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Flashcards in 3/7 Deck (47):
1

What are the most common sx of a primary HSV infx?

Fever, vesiculoulcerative gingivostomatitis, cervical LAD

2

What are the most common sx of reactivation of a latent HSV infx?

More limited than a primary infx: periorbal blisters aka cold sores

3

What do multinucleated giat cells with intranuclear inclusions suggest?

HSV or VZV

4

Fever, vesiculoulcerative gingivostomatitis, and cervical LAD are suggestive of what infx?

Primary HSV infection (secondary would show perioral cold sores)

5

Where do HSV and VZV reside and reinfect from?

HSV: trigeminal ganglia
VZV: dorsal root ganglia

6

What sx are seen in reactivation of endogenous, latent CMV?

Interstitial pneumonitis, retinitis, hepatitis, colitis, and/or generalized disease

7

What lobe is affect in aspirations while standing? While supine?

Standing: basilar right lower lobe
Supine: posterior right upper lobe or superior right lower lobe

8

What receptors does NE have the most effect on?

Alpha1 and Beta1

9

What adrenergic receptor mediates vasoconstriction? Vasodilation?

Vasoconstriction: Alpha1
Vasodilation: Beta2

10

Phenoxybenzamine MOA?

Non selective, irreversible a1 and a2 receptor antagonist

11

Major use for Phenoxybenzamine?

Pheochromocytoma

12

Labetalol MOA?

Reversible, competitive a1, b1, b2 adrenergic receptor antagonist

13

For what sort of overdose would you give Labetalol?

Sympathomimetic overdose (e.g. cocaine)

14

Phentolamine MOA?

Reversible, competitive, non specific alpha adrenergic antagonist

15

When might you give phentolamine?

Management of catecholamine-induced hypertensive crises (pheochromocytoma, MAOI crisis, cocaine overdose)

16

Propanolol MOA?

nonspecific beta adrenergic antagonist

17

Atropine MOA?

Competitive muscarinic ACh R antagonist

18

What drug is a non selective, irreversible a1, a2 receptor antagonist?

Phenoxybenzamine

19

What drug is a reversible, competitive a1, b1, b2 receptor antagonist?

Labetalol

20

What drug is a reversible, competitive, nonspecific alpha adrenergic antagonist?

Phentolamine

21

What drug is a nonspecific beta adrenergic antagonist?

Propranolol

22

What drug is a competitive muscarinic ACh R antagonist?

Atropine

23

What class is Quinidine?

Class 1A

24

What class is Lidocaine?

Class 1B

25

What class is Flecainide?

Class 1C

26

What class is verapamil?

Class 4

27

What class is Esmolol?

Class 2

28

Does amyloidosis cause restrictive or dilated cardiomyopathy?

Restrictive

29

What are some causes of restrictive cardiomyopathy?

Amyloidosis, sarcoidosis, cancer, inborn metabolic errors

30

Diastolic dysfunction = restrictive or dilated cardiomyopathy?

Restrictive

31

Systolic dysfunction = restrictive or dilated cardiomyopathy?

Dilated

32

What 3 characteristics primarily describes the histology of PSGN?

1. Enlarged, hypercellular glomeruli
2. "Lumpy bumpy" granular deposits of IgG and C3
3. Electron-dense deposits on the epithelial side of the basal membrane

33

Homocystinuria due to cobalamin (B12) deficiency prevents synthesis of what?

Methionine

34

What dopaminergic pathway connects the hypothalamus and the pituitary?

Tuberoinfundibular

35

Classic galactosemia is due to deficiency of what enzyme?

Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase

36

What is the most important E. coli virulence factor?

Fimbriae (aka pili): type 1 fimbriae, P fimbriae (especially for UTI), S fimbriae

For adhesion to epithelial cells and enterocytes

37

What vitamin takes years to deplete?

B12 (cobalamin)

38

Thiazolidinediones (TZD) MOA?

TZDs bind to peroxisome proliferator activating receptor gamma (PPAR-gamma), which regulates expression of adiponectine gene, decreasing insulin resistance

39

Aminoglycosides MOA?

Inhibits bacterial 30S ribosomal subunit

40

What is the typically elevated lab value in Gilbert syndrome?

Elevated unconjugated bilirubin (normal LFT, CBC, smear, retic)

Familiar disorder of bilirubin glucuronidation

41

CYP450 Inducers?

Rifampin, Carbamazepine, Phenobarbital, Phenytoin, Griseofulvin

42

CYP450 Inhibitors?

Cimetidine, Ciprofloxacin, Erythromycin, Azole antifungals, grapefruit juice, Isoniazid, Ritonavir

43

What parts of the spinal cord are affected in B12 deficiency?

Dorsal columns, lateral corticospinal tracts (leading to "subacute combined degeneration")

44

What parts of the spinal cord are affected in syringomyelia?

Central portions including the lateral spinothalamic tracts and anterior horns

45

What parts of the spinal cord are affected in tabes dorsalis