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NBDE PART 1 BIOCHEM/PHYSIOLOGY > CNS > Flashcards

Flashcards in CNS Deck (116):
1

ventral means __

anterior

2

dorsal means

posterior

3

cell bodies in the anterior (ventral) horn transmit _ impulses

motor

4

cell bodies in the posterior (dorsal) horn transmit _ impulses

sensory

5

H shaped mass in spinal cord is white or grey matter?

grey matter. white matter surrounds the H shaped mass. this is opposite of the brain where there is white matter on the inside and grey on the outside

6

The "horns" refer to the H shape in the center of the spinal cord. The H shape is made of grey/white matter?

grey

7

the white matter surrounding the horns= myelinated nerve fibers which form ascending and descending tracts. A _ is a group of axons within the central nervous system that have the same origin, termination and function

tract

8

the tracts are often named by their

origin and termination ex. spinothalamic tract

9

axons of cells that run on the same side as their CELL BODIES of origin are called

ipsilateral

10

axons of cells that run on the opposite side as their CELL BODIES of origin are called

contralateral

11

spinothalamic tract is an ascending/descending tract?

names will be origin followed by termination -= therefore this is an ascending sensory tract (all ascending are sensory)

12

Dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathway
(DC-ML) is ascending or descending tract

ascending

13

pyramidal tract is an ascending/descending tract?

descending (motor)

14

extrapyramidal tract is an ascending/descending tract?

descending (motor)

15

gray/white matter is where the processing of info is done

gray

16

gray/white matter is where communication is done

white

17

bundles of axons coated with myelin are __ white/gray matter

myelinated axons are white matter

18

cell bodies and dendrites are covered with ___ and are gray/white matter

synapses
gray

19

1. optic nerve is CN
2. olfactory nerve is CN#

You have two eyes and one nose":
Optic nerve is cranial nerve two.
Olfactory nerve is cranial nerve one.

20

Name the CN's and give the mnemonic

"Oh, Oh, Oh, To Touch And Feel Virgin Girls Vaginas And Hymens".
Olfactory
Optic
Occulomotor
Trochlear
Trigeminal
Abducens
Facial
Auditory [or Vestibulocochlear]
Glossopharyngeal
Vagus
Accessory [or Spinal root of the accessory]
Hypoglossal

21

mnemonic for Broca's area and Wernicke

"Broca": your speech machinery is Broken.
· Broca is wanting to speak, but articulation doesn't work, and very slow.
"Wer-nick": "were" and "nick" are both words of English language, but together they are nonsensical.
· Wernick is having good articulation, but saying words that don't make sense together.

22

dysphasia
dysphagia
what is the difference

DysphaSia is for Speech
DysphaGia is for your Gut [swallowing].

23

basal ganglia damage causes: weakness/motor abnormalities?

does NOT cause weakness
causes motor abnormalities

24

clinical syndromes associated w damage to basal ganglia

parkinsons and huntingtons disease

25

name the parts of the basal ganglia

caudate nucleus and putamen (part of the striatium), subthalamic nuclei, substantia nigra, globus pallidus

26

The ___ is a collection of grey matter (nuclei) that relays ALL SENSORY STIMULI except olfactory to the cerebral cortex

thalamus

27

hindbrain made up of

medulla oblongata
pons
cerebellum

28

forebrain is aka

prosenchephalon

29

the cerebral hemispheres are called the

telencephalon (part of forebrain)

30

hindbrain is aka

rhombencephalon

31

cerebellum function

motor coordination, motor learning and equilibrium

32

the __ connects the cerebrum with the cerebellum and the midbrain to the medulla oblongata

pons

33

Which CN is associated with the pons

V

34

what CN are associated with the medulla oblangata

CN IX, X, XII

35

what CN associate with the junction of the pons and the medulla oblongata

CN VI-VIII

36

cardiovascular and respiratory control, auditory and vestibular input and brainstem reflexes are associated with the

medulla

37

the neurons controlling breathing have _ receptors to which opiates bind

mu (think morphine)

38

the _ lies immediately inferior to the cerebellum and anterior to the cerebellum

brain stem

39

brain stem consists of

midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata

40

1. mesencephalon =
2. prosencephalon
3. rhombencephalon
4. telencephalon

1. mesencephalon = midbrain
2. prosencephalon = forebrain
3. rhombencephalon = hindbrain
4. telencephalon = cerebral hemispheres

41

the diencephalon = central part of the brain = is located in the

forebrain

42

hypothalamus is located in the

diencephalon

43

the limbic system is located in which lobe

temporal lobe

44

limbic system drives

basic drives = hunger aggression emotional feelings and sexual arousal and screens all sensory info coming into the cerebral cortex

