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3/31 - UW 37 Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the embryonic source of the anterior pituitary?

A

Surface ectoderm

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2
Q

What organs are derived from the surface ectoderm?

A

Rathke’s pouch (anterior pituitary), lens/cornea, inner ear, nose/mouth, epidermis, sweat/mammary glands

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3
Q

What organs are derived from the neural tube?

A

CNS, posterior pituitary, retina

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4
Q

What organs are derived from the neural crest?

A

Pia/arachnoid mater, ganglions, Schwann cells, aorticopulmonary septum and endocardial cushions, branchial arches, melanocytes, adrenal medulla

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5
Q

What organs are derived from the mesoderm?

A

MSK, CV sys (incl blood and lymphatics), serosal lining, spleen, internal genitalia, kidney/ureters, adrenal cortex

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6
Q

What organs are derived from the endoderm

A

GI tract (incl liver, pancreas), lungs, thymus, para/thyroids, middle ear, bladder/urethra

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7
Q

Caspofungin MOA?

A

Block glucan synthesis, for CELL WALL!!!!

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8
Q

Polyenes? MOA?

A

Amphotericin B, nystatin

BIND (as opposed to azoles) ergosterol, for the cell MEMBRANE

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9
Q

Azoles MOA?

A

Inhibit ergosterol SYNTHESIS, for the cell membrane

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10
Q

What is Caspofungin most effective against?

A

Candida and Aspergillus

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11
Q

What tx for isolated HTN in a nondiabetic can cause peripheral edema and flushing?

A

Amlodipine (CCBs)

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12
Q

What drug can cause blue-gray skin discoloration and corneal micro-deposits?

A

Amiodarone

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13
Q

How do NK cells mediate destruction of cells with decreased or absent MHC I expression?

A
  1. Perforins open membrane holes

2. Granzymes enter through holes to induce apoptosis

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14
Q

What CD # do NK cells express?

A

CD16 or 56

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15
Q

When do Cheyne-Stokes respirations occur?

A

Advanced CHF, stokes, brain tumors, traumatic brain injury

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16
Q

What are common side effects of arteriolar vasodilators (hydralazine, minoxidil)?

A

Reflex tachycardia and edema, due to lower arterial pressure causing baroreceptor stimulation

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17
Q

Hypersensitivity to everyday noises results from injury to what?

A

Paralysis of the stapedius muscle (from injury or facial nerve lesion) will cause hyperacusis.

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18
Q

Where does Galactose enter the glycolytic pathway?

A

G6P

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19
Q

Where does Mannose enter the glycolytic pathway?

A

F6P

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20
Q

Where does Fructose enter the glycolytic pathway?

A

Glyceraldehyde 3P (after PFK-1)

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21
Q

An ulcer not in the duodenal bulb (proximal duodenum) suggests what syndrome?

Study These Flashcards
A

Zollinger Ellison syndrome (caused by gastrin-secreting tumors)

22
Q

Where do gastrinomas arise?

Study These Flashcards
A

Pancreas mostly

23
Q

Where are PUD ulcers typically found?

Study These Flashcards
A

Lesser curvature of the stomach or the proximal duodenum (duodenal bulb)

24
Q

What type of gastritis spares the antrum?

Study These Flashcards
A

Autoimmune (not H pylori)

25
What are the most common clinical manifestations of Vit E def?
Neuromuscular disease (myopathy, ataxia, pigmented retinopathy), hemolytic anemia
26
What drug has a similar structure to pyridoxine (B6)?
INH
27
Resistance and flow is proportional to radius of a vessel to what power?
4th
28
In acute viral hepatitis, what is seen histologically?
Diffuse ballooning degeneration (hepatocyte swelling), mononuclear cell infiltrates, Councilman bodies (eosinophilic apoptotic hepatocytes0
29
What lab findings are usually seen in Klinefelter's?
Elevated gonadotropins (esp FSH) and estradiol, reduced testosterone
30
What is the rate limiting step of the HMP shunt?
Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase
31
What two reactions/enzymes reduce oxidative damage in RBCs?
G6PD and glutathione reductase
32
What drugs are purine analog antimetabolites?
6-Thiopurines Fludarabine (CLL) Cladribine (HCL)
33
What drugs are pyrimidine analog antimetabolites?
5-fluorouracil Capecitabine Cytarabine Gemcitabine
34
How does Cladribine achieve high intracellular concentrations? What is it used for?
Resistant to adenosine deaminase. Used for Hairy Cell Leukemia.
35
Where are Major Basic Proteins found?
In eosinophil granules, help defend against parasites
36
What type of colonic polyp can transform into malignant cancer?
Adenomatous polyps, especially VILLOUS (villain!)
37
What are the most common histologic features of Glioblastoma multiforme?
Pseudopalisading necrosis New vessel formation Small round cells, bizarre giant cells, mitotic figures
38
Where is Glioblastoma multiforme most often found?
Butterfly distribution in the brain: Frontal and temporal lobes, crossing the midline
39
What is the cell of origin of Glioblastoma multiforme?
Astrocyte
40
Transtentorial (uncal) herniation can compress which nerve?
CN III
41
What are the 3 Ds of Botulinum?
Diplopia, Dysphagia, Dysphonia
42
What is the most common cause of recurrent lobar hemorrhages in an elderly patient?
Cerebral amyloid angiopathy
43
Where are Charcot-Bouchard aneurysms typically found? In what patients?
In the arterioles of the basal ganglia, internal capsule, and deep white matter. In patients with long-standing hypertension
44
What is responsible for the green color of pus and sputum?
Neutrophil myeloperoxidase
45
What are the cardiac anomalies seen in Turner patients?
Bicuspid aortic valve and aortic coarctation
46
When would you see pulsus paradoxus?
Cardiac tamponade
47
When would you see pulsus alternans?
LV dysfunction (beat to beat variation in pulse pressure, with regular rhythm)
48
When would you see a dicrotic pulse?
Severe systolic dysfunction: 2 pulse peaks, one during systole, one during diastole. Best palpated in the carotid.
49
When would you see pulsus parvus et tardus?
Aortic stenosis: a pulse of low magnitude and delayed peak
50
When would you see a hyperkinetic pulse?
Rapid ejection of a large SV: fever or exercise, PDA, AV fistula

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