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Flashcards in 3/28 - UW 28 Deck (38):
1

What Brodmann's areas are 4 and 6?

Premotor and motor cortices

2

What is the order of structures through which 1st order corticospinal (pyramindal) tracts travel through?

Premotor, motor cortex, internal capsule, midbrain, pons, decussate in the medulla, anterior horn

3

What is the most common cause of post-duodenal small bowel atresia?

In utero vascular accidents

4

In an infant with post-duodenal atresia, what etiology is indicated by a spiraling "apple peel" or "Christmas tree" deformity in the terminal ileum distal to the atresia?

SMA occlusion in utero, leading to blind-ending at the proximal jejunum

5

What disease is caused by a failure of neural crest cells to migrate to the intestinal wall?

Hirschsprung disease, where the submucosal and myenteric plexi do not develop. Presents as intestinal obstruction with failure to pass stool.

6

What congenital GI malformation is due to a failure of recanalization?

Duodenal atresia

7

What are the basal, long acting insulins?

BID: NPH
QD: Glargine, Detemir

8

What are the postprandial, short acting insulins?

IV: Regular insulin (takes 2-4 hours to work)
Post-prandial: Lispro, Aspart, Glulisine

9

What are the two components of MHC I molecules?

Heavy chain
B2 microglobulin

10

What are the two components of MHC II molecules?

Alpha and beta polypeptide chains

11

What is conus medullaris syndrome?

Lesions at L2: flaccid paralysis of bladder and rectum, impotence, saddle (S3-5) anesthesia

12

What are some causes of conus medullaris syndrome?

DIsk herniation, tumors, spinal fractures

13

What is cauda equina syndrome?

Compression of 2+ of its 18 spinal nerve roots

14

What causes cauda equina syndrome?

Typically from a massive rupture of an intervertebral disk, but can be from any trauma or space occupying lesion

15

What is the main cause of death with PCP?

Trauma due to violent behavior

16

Trendelenburg gait is due to injury to what nerve or muscle?

Nerve: superior gluteal
Muscle: gluteus medius

17

What is the Alveolar gas equation at sea level?

PAO2 = 150 - (PaCO2/0.8)

18

What two factors are important for osteoclast differentiation? What cells release it?

M-CSF and RANK-L from osteoblasts

19

What is a Tzanck smear used for?

HSV or VZV dx by scraping epithelial cells from the base of a vesiculoulcerative lesion

20

What process does EBV stimulate in B cells?

After infection of B cells, EBV stimulates "transformation" or "immortalization" where they proliferate continuously

21

"-cyclovir/-ciclovir" drugs are what analogs? What do they need to be active?

NucleoSide analogs, requiring phosphorylation by VIRAL kinases, then another phosphorylation by CELLULAR kinases

22

"-fovir" drugs are what analogs? When might they be used over "-cyclovir" drugs?

Nucleotide analogs, used when the virals lacks thymidine kinase (required to activate nucleoside analogs like cyclovir drugs)

23

What are the only two vitamins that are NOT adequate from breast milk?

D and K

24

How are vit D and vit K supplemented to infants? Which infants need this?

Exclusively breast fed infants need vit D and vit K.
Vit K is give IM at delivery to prevent hemorrhagic disease.
Vit D is given as an oral supplement.

25

Why shouldn't E. granulosus hydatid cysts be aspirated?

Anaphylactic shock! Really really quickly

26

What is the preferred tx for narcolepsy?

Psychostimulants like Medafinil (non-amphetamine stimulant)

27

What diseases cause combined restrictive and obstructive lung defects?

CF, bronchiectasis

28

Why would you see an increase in diffusing capacity with asthma?

Increased pulmonary blood volume

29

Congenital prolonged QT (Jervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome) is associated with what other sx?

Congenital neurosensory deafness

30

Triad of Kartagener's?

Bronchiectasis, infertility, situs inversus

31

What are the 3 mutations in the "adenoma to carcinoma" sequence?

Normal mucosa to small polyp: APC
Increased size of polyp: K-ras
Malignant transformation: p53 and DCC

32

Increase of N-myc oncogene leads to what neoplasm?

Neuroblastoma

33

What are Cushing ulcers?

Ulcers in the esophagus, stomach, duodenum in patients with high intracranial pressure

34

What are Curling ulcers?

Ulcers in the proximal duodenum associated with severe trauma or burns

35

What is the common etiology of antral gastritis? non-antral?

Antral: H. pylori (elevated risk of duodenal ulcers)

Non-antral: autoimmune (destruction of parietal cells, may get pernicious anemia)

36

What is seen on small intestine biopsy in Celiac patients?

Villous blunting, chronic inflammatory infiltration of lamina propria

37

What are the two factors that drive angiogenesis?

VEGF and FGF

38

What is the most common cause of death in CF patients in the US?

Cardiorespiratory complications