45

this lobe controls hearing, language comprehension, storage and recall of memories

temporal

46

this lobe contains the primary motor (movement) area and influences personality, judgment, reasoning, social behavior and language expression

frontal

47

this lobe functions mainly to interpret visual stimuli

occipital

48

this lobe interprets and integrates sensations of pain, temperature and touch, particularly in regards to size, shape, distance, and texture. important for awareness of body shape

parietal

49

I forget if I brushed my teeth ...what lobe affected

temporal lobe (storage and recall of memory)

50

if the person has problems with his memory he may also have problems

hearing you and understanding you
temporal lobe (controls hearing and language comprehension)

51

problems with speech and cant move his brush

frontal lobe = prob with motor and language expression

52

it hurts to have water on my teeth and my brush wont fit in my mouth

prob with parietal lobe (sensations)

53

I cant see my toothbrush

occipital lobe

54

How to remember nephrotic vs nephritic syndrome?

nePHROtic = ne PHROtein in urine
so the other one is nephritic =
must be blood

55

Warfarin is a __ antagonist

vitamin K

56

1. Warfarin acts on the intrinsic/extrinsic pathway
2. heparin acts on the intrinsic/extrinsic pathway.

1. extrinsic (think x and w close)
2. intrinsic (think h and I are close)

57

Warfarin efficacy is measured using __ – which utilises prothrombin time; prothrombin time is a measurement of the extrinsic pathway

INR

58

the __ pathway produces a bit of fibrin quickly whilst the intrinsic pathway produces large amounts but takes a while to get going. Thus the PT (prothrombin time), which is a measurement of how quickly a small clot forms, relies on the extrinsic pathway

extrinsic

59

what does INR stand for

INR – the internal normalised ratioa comparison of the patients clotting ability compared to the ‘average’ of the population. It is a ratio of the patient’s PT (prothrombin time)to that of the average PT – and as a result, this test only looks at the extrinsic clotting pathway. You can use it to look at liver function, warfarin dose and vitamin K status

60

The normal INR value is between 0.9 and 1.3. When someone is on warfarin therapy, the target is usually between 2-4 but may vary for individuals. i.e. this basically means the target when on warfarin therapy is to have a prothrombin time 2-4x __ than that of the ‘average’ person

greater (take longer to clot)

61

By preventing the activation of vitamin K, warfarin reduces the production of what factors

II, VII, IX and X.

62

warfarin Peak time of action is about 48 hours after administration, but peak concentration in the blood is about an hour after administration For immediate effect anti-coagulation, you have to give __ for the first few days of warfarin therapy

HEPARIN

63

can you give warfarin to pregnant person

It crosses the placenta, and is teratogenic – thus it should not be given in pregnancy at all!

64

Warfarin is monitored by using the ___which is expressed as the INR.
The dose of warfarin is adjusted to give an INR of__

prothrombin time (PT)
2-4

65

we monitor heparin therapy by measuring the _ pathway

(PTT) = partial thromboplastin time of intrinsic clotting cascade

66

1. thrombin clotting time (TT) is used to asses the _ pathway
2. prothrombin clotting time (PT) asseses _ pathway
3. partial thromboplastin clotting time (PTT)

1. common pathway
2. extrinisic (warfarin)
3. intrinsic (heparin)

67

the most common inherited bleeding disorder is

vonWilliebrand' disease (vWD)

68

vonWilliebrand' disease (vWD) affect M/F more?

same

69

vonWilliebrand does 2 things explain

mediates platelet adhesion and stabilizing factor 8 (in intrinsic pathway)

70

vonWilliebrand' disease (vWD) will have a _ time

Patients with von Willebrand disease will typically display a normal prothrombin time (PT is extrinsic pathway) and a variable prolongation of partial thromboplastin time (PTT) ==> platelet problem

71

thrombocytopenia vs thrombophilia?

penia means less
philia means more

72

idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura is

autoimmune attack of platelets = platelets die

73

people Hemophila A have a deficiency in which clotting factor?

factor VIII = think hemophilia A sound like eight...aka hemophilic globulin/hemophilic factor A
you make the factor but there is a mutation in the gene.

74

Hemophila A patients men/women?

men it is an X-linked disease (all hemophilia diseases are X-linked. to remember look at when you write it out XIII --> looks like x linked

75

Hemophila A patients will have a prolonged _ time and normal _ time

prolonged APTT (intrinsic)
normal PT

76

which is more common hemophila A or B?

A

77

hemophilia B is a mutation in factor _

9 clotting factor. = intrinsic pathway therefore prolonged APTT (intrinsic) --takes longer to clot (this is a bleeding disease)
normal PT

78

polycythemia

high RBC count

79

leukocytosis

high WBC count

80

thrombocytosis

high platelet count "osis" always means excess

81

leukopenia

low wbc count "penia" means low

82

the only cells in our body with no nucleus

RBC

83

can RBCs
1. proliferate
2. make proteins
3. make ATP?

no (can't undergo mitosis), can't make proteins (no ribosomes) and no mitochondria so cant make ATP

84

name the 3 top proteins in our blood

albumins (58%)
globulins (38%)
fibrinogen (4%)

85

normal RBC count

4-6 million per mL cubed

86

normal WBC count

5-9thousand per mL cubed

87

normal platelet count

250,000-400,000 per mL cubed

88

our primary defense against bacteria and fungi

neutrophils

89

our defense against parasitic infections

eosinophils

90

1. how many nuclei neutrophils?

1 nucleus with 3-7 lobes

91

1. neutrophils stain with _ dye
2. basophils stain with _ dye
3. eosinophils stain with _ dye

1. neutral
2. basic
3. eosin

92

1. Do RBC's have organelles
2. Do WBC's have them?

1. no
2. yes

93

all granulocytes nucleus have

lobes (BEN = basophils, eosinophils, and neutrophils are granulocytes, while lymphocytes and monocytes are agranular)

94

eosinophils nucleus has how many lobes

2

95

eosinophil granules stain

pink/red/dark pink purple (don't stain neutral like neutrophils that you cant see the granules bc use neutral dye)

96

basophils have how many lobes?

2-3 but not well defined and nucleus appears S shaped.
(so eosinophils have 2, basophils have 2-3, and neutrophils have 3-7)

97

what type of WBC turns into a mast cell when it leaves the blood.

basophils (store histamine)

98

the smallest of all WBCs are the

lymphocytes. very little cytoplasm.

99

which WBC has a kidney shaped large C-shaped nucleus and a light area in the cytoplasm near concave area of nucleus = the Golgi which doesn't stain well = called a "negative image"

monocytes (no granules)

100

1. when monocytes leave the blood and enter tissue they are called
2. when basophils leave the blood and enter tissue they are called

1. macrophages
2. mast cells

101

name the 3 allosteric effectors of hemoglobin

2,3BPG
CO2
H+

102

the rate limiting step of heme synthesis occurs in the

mitochondria

103

provide the rate limiting step of heme synthesis and the coenzyme and enzyme needed

succinyl CoA (4C) + glycine ===> delta-aminolevulinate (DALA) + CO2 + CoA. Pyridoxal phosphate (PLP) = coenzyme for d-Aminolevulinate Synthase DALA Synthase enzyme.

104

what are the two most common blood types in USA

O+ (37.4%) > A+ (25/7%)

think both OA are positive

105

1. the most important blood group system in terms of transfusion medicine
2. the most complex and second important blood group system in terms of transfusion medicine

1. ABO
2. Rhesus system (Rh)

106

there are about 50Rh antigens but only 5 common =

c, C, e, E, D

107

Rh positive means

you have Rhesus antigens = Rh+ (Rh negative = don't have the antigen).

108

what does O- means

means you are Rh negative and O group

109

The most significant Rh antigen is the _ antigen, because it is the most likely to provoke an immune system response of the five main Rh antigens

D

110

which blood type can receive blood from ANY kind of donor including Rhesus + or -

AB+

111

An Rh D-negative patient who does not have any anti-D antibodies (never being previously sensitized to D-positive RBCs) can/can't receive a transfusion of D-positive blood

yes, once, but this would cause sensitization to the D antigen, and a female patient would become at risk for hemolytic disease of the newborn

112

If a D-negative patient has developed anti-D antibodies, a subsequent exposure to D-positive blood would lead to a __.

potentially dangerous transfusion reaction

113

under what conditions do we not give Rh+ blood?

Rh D-positive blood should never be given to D-negative women of child bearing age or to patients with D antibodies, so blood banks must conserve Rh-negative blood for these patients

114

the best blood the blood bank can have is

O- bc it is universal donor, has no antigens on its surface, and no Rh-

115

when we say the blood type is O, it means he has _ antigens and _ antibodies

no antigens
and anti A and anti B antibodies

116

when we say the blood type is A, it means he has _ antigens and _ antibodies

A antigens and ANTI B antibodies