Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Step 1 > 3/5 > Flashcards

3/5 Flashcards

1
Q

P450 inducers?

A

Rifampin, Carbamazepine Barbiturates, Griseofulvin, chronic alcohol use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

P450 inhibitors?

A

Cimetidine, isoniazid, macrolides, azole antifungals, grapefruit juice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What causes an early diastolic decrescendo murmur?

A

Aortic regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Why does administration of amyl nitrite reduce an aortic regurge murmur?

A

Causes vasodilation, reducing systemic resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What causes a systolic ejection murmur that increases with intensity when standing?

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (due to a decrease in LV outflow tract size)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What causes a systolic ejection murmur that decreases with intensity when standing?

A

Aortic stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What type of inheritance is classical galactosemia? What is the defective gene?

A

AR, defective galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Common side effects of nitrates (nitroglycerine, isosorbide)?

A

Headaches and cutaneous flushing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Muscles that Munch (close the jaw)?

A

Masseter, teMporalis, Medial pterygoid

Lateral pterygoid opens jaw

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Divisions of CN V exit the skull due to Standing Room Only, from which foramen?

A

Opthalmic: Superior orbital fissure
Maxillary: foramen Rotundum
Mandibular: foramen Ovale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does heparin inhibit?

A

Factor Xa and thrombin (UFH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is lacking in Xeroderma Pigmentosum?

A

Repair enzyme UV-specific endonuclease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

UV radiation causes formation of what type of bonds?

A

Covalent bonds between adjacent pyrimidine (thymine) NAs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What vitamin deficiency is associated with Isoniazid?

A

B6, pyridoxine

Supplementation recommended

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is ethosuximide’s MOA in treating absence sz?

A

Blocks T-type Ca channels that rigger and sustain rhythmical burst discharges in thalamic neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which 3 sz medications act by inhibiting neuronal high-freq firing by reducin the ability of Na channels to recover from inactivation?

A

Phenytoin
Carbamazepine
Valproic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the term for the high bone turnover rate seen in hyperPTH?

A

Osteitis fibrosa cystica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How do nitrites cause poisoning?

A

Oxidizing ferrous (2+) iron to ferric (3+) iron, forming methemoglobin. Shifts oxygen dissociation curve left. Partial pressure of O2 in blood is normal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What sugar should be avoided in aldolase B def?

A

Fructose (which is also in sucrose)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How to characterize the glomerulus in PSGN?

A

Hypercellular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are some lab findings in PSGN?

A

elevated titers of anti-streptococcal ab (anti-streptolysin O, andti-DNase B, anti-cationic proteinase)

Low C3 concentration

Serum cryoglobulins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Serum anti-glomerular basement membrane ab are found in what renal pathology?

A

Goodpastures RPGN, often with crescent formation on light microscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Serum anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic ab are found in what disease?

A

Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener’s) RPGN, crescents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What to give for Jimson weed poisoning and atropine overdose?

