3/31 - UW 37 Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in 3/31 - UW 37 Deck (50):
1

What is the embryonic source of the anterior pituitary?

Surface ectoderm

2

What organs are derived from the surface ectoderm?

Rathke's pouch (anterior pituitary), lens/cornea, inner ear, nose/mouth, epidermis, sweat/mammary glands

3

What organs are derived from the neural tube?

CNS, posterior pituitary, retina

4

What organs are derived from the neural crest?

Pia/arachnoid mater, ganglions, Schwann cells, aorticopulmonary septum and endocardial cushions, branchial arches, melanocytes, adrenal medulla

5

What organs are derived from the mesoderm?

MSK, CV sys (incl blood and lymphatics), serosal lining, spleen, internal genitalia, kidney/ureters, adrenal cortex

6

What organs are derived from the endoderm

GI tract (incl liver, pancreas), lungs, thymus, para/thyroids, middle ear, bladder/urethra

7

Caspofungin MOA?

Block glucan synthesis, for CELL WALL!!!!

8

Polyenes? MOA?

Amphotericin B, nystatin

BIND (as opposed to azoles) ergosterol, for the cell MEMBRANE

9

Azoles MOA?

Inhibit ergosterol SYNTHESIS, for the cell membrane

10

What is Caspofungin most effective against?

Candida and Aspergillus

11

What tx for isolated HTN in a nondiabetic can cause peripheral edema and flushing?

Amlodipine (CCBs)

12

What drug can cause blue-gray skin discoloration and corneal micro-deposits?

Amiodarone

13

How do NK cells mediate destruction of cells with decreased or absent MHC I expression?

1. Perforins open membrane holes
2. Granzymes enter through holes to induce apoptosis

14

What CD # do NK cells express?

CD16 or 56

15

When do Cheyne-Stokes respirations occur?

Advanced CHF, stokes, brain tumors, traumatic brain injury

16

What are common side effects of arteriolar vasodilators (hydralazine, minoxidil)?

Reflex tachycardia and edema, due to lower arterial pressure causing baroreceptor stimulation

17

Hypersensitivity to everyday noises results from injury to what?

Paralysis of the stapedius muscle (from injury or facial nerve lesion) will cause hyperacusis.

18

Where does Galactose enter the glycolytic pathway?

G6P

19

Where does Mannose enter the glycolytic pathway?

F6P

20

Where does Fructose enter the glycolytic pathway?

Glyceraldehyde 3P (after PFK-1)

21

An ulcer not in the duodenal bulb (proximal duodenum) suggests what syndrome?

Zollinger Ellison syndrome (caused by gastrin-secreting tumors)

22

Where do gastrinomas arise?

Pancreas mostly

23

Where are PUD ulcers typically found?

Lesser curvature of the stomach or the proximal duodenum (duodenal bulb)

24

What type of gastritis spares the antrum?

Autoimmune (not H pylori)

25

What are the most common clinical manifestations of Vit E def?

Neuromuscular disease (myopathy, ataxia, pigmented retinopathy), hemolytic anemia

26

What drug has a similar structure to pyridoxine (B6)?

INH

27

Resistance and flow is proportional to radius of a vessel to what power?

4th

28

In acute viral hepatitis, what is seen histologically?

Diffuse ballooning degeneration (hepatocyte swelling), mononuclear cell infiltrates, Councilman bodies (eosinophilic apoptotic hepatocytes0

29

What lab findings are usually seen in Klinefelter's?

Elevated gonadotropins (esp FSH) and estradiol, reduced testosterone

30

What is the rate limiting step of the HMP shunt?

Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase

31

What two reactions/enzymes reduce oxidative damage in RBCs?

G6PD and glutathione reductase

32

What drugs are purine analog antimetabolites?

6-Thiopurines
Fludarabine (CLL)
Cladribine (HCL)

33

What drugs are pyrimidine analog antimetabolites?

5-fluorouracil
Capecitabine
Cytarabine
Gemcitabine

34

How does Cladribine achieve high intracellular concentrations? What is it used for?

Resistant to adenosine deaminase. Used for Hairy Cell Leukemia.

35

Where are Major Basic Proteins found?

In eosinophil granules, help defend against parasites

36

What type of colonic polyp can transform into malignant cancer?

Adenomatous polyps, especially VILLOUS (villain!)

37

What are the most common histologic features of Glioblastoma multiforme?

Pseudopalisading necrosis
New vessel formation
Small round cells, bizarre giant cells, mitotic figures

38

Where is Glioblastoma multiforme most often found?

Butterfly distribution in the brain: Frontal and temporal lobes, crossing the midline

39

What is the cell of origin of Glioblastoma multiforme?

Astrocyte

40

Transtentorial (uncal) herniation can compress which nerve?

CN III

41

What are the 3 Ds of Botulinum?

Diplopia, Dysphagia, Dysphonia

42

What is the most common cause of recurrent lobar hemorrhages in an elderly patient?

Cerebral amyloid angiopathy

43

Where are Charcot-Bouchard aneurysms typically found? In what patients?

In the arterioles of the basal ganglia, internal capsule, and deep white matter. In patients with long-standing hypertension

44

What is responsible for the green color of pus and sputum?

Neutrophil myeloperoxidase

45

What are the cardiac anomalies seen in Turner patients?

Bicuspid aortic valve and aortic coarctation

46

When would you see pulsus paradoxus?

Cardiac tamponade

47

When would you see pulsus alternans?

LV dysfunction (beat to beat variation in pulse pressure, with regular rhythm)

48

When would you see a dicrotic pulse?

Severe systolic dysfunction: 2 pulse peaks, one during systole, one during diastole. Best palpated in the carotid.

49

When would you see pulsus parvus et tardus?

Aortic stenosis: a pulse of low magnitude and delayed peak

50

When would you see a hyperkinetic pulse?

Rapid ejection of a large SV: fever or exercise, PDA, AV fistula