disease (vWD)
68
vonWilliebrand' disease (vWD) affect M/F more?
same
69
vonWilliebrand does 2 things explain
mediates platelet adhesion and stabilizing factor 8 (in intrinsic pathway)
70
vonWilliebrand' disease (vWD) will have a _ time
Patients with von Willebrand disease will typically display a normal prothrombin time (PT is extrinsic pathway) and a variable prolongation of partial thromboplastin time (PTT) ==> platelet problem
71
thrombocytopenia vs thrombophilia?
penia means less
| philia means more
72
idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura is
autoimmune attack of platelets = platelets die
73
people Hemophila A have a deficiency in which clotting factor?
factor VIII = think hemophilia A sound like eight...aka hemophilic globulin/hemophilic factor A
you make the factor but there is a mutation in the gene.
74
Hemophila A patients men/women?
men it is an X-linked disease (all hemophilia diseases are X-linked. to remember look at when you write it out XIII --> looks like x linked
75
Hemophila A patients will have a prolonged _ time and normal _ time
```
prolonged APTT (intrinsic)
normal PT
```
76
which is more common hemophila A or B?
A
77
hemophilia B is a mutation in factor _
9 clotting factor. = intrinsic pathway therefore prolonged APTT (intrinsic) --takes longer to clot (this is a bleeding disease)
normal PT
78
polycythemia
high RBC count
79
leukocytosis
high WBC count
80
thrombocytosis
high platelet count "osis" always means excess
81
leukopenia
low wbc count "penia" means low
82
the only cells in our body with no nucleus
RBC
83
can RBCs
1. proliferate
2. make proteins
3. make ATP?
no (can't undergo mitosis), can't make proteins (no ribosomes) and no mitochondria so cant make ATP
84
name the 3 top proteins in our blood
albumins (58%)
globulins (38%)
fibrinogen (4%)
85
normal RBC count
4-6 million per mL cubed
86
normal WBC count
5-9thousand per mL cubed
87
normal platelet count
250,000-400,000 per mL cubed
88
our primary defense against bacteria and fungi
neutrophils
89
our defense against parasitic infections
eosinophils
90
1. how many nuclei neutrophils?
1 nucleus with 3-7 lobes
91
1. neutrophils stain with _ dye
2. basophils stain with _ dye
3. eosinophils stain with _ dye
1. neutral
2. basic
3. eosin
92
1. Do RBC's have organelles
| 2. Do WBC's have them?
1. no
| 2. yes
93
all granulocytes nucleus have
lobes (BEN = basophils, eosinophils, and neutrophils are granulocytes, while lymphocytes and monocytes are agranular)
94
eosinophils nucleus has how many lobes
2
95
eosinophil granules stain
pink/red/dark pink purple (don't stain neutral like neutrophils that you cant see the granules bc use neutral dye)
96
basophils have how many lobes?
2-3 but not well defined and nucleus appears S shaped.
| so eosinophils have 2, basophils have 2-3, and neutrophils have 3-7
97
what type of WBC turns into a mast cell when it leaves the blood.
basophils (store histamine)
98
the smallest of all WBCs are the
lymphocytes. very little cytoplasm.
99
which WBC has a kidney shaped large C-shaped nucleus and a light area in the cytoplasm near concave area of nucleus = the Golgi which doesn't stain well = called a "negative image"
monocytes (no granules)
100
1. when monocytes leave the blood and enter tissue they are called
2. when basophils leave the blood and enter tissue they are called
1. macrophages
| 2. mast cells
101
name the 3 allosteric effectors of hemoglobin
2,3BPG
CO2
H+
102
the rate limiting step of heme synthesis occurs in the
mitochondria
103
provide the rate limiting step of heme synthesis and the coenzyme and enzyme needed
succinyl CoA (4C) + glycine ===> delta-aminolevulinate (DALA) + CO2 + CoA. Pyridoxal phosphate (PLP) = coenzyme for d-Aminolevulinate Synthase DALA Synthase enzyme.
104
what are the two most common blood types in USA
O+ (37.4%) > A+ (25/7%)
think both OA are positive
105
1. the most important blood group system in terms of transfusion medicine
2. the most complex and second important blood group system in terms of transfusion medicine
1. ABO
| 2. Rhesus system (Rh)
106
there are about 50Rh antigens but only 5 common =
c, C, e, E, D
107
Rh positive means
you have Rhesus antigens = Rh+ (Rh negative = don't have the antigen).
108
what does O- means
means you are Rh negative and O group
109
The most significant Rh antigen is the _ antigen, because it is the most likely to provoke an immune system response of the five main Rh antigens
D
110
which blood type can receive blood from ANY kind of donor including Rhesus + or -
AB+
111
An Rh D-negative patient who does not have any anti-D antibodies (never being previously sensitized to D-positive RBCs) can/can't receive a transfusion of D-positive blood
yes, once, but this would cause sensitization to the D antigen, and a female patient would become at risk for hemolytic disease of the newborn
112
If a D-negative patient has developed anti-D antibodies, a subsequent exposure to D-positive blood would lead to a __.
potentially dangerous transfusion reaction
113
under what conditions do we not give Rh+ blood?
Rh D-positive blood should never be given to D-negative women of child bearing age or to patients with D antibodies, so blood banks must conserve Rh-negative blood for these patients
114
the best blood the blood bank can have is
O- bc it is universal donor, has no antigens on its surface, and no Rh-
115
when we say the blood type is O, it means he has _ antigens and _ antibodies
no antigens
| and anti A and anti B antibodies
116
when we say the blood type is A, it means he has _ antigens and _ antibodies
A antigens and ANTI B antibodies