A

Physostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Atropine overdose sx mnemonic?
Blind as a bat, mad as a hatter, red as a beet, hot as a hare, dry as a bone, the bowel and bladder lose their tone, and the heart runs alone (Reverse cholinergic antagonists selective for muscarinic receptors)
26
What to give for beta blocker overdose?
Glucagon
27
What is the mechanism for glucagon rescue of beta blocker overdose?
GPCR that increases cAMP, increasing intracellular Ca release during muscle contraction
28
What infx in HIV pts is like TB, but has marked anemia, HSM, elevated alk phos and LDH, and also grows optimally at 41C?
MAC! Treat with macrolides (clarithro, azithro) +rifabutin or ethambutol Prophylaxis with macro
29
What brain tumors show S-100 immunoreactivity?
Schwannomas and melanomas
30
What brain tumor is described as bizarre looking glial cells with multiple mitotic figures, pseudopalisading necrosis, and abundant neovascularization and hemorrhage?
Glioblastoma (WTF....)
31
What chronic diseases can lead to hyaline arteriolosclerosis?
NONmalignant HTN, DM Underlying vessel wall is maintained, but intima is thickened and lumen is narrowed
32
What type of arteriolosclerosis is produced by malignant HTN?
Hyperplastic arteriolosclerosis Homogenous, onion-like, concentric thickening of arteriole walls
33
Heavy cigarette smokers can get calf, foot, or hand intermittent claudication, superficial nodular phlebitis, and cold sensitivity have what disease?
Thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger's disease)
34
Significant risk factor for mesothelioma?
Asbestos (insulation, ship building, mining)
35
Toxic shock syndrome is mostly from what bug?
Staph aureus
36
Toxic shock syndrome activates what immune cells?
Macrophages and T cells
37
What are some histological markers of eczema?
Intraepidermal vesicles, superficial epidermal hyperkeratosis (scales), epidermal hyperplasia (acanthosis), chronic inflammatory infiltrate
38
What are the only 2 purely ketogenic AAs?
Lysine and Leucine
39
What is more distal, airway epithelial cilia, or goblet cells?
Cilia, present throughout the respiratory bronchioles. Goblet cells end in the bronchi.
40
Is excess neutrophil elastase activity in alveoli associated with panacinar or centriacinar emphysema?
Panacinar, more common in lower lung fields due to higher perfusion. Can be due to alpha1antitrypsin deficiency.
41
Is smoking associated with panacinar or centriacinar emphysema?
Centriacinar, with greater upper lobe distribution due to destructive proteases released by macrophages/neutrophils
42
Is alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency associated with panacinar or centriacinar emphysema?
Panacinar
43
What molecules/hormones increase gastric acid secretion? (3 things)
Histamine, ACh, gastrin
44
What molecule inhibits gastric acid secretion?
PGE2
45
What syndrome causes excess gastrin secretion?
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
46
vWF protects what clotting factor from degradation?
Factor VIII, so vWF deficiency can cause a prolonged bleeding time and PTT, with a normal platelet count.
47
In what disorder do you see an isolated PTT prolongation? What medication?
Hemophilia A (X linked disorder caused by factor VIII deficiency) Heparin (antithrombin associated inhibition of factors II and X)
48
What do you see on PT, PTT, platelet count, and bleeding time with uremic platelet dysfunction?
Normal PT, PTT, platelet count Increased bleeding time
49
Acute extrapyramidal symptoms are related to which neurotransmitter?
D2
50
Which Staph species is associated with foreign bodies?
Staph epidermidis (forms biofilm) It is coagulase neg, part of normal skin flora
51
Which Staph species has protein A?
Staph Aureus (protein A binds to Fc region of Ig, inhibiting opsonization and phagocytosis)
52
What are the 3 phases in Paget disease of bone?
1. Osteolytic (osteoclast dominant from excessive RANK signaling and NK-kB activation) 2. Mixed (osteoclast/osteoblast) with abnormal new bone 3. Osteosclerotic (osteoblast dominant forming dense hypovascular mosaic pattern of lamellar bone with prominent cement lines)
53
Aqueous humor is produced by what cells?
Ciliary epithelial cells
54
What type of medications precipitate narrow angle glaucoma?
Anticholinergics, more acute presenting with h/a and eye pain
55
What drugs decreases secretion of aqueous humor? From where?
Timolol (nonselective beta blockers) Acetalzolamide (carbonic anhydrase inhibitor) Decrease secretion by ciliary epithelial cells
56
What drugs increase outflow of aqueous humor?
``` Prostaglandin F2a (latanoprost, unoprostone, travoprost) Cholinomimetics (pilocarpine, carbachol) ```
57
What is the first line tx for Enterobiasis (dx by scotch tape test)
Albendazole
58
Virus that causes Mono?
EBV
59
Causes of mononucleosis-like sx?
CMV, toxo
60
Which cholesterol drugs increase risk for gallstones?
Fibrates and bile acid binding resins (cholestyramine, colestipol, colesevelam)
61
What does an intimal tear precede?
Aortic dissection
62
What does an intimal streak precede?
AAA
63
What to give for Succinylcholine slow metabolisers?
neostigmine

Step 1 (49 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions