substances, liver, minerals and vitamins, respiratory system Flashcards
(345 cards)
1
Q
the common precursor of all 3 aromatic amino acids is
A
chorismate
2
Q
tyrosine is not essential to the human diet because
A
it can be synthesized from phenylalanine
remember P before Tyr so p makes T
3
Q
tyrosine is the precursor of
A
TMEND: melanin, epinephrine, norepinephrine, dopamine, thyroid hormones
4
Q
chorismate makes ==>
A
tryptophan and prephenate
5
Q
prephenate makes
A
tyrosine and phenylalanine
6
Q
serotonin synthesized from
A
tryptophan
7
Q
serotonin is released from platelets upon damage to BV’s and acts as a potent
A
vasoconstrictor
8
Q
in gastric mucous membranes, serotonin is secreted by _ cells and cause the smooth muscle to
A
enteroendocrine cells
contract
9
Q
in the brain, serotonin acts as a
A
NT
10
Q
lysergic acid diethylamide interferes with action of _ in the brain
A
Serotonin
11
Q
histamine is released by circulating __ and their sedentary cousins __
A
basophils mast cells (sedentary)
12
Q
histamine contracts
A
bronchial and intestinal smooth muscle
13
Q
histamine action in GI
A
contracts smooth muscle and stimulates gastric secretion
14
Q
histamine has powerful pharmacologic actions which are mediated by 2 receptor types. which receptor mediate the allergic/anaphylactic response (bronchoconstriction, vasodilation, increased capillary permeability)
A
H1
15
Q
H2 receptors mediate other responses to histamine like
A
increased secretion of gastric acid and pepsin
16
Q
the actions of bradykinin are similar to
A
histamine
17
Q
bradykinin effects
A
increase permeability dilate and swelling
18
Q
t/f heparin is found in large quantities in the blood
A
false
it is normally slight
19
Q
heparin binds to _
A
antithrombin III = which is an inhibitor of the clotting cascade (so it inhibits the inhibitor)
20
Q
antithrombin III binds to which factors
A
factors Xa and IXa = stoichiometric inhibition
21
Q
heparin prevents the activation of factor
A
IX (Christmas factor) and interferes with thrombin action
22
Q
hepain can enhance the removal of lipoproteins from the blood by binding
A
apolipoprotein E and by activating lipoprotein lipase
23
Q
prostaglandins have a _ half life (short or long)
A
very short
24
Q
prostaglandins act where
A
locally on or near the tissue that produced them
25
prostaglandins precursor is
arachidonic acid (unsaturated FA)
26
prostaglandins synthesis can be inhibited by
cortisol aspirin ibuprofen
27
prostaglandins are synthesized by _ tissues
a wide variety
28
prostaglandins are synthesized from _ pathways
COX
29
prostaglandins thromboxanes and leukotrienes belong to which subclass of lipids
eicosanoids
| bc all are similar to the 20C polyunsaturated FA
30
prostaglandins differ from hormones bc they
act locally and metabolized very quickly and also the same prostaglandins act differently in different tissues
31
prostaglandins are _ carbon FA that contain a _
20 Carbon w 5 carbon ring
32
prostaglandins modulate the action of _ rather than act as hormones themselves
hormones
33
prostaglandins _ inflammatory effects
enhance
opposite of aspirin which diminishes them
34
___ pathways forms prostaglandins, prostacyclin and thromboxanes
COX
35
leukotrienes are potent _
bronchoconstrictors = cause airway edema and increase mucous production.
36
prostaglandins, prostacyclin and thromboxanes, leukotrienes derived from
arachidonic acid
| unsaturated fatty acid
37
what enzyme splits arachidonic acid from the membrane phospholipids
phospholipase A2
38
to form prostaglandins, prostacyclin and thromboxanes from arachidonic acid we use _ enzyme
cyclooxygenase
39
to form luekotrienes the lipoxygenase pathway utilizes
lipoxygenase enzyme
40
NSAIDs block which pathway: lipoxygenase or COX
COX
41
__ is a prostaglandin produced in walls of BV's that acts as a vasodilator and inhibits platelet aggregation
prostacyclin
42
the ___ synthesizes ALL of the non essential amino acids
liver
43
the liver makes all plasma proteins except
Ig
44
most clotting factors made in the
liver
45
disposal of ammonia made from protein catabolism occurs in
liver
46
unlike all other organs in the body, the majority of blood arriving at the liver Is _ in nature and supplied by the _ from the_
venous
| portal vein from intestine
47
glucokinase Km =
| hexokinase Km =
glucokinase Km =10mmol/L (200mg/L)
| hexokinase Km = 0.1mmol/L (2mg/L)
48
glucokinase is __ by CoA thioesters of long chain FA which are abundant during fasting, when the liver metabolizes large amounts of FA from adipose tissue
inhibited
49
is glucokinase involved in GNG
no
50
what enzyme produces glucose from glucose 6 phosphate?
glucose 6 phosphatase
| so in glycolysis in the liver -use glucokinase, in GNG we use glucose 6 phosphatase
51
glucokinase is the predominant enzyme for the phosphorylation of glucose in the liver and in
beta cells of pancreas
52
other tissues besides liver and beta pancreas cells use __ to do the same actions
hexokinase
53
the 3 regulatory enzymes of glycolysis
pyruvate kinase
PFK
hexokinase
54
during exercise the liver releases glucose back into circulation. which organs take up this extra glucose (2)
muscle and brain
55
main fuel source of brain
glucose
56
brain uses _g of glucose per day
120
57
the only fuel source for (3) bc they lack mitochondria is glucose
RBC, lens and cornea of eye
58
kidney, medulla, testes, leukocytes, white muscle fibers use _ bc very few mitochondria
lots of glucose
59
_ is the storage form of glucose in plants
starch
60
_ is the storage form of glucose in animals
glycogen
61
_ and _ main storage site of glycogen
liver and muscle
62
we only store enough glycogen to survive for how long
1 day
63
liver releases glucose into the blood during (2)
muscular activity and in bw meals
64
major end product of carbs ingestion
glucose
65
fasting leads to decreased
liver glycogen
66
the two nitrogen atoms in urea comes from
ammonia via carbamoyl phosphate and aspartate
67
most amino acid catabolism occurs in the
liver
68
1. _ is synthesized from ammonia, CO2 and ATP
| 2. the use of 2 ATP molecules makes this reaction ___
carbamoyl phosphate
| irreversible
69
the synthesis of ONE UREA molecule requires _ high energy phosphate bonds
4
70
urea is produced by the hydrolysis of
arginine
71
the urea cycle occurs partly in
mito and partly cytosol
72
a complete block of any step in urea cycle is _ since there is no known alternative pathway for the synthesis of urea
fatal
73
liver cirrhosis from alcoholism interferes in the enzyme that produces
carbamoyl phosphate
74
the level of nonprotein nitrogen in the blood is due primarily to the level of
urea
75
death from advanced liver disease is primarily due to the inhibition of
urea synthesis
76
the major regulatory enzyme of cholesterol synthesis is:
HMG-CoA reductase
HMG-CoA synthase
HMG-CoA kinase
HMG-CoA reductase - cholesterol
| HMG-CoA synthase - ketone (to remember think ketoSis, and you want to REDUCE your cholesterol)
77
cholesterol is synthesized in most tissues of the body but it is mainly produced in the
liver
78
HMG CoA, mevalonic acid, isopentenyl pyrophosphate and squalene are involved in
cholesterol synthesis
79
in the liver, bile salts are formed from
cholesterol
80
in certain _ tissues cholesterol is converted to steroid hormones
endocrine (testosterone, cortisol, progesterone, estradiol)
81
the most potent naturally occurring human estrogen is
estradiol
82
Vitamin D is formed from
cholesterol
83
cholesterol absorption depends on the presence of _ in intestines
bile
84
cholesterol is esterified with
FA
85
circulating cholesterol taken up my liver inhibits additional synthesis of cholesterol via allosteric inhibition of
HMG-CoA reductase
| this is intrinsic feedback control
86
broccoli, spinach, strawberries, melon, tomatoes and green peppers give you which vitamin
vitamin C
87
Vitamin C is an antioxidant T/F
true
88
vitamin C deficiency primarily affects
CT
89
Vitamin C is essential for normal elaboration and maintenance of
bone matrix, cartilage and dentin
90
if vitamin c deficient you can get
anemia
delayed wound healing
scurvy (degeneration of skin, teeth, bv, epithelial hemorrhages)
91
```
which is part of active cytochrome oxidase:
zinc
vitamin c
copper
vitamin k
magnesium
```
copper
92
cytochrome oxidase act as the _ enzyme in respiratory chain
terminal
93
```
which is important in the maturation of elastin and collagen
zinc
vitamin c
copper
vitamin k
magnesium
```
copper
94
the cofactor for lysyl oxidase is
copper
95
lysyl oxidase is found in
collagen and elastin
96
_ are inorganic elements that are essential to life
minerals
97
minerals serve both _ and _ functions
structural and regulatory
98
we classify minerals as __ or __minerals.
```
major or trace
major minerals (more than 0.005% of body weight) and trace (< than 0.005% of body weight)
```
99
calcium, chloride, Mg, PO4, Na, S, Na are major or trace minerals
major
100
Chromium cobalt, copper, fluoride iodine iron manganese selenium and zinc are trace or major minerals
trace
101
iron is trace or major mineral
trace
102
F- is trace or major mineral
trace
103
Sulfur is trace or major
major
104
iodine is trace or major mineral
trace
105
magnesium is trace or major mineral
major
106
chloride is trace or major mineral
major
107
t/f minerals help maintain acid base balance
true
108
t/f minerals involved in growth of oral and other body tissues and water balance
true
109
```
a patient tells you he is taking tocopherol. what is that?
vitamin C
vitamin E
riboflavin
folacin
```
Vitamin E = tocophErol
110
the major bodily function of vitamin E (tocopherol) is
antioxidant and scavenger of free radicals
111
dietary sources of vitamin E
veg oil, seeds, green leafy veggies, margarine, shortenings
112
deficiency in vitamin E is most in
premature infants
113
tocopherol prevents free radicals from oxidizing compounds such as
polyunsaturated fatty acids
114
since vitamin E (tocopherol) is lipid soluble it associates with
membranes, storage of fats, and plasma lipoproteins
115
1. out of all the fat soluble vitamins (ADEK) which is the most toxic
2. which is the least toxic
1. vitamin D
| 2. vitamin E
116
Vitamin _ supplementation has been proposed to be of benefit in preventing heart disease and cancer
cancer and heart disease
117
which severe thiamine deficiency syndrome is found in areas where polished rice is the major component of the diet
beri beri
118
thiamine is vitamin_
B1
119
yeast, lean pork, and legume seeds are dietary sources of
B1 thiamine
120
the biologically active form of thiamine (Vit B1) is
TPP thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP) = formed from pyrophosphate transfer from ATP to thiamine
121
TPP serves as a coenzyme in what reactions
oxidative decarboxylation of alpha ketoacids and in formation of degradation of alpha ketols by transketolase
122
do we store B1
very little and it can be depleted in 14 days
123
thiamine deficiency is most common in
alcoholics who have poor intestinal absorption and inadequate dietary intake
124
in alcoholics Vit B1 deficiency causes
Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
125
1. the acute stage of vitamin B1 deficiency in alcoholics is called
2. the chronic stage of vitamin B1 deficiency in alcoholics is called
1. Wernicke's encephalopathy = mental derangement and delirium ataxia and paralysis of eye muscles.
2. Korsakoff psychosis = amnesia
126
Limited amounts of niacin can be obtained from the synthesis of
niacin
127
niacin is a constituent of
NAD+ and NADP+
128
the endogenous niacin synthesis requires
riboflavin thiamine and pryidoxine
129
yeast, liver, meat peanuts and other legume seeds and enriched cereals are a dietary source of
niacin (vit b5)
130
deficiency in niacin
pellagra (dementia, diarrhea, dermatitis)
131
pellagra is only seen when you have a diet low in BOTH
niacin AND tryptophan (since you can make it from tryptophan)
132
serotonin and niacin are made from
tryptophan
133
pellagra is often associated with _ diets
corn
134
high doses of niacin are effective in treating
hyperlipidemia
135
pernicious anemia is caused by the malabsorption of vitamin
B12 cobalamin
136
absorption of vitamin B12 requires
Intrinsic factor
| B12 must be bound to IF to be absorbed in ileum
137
in the blood Vitamin B12 binds tightly to
transcobalamin II and other plasma proteins
138
only 2 reactions are known to require B12 coenzymes in humans. what are they
methylation of homocysteine to methionine
| methylmalonyl CoA mutase reaction
139
dietary sources of vitamin B12
muscle and organ meats, eggs, dairy products, fish
140
_ vitamin is required for the formation of methionine
Vitamin B12
141
_ vitamin is required for the conversion of methylmalonyl CoA to succinyl CoA
Vitamin B12
142
deficiency in vitamin B12 causes
glossitis, neurological disorders, pernicious anemia
143
pernicious anemia is an __ disease that destroys the parietal cells in the stomach. this deprives the patient of IF and neither dietary or biliary vitamin B12 can be absorbed
autoimmune
144
the ONLY vitamin that contains essential mineral elements and is the first substance containing cobalt that is found to be vital to life is
vitamin b12 cobalamine
145
vitamin B12 may be present in inadequate quantities in a strictly _ diet
vegetarian
146
which vitamin plays a key role in amino acid metabolism
vitamin B6
147
vitamin B6 is a generic name for the dietary precursors of the active coenzyme form, __
pyridoxal phosphate (PLP)
148
vitamin _ assists in sodium potassium balance
vitamin b6
149
vitamin _ promotes RBC production
B6
150
_ vitamin involve in nucleic acids RNA and DNA
B6
151
_ vitamin has been linked to cancer immunity and fights the formation of toxic chemical homocysteine, which is detrimental to heart muscle
B6
152
liver fish nuts whole grains legumes egg yolk and yeast are dietary sources of
B6
153
vitamin B6 deficiency is most common in
alcoholic - sideroblastic anemia, seizures, peripheral neuropathy
154
alcoholics deficient in vitamins __
B1 (thiamine), B2 (riboflavin) and B6 (pyridoxal phosphate) folic acid
155
essential in synthesis of purines, thymine, and one carbon metabolism:
biotin/riboflavin/folic acid/pantothenic acid
folic acid
156
folic acid consists of pteroic acid and glutamate residues. dietary glutamate forms of folic acid are hydrolyzed to
pteroyl mooglutamate
157
folic acid ==> tetrahydrofolate (THF). clinical signs of folate deficiency are
impairment of DNA replication in dividing cells which results in reduced synthesis of purines and thymine
158
deficiency in folic acid leads to
megaloblastic anemia
diarrhea
glossitis
159
folic acid is stored in the __ and may be synthesized from
liver
| bacteria flora in GI
160
GI flora that make folic acid can be inhibited by
sulfonamides and trimethoprim
161
the most common vitamin deficiency in the US is _
folic acid deficiency
162
__ deficiency is particularly common in pregnant and alcoholics
folic acid
163
folate supplements given to pregnant women to prevent___
neural tube defects (spina bifida and anencephaly)
164
the determination of _ time is the most impt lab test to evaluate vitamin K status
PROTHROMBIN TIME (PTT)
165
Vitamin K involved in synthesis of what clotting factors
2, 7, 9, 10 in the liver
166
the only important sign of vit k deficiency
clotting disorder
167
dietary sources of vitamin k
green and yellow veggies, cereals, fruits and meats
168
__ is required for the synthesis of prothrombin
vitamin k
169
deficiency in vitamin k leads to
retarded blood clotting and excessive bleeding
170
phylloquinone and menaquinone produced by intestinal bacteria produce which vitamin
K (think Quinone sounds like K)
171
does vitamin K have a specific binding protein in plasma
no
172
vitamin k is transported to the liver in
chylomicrons
173
unlike the other fat soluble vitamins, the only one that is not stored is
vitamin K
174
vitamin K deficiency is the most common in elderly/newborns
newborns
175
hemorrhagic disease of newborn is
vitamin k deficiency
176
the most common nutritional deficiency in newborns is
vitamin k
177
vitamin k deficiency in adults is usually caused by
fat malabsorption
178
vitamin K __ coagulation time and is present in low concentrations in _
decreases
| milk
179
```
pantothenic acid is a component in:
coA
retinoic acid
fatty acid synthase
pyridoxal phosphate
```
coA
| fatty acid synthase
180
coenzyme A function
transfer acyl group (C=O)
181
coenzyme A contains a _ group
thiol (sulfur-H) = think CoASH
182
pantothenic acid is a component of Coenzyme A. seen in?
succinyl CoA, acetyl CoA fatty acid synthase
183
pyruvate carboxylase
acetyl-CoA carboxylase
propionyl-CoA carboxylase all have what prosthetic group
biotin = ALL ATP DEPENDENT CARBOXYLASES
184
biotin dietary source
almost all foods, especially milk, egg yolk, liver
185
biocytin is
produced when biotin enzymes degraded
186
biotin is released from biocytin by
biotinidase
187
biotinidase deficiency causes
non dietary biotin deficiency
188
a large percentage of biotin is supplied by
intestinal bacteria
189
vitamin H aka
biotin
190
when avidin in egg whites bind biotin, does it increase its intestinal absorption or decrease it
decrease
191
in vitamin _ deficiency, columnar epithelia are transformed into heavily keratinized squamous epithelia = called squamous metaplasia
A
192
the retonids are the active form of vitamin
A
193
the most important biologically active forms of vitamin a are
retinAL and retinoic acid (not retinol which is also biologically active form)
194
retinoic acid is required for
maintaining epithelial tissues
195
retinoic acid is a _ regulator
gene (acts like a hormone)
196
what 3 vitamins needed for normal production of dentin and enamel
CAD
197
a deficiency in vitamin A will most likely affect the enamel or dentin?
enAmel - vitamin A
198
vitamin C deficiency will most likely affect the enamel or dentin?
Dentin = vitamin C
199
vitamin _ affects dentin most, and vitamin _ affects enamel most
C =denin
| A - enamel
200
__ is the vitamin A precursor in plants
beta carotene
201
follicular hyperkeratosis (gooseflesh) and night blindness are early signs of __ which often leads to xerophthalmia which is
vitamin A deficiency
| dry eyes
202
Both vitamin A deficiency and vitamin A excess are
teratogenic
203
all of the following vitamins have little to no risk of overdose except one: which one
vit K, vit C, biotin, niacin
vitamin K
the others are water soluble and therefore have very little risk
204
the water soluble vitamins (except vitamin C) are called
B complex vitamins
205
Name the 8 vitamin B's
```
B1 = thiamine
2= riboflavin
3 - niacin
5= pantothenic acid
6 = pyridoxine
7 = biotin aka vitamin H
9 = folic acid/folacin
12 = cobalamine
```
206
water soluble vitamins are inactive in their
free states
207
B complex and Vit C are _ stored in body and must be replaced each day, preferably through a high quality liquid multivitamin
not
208
water soluble vitamins are absorbed in the _
intestines ==> blood ==> tissues
209
water soluble vitamins are excreted in the urine daily. if the tissues become saturated with vitamins (since little room for storage) the amount in our urine will
increase = prevents overdose
210
the only water soluble vitamin that is excreted ONLY in the feces is
vitamin B12
211
vitamins ADEK are carried in
fat and stored in body
212
is cholecalciferol the active vitamin D
no
213
the active vitamin D is
calciTRIOL (3 OH) = 1,25 dihydroxycholecalciferol
214
t/f vitamin D is required in the diet of individuals exposed to sunlight
false
| vit d is nutritionally essential only in pp who stay out of the sun
215
7-dehydrocholesterol is
+ UV light synthesizes Vitamin D3 (CHOLECALCIFEROL) in skin
216
calcitriol is hormone like substance. stimulates
calcium and phosphate absorption
217
riboflavin is a precursor of:
FMN and FAD
Pyridoxal phosphate (PLP)
NAD+ and NADP+
FMN and FAD
218
riboflavin deficiency most common in
alcoholics
219
T/F fluoride harden tooth enamel
false
220
Fluoride does not make the tooth enamel harder but it ___ enamel
reduces the solubility of enamel
221
1. a deficiency of Fluoride could lead to increased
| 2. a toxicity of Fluoride leads to enamel __ and __
1. dental caries
| 2. mottling and discoloration, increased bone density and calcification
222
fluoride inhibits BACTERIAL
enolase
223
fluoride is excreted by the
kidneys
224
fluoride is deposited in _ tissues
calcified (ex. bones)
225
at 1ppm fluoride is tasteless, odorless and colorless. t/f
true
226
1ppm =
1mg/L or 1inch in 16 miles
227
fluoride converts hydroxyapatite to
fluoroapatite by substitution of OH ion with F ion
228
Fluoridation of community water reduces tooth decay by _% in USA
50-60% since WWII
229
Fluoride works by __ teeth decay
stopping or EVEN REVERSING
230
Fluoride keeps tooth strong and solid by preventing the loss of minerals and enhancing
reattachment of minerals
231
water fluoridation costs _ per person per year in the USA
72cents per person per year
232
children under the age of _ may develop fluorosis if they ingest more fluoride than needed
6
233
a common source of extra fluoride in children is
unsupervised use of toothpaste
234
pregnant person: what mineral should be kept high to help immune system and growth and development of unborn child and also improves sense of smell.
zinc/copper/cobalt/phosphorous
zinc
supports growth and development in pregnancy childhood and adolescents
235
zinc is the most abundant trace mineral in the body after
iron
236
zinc supports a healthy immune system and is needed in wound healing, helps maintain your sense of taste and smell and is needed in __ synthesis
DNA
237
what mineral is key in kinase function
magnesium
238
what mineral key in vitamin b12
cobalt
239
during inspiration there is a fall in _ and _ pressure
intraalveolar and intrapleural
240
intrapleural pressure is the pressure in the
pleural cavity
241
in resting position the intrapleural pressure is about _#mmHg __ than the ATM
4mm less
242
atmospheric pressure is _ and intrapleural is __
```
760 mmHg
(intrapleural is 756)
```
243
intrapleural pressure is referred to as
subatmospheric or negative
244
which is active phase of respiration: inspiration or expiration
inspiration bc it is the result of muscle contraction
245
during expiration, the diaphragm relaxes, there is an elastic recoil of tissue, thoracic volume decreases and intraalveolar pressure
increases
246
in expiration, intrapleural pressure becomes ___ and intralveolar pressure __
intrapleural becomes less negative
| intralveolar pressure rises
247
following a normal expiration, the alveolar pressure is ___
760mmHg (atmospheric pressure)
248
functional residual capacity is
when you are breathing at rest
249
in __ the expanding forces are equal and opposite to the collapsing pressures
functional residual capacity
250
either increasing or decreasing volume from functional residual capacity requires
muscle contraction
251
does temperature affect the rate of gas diffusion across respiratory membrane
no
252
thickness of membrane affect the rate of gas diffusion across respiratory membrane ?
rate of diffusion is inversely proportional to diffusion distance
253
the surface area of respiratory membrane is ___ proportional to the rate of diffusion
directly
| more SA = more diffusion
254
diffusion coefficient of gas in substance is
measure of how easily gas will diffuse considering the size and solubility
255
the solubility of CO2 is 20x __ than the solubility of O2
greater
256
alveolar ventilation is expressed as what formula
respiratory rate x (tidal volume - dead air space) = alveolar ventilation
257
gas exchange takes place in bronchioles, alveolar ducts and alveolar sacs. no gas exchange occurs in the remaining tract, these areas are called
no air exchange in conducting bronchioles, trachea, pharynx or nose
- anatomical dead air space
258
does air exchange occur in the respiratory bronchioles or conducting bronchioles
respiratory only
259
1. during quiet breathing the air brought into lungs I called the _ and is _ mL
2. approximately 150mL of the tidal volume remains in the
1. tidal volume 500mL
| 2. dead air space
260
__ is the volume of atm air that actually reaches the alveoli and can participate in gas exchange.
alveolar ventilation
261
alveolar ventilation is a good criterion for the
effectiveness of breathing
262
respiratory rate =
breaths/min
263
minute ventilation =
minute ventilation = tidal volume x breath/min
= tidal volume x respiratory rate
264
gas exchange can either be _ or _ limited
perfusion or diffusion
265
in __ limited gas exchange the partial pressure of gasses in the alveolar capillaries becomes equal tot he partial pressure in the alveoli and the only way to increase gas exchange is to increase the rate of blood flow thru the alveolar capillaries
perfusion
266
in healthy people gas exchange is perfusion unless they are
exercising
267
in vigorous exercise and in pp with emphysema or fibrosis gas exchange is _ limited
diffusion limited
268
diffusion limited means the partial pressure gradient bw blood and alveoli is maintained because gases cannot
diffuse thru the alveoli before the blood passes thru the capillary ends
269
the major factor that influences ventilation is:
| arterial PCO2/PO2/pH of arterial blood?
pCO2
270
1. the central chemoreceptors are sensitive to. where are they located
2. the peripheral chemoreceptors are the
1. pH, on the ventrolateral surface of the medulla
| 2. carotid and aortic bodies
271
the peripheral chemoreceptors respond to CHANGES in
PO2, PCO2, and pH
272
the __ chemoreceptors are the only chemoreceptors that respond to changes in PO2
peripheral
273
2 situations that will excite the respiratory neurons and increase respiration?
increase H+ concentration (decreased pH) and increase PCO2
274
the hypoxia of high altitude stimulates
ventilation
275
the __senses hypoxia and signals the medulla to stimulate ventilation
carotid body
276
the volume of air remaining in the lungs after a maximal expiration is called
residual volume
| = 1.5L in healthy adult
277
the volume of air in the lungs after maximal inspiratory effort is called
Total lung capacity (TLC)
| =6L in healthy adult
278
the volume of air expelled from the lungs during a maximal forced expiration starting after a maximal forced inspiration
vital capacity
279
TV + IRV + ERV =
VC vital capacity
280
normal rate of respiration is _ times per minute
12
281
tidal volume in healthy adult is
500mL
282
the volume of gas remaining in lungs at end of a normal tidal expiration
functional residual capacity (FRC) = this is the balance point bw the inward elastic recoil of the lungs and the outward elastic recoil of the chest wall.
283
ERV + RV =
FRC
284
are there any HCO3- sensors
no
285
central chemoreceptors are located in the
medulla
286
peripheral chemoreceptors are located in the
carotid body and aortic bodies.
287
stimuli that increase breathing of _ chemoreceptors are PO2 (if less than 60mmHg), PCO2, and pH
peripheral chemoreceptors
288
stimuli that increase rate of breathing from the _ chemoreceptors are pH (CO2 and H+)
central
289
normal adult arterial pH?
| vs venous pH?
arterial: 7.38-7.42
venous: 7.35-7.38
290
PO2 in arterial vs venous
arterial: 90-100mmHg
| PO2 venous = 40mmHgt
291
the Hering-Breur inspiratory-inhibitory reflex is mediated by __ fibers
vagal fibers
292
the Hering-Breur inspiratory-inhibitory reflex is quiet during
normal breathing
293
the Hering-Breur inspiratory-inhibitory reflex is most important in
newborns
294
the Hering-Breur inspiratory-inhibitory reflex is a _ mechanism that prevents the lungs from overfilling
protective
295
specialized sensory receptors in the lung parenchyma respond to chemical or mechanical stimulation in lungs. these receptors are called
juxta-alveolar or J receptors
296
J receptors transmit their afferent input thru
unmyelinated vagal C fibers
297
inhaled dust, noxious gases or cigarette smoke stimulates irritant receptors in the trachea and airways that transmit info thru ___fibers
myelinated vagal afferent fibers = increased air resistance, reflex apnea and couphing
298
1. a decrease in CO2 __ inspiration
inhibits
299
an increase in CO2 __inspiration
stimulates
300
1. __ = arterial PO2 less than 80mmHg
| 2. _= when there is insufficient O2 to carry out normal metabolic functions; often when PO2 is <60mmHg
1. arterial hypoxemia
| 2. hypoxia
301
hypercapnea
increase in PCO2 arterial
302
If PaO2 galls to less than 60mmHg the ___respond by causing hyperventilation and increasing CO
aortic and carotid chemoreceptors
303
the pulmonary vessels are _ times more compliant than the systemic vessels
7
304
recruitment of new capillaries is a unique feature of the _
lungs
305
the alveoli are type I and type II cells in 1:1 ratio. the type _ cell occupies 96% to 98% of the surface area of the alveoli ad the PRIMARY SITE for gas exchange
type I
306
type II epithelial cell in alveoli are small and cuboidal and usually found in corners of alveolus where it occupies _% of surface area
2-4%
307
Type I/Type II alveoli cells synthesize pulmonary surfactant
type II
308
the functional anatomic unit of the lung is called the
bronchopulmonary segment = region of lung supplied by a segnmental bronchus
309
the basic physiologic unit of the lung is the
respiratory unit or gas exchange unit = alveoli, respiratory bronchiolis and ducts
310
conducting airways =
bronchi that contain cartilage and non respiratory bronchioles (lacking alveoli) in which cartilage is absent
311
Inspiration/expiration is the active phase of breathing
inspiration
312
ovulation is the result of a _induced _ surge
estrogen induced LH surge
313
high levels of _ occur around midcycle and exert positive feedback on gonadotropin secretion.
estradiol
314
1. estrogen ___ ciliation and transport
| 2. progesterone ___ transport.
1. promotes
| 2. inhibits
315
FSH and LH are both __
glycoproteins
316
the first half of the monthly cycle is called the a) luteal phase b) follicular phase
follicular = first half
| second half= luteal
317
follicular phase corresponds to the
menstrual and proliferative phases of the uterine endometrium
318
the second half of the menstrual cycle is the luteal phase and is dominated by
hormonal secretions of the corpus leuteum
319
during the mid to late follicular phase (days 6-14) the ovary produces
estradiol = induces the cells of the endometrium to proliferate (proliferation phase
320
after ovulation the ovary enters the luteal phase (days 16-28) and produces
progesterone
321
progesterone stimulates secretion from the uterine glands in the luteal phase = called the __ phase
secretory
322
___phase is the proliferative phase and __ phase is the secretory phase
follicular
luteal
323
decreasing estrogen and progesterone levels stimulate the hypothalamus to produce __
GnRH and the cycle begins again
324
the cervix is the _ part of the uterus
cervix
325
cervical mucous is hormonally regulates so that at midcycle in response to __- promotes entry of sperm
estrogen
326
during the _ phase in response to progesterone the cervical mucus becomes thick and poses a barrier to entry of sperm and microbes into the uterus
luteal
327
fertilization occurs in the
oviduct
328
accessory reproductive glands in women are called
mammary glands
329
what 3 things cannot undergo hyperplasia?
CNS: cardiac, neuron, skeletal muscles: only hypertrophy!!
330
seminiferous tubules in the testes contain __ cells and developing sperm cells
sertoli
331
Sertoli cells produce the hormone _ that negatively feedback on pituitary FSH production
inhibin
332
androgen binding protein is made by
sertoli cells
333
Leydig cells are stromal cells that reside
outside the seminiferous tubules
334
leydig cells respond to __ and produce _
LH
| testosteron
335
Sertoli cells have what receptors
FSH and androgen receptors
336
inhibin from sertoli cells selectively inhibit
FSH
337
when is a male child capable of reproduction
after puberty
338
during childhood the hypothalamus does not secrete significant amounts of
GnRH
339
during childhood the slightest secretion of any sex hormones exerts a _ effect on hypothalamic GnRH release
inhibitory
340
on average females reach puberty about _year before males
1-2
341
the events of puberty in the female (enlargement of vagina, uterus, uterine tubes, deposition of fat in breasts and hips) are largely the result of increased production of _
estrogens by ovaries
342
menopause: low ovarian hormone and __ gonadotropin levels
high
343
the _ is the functional unit of the ovary
follicle
344
the follicle contains epithelial cells and outer stromal cells that surround the
primary oocyte
345
the primary oocyte remains arrested in the first meiotic prophase until just before __
ovulation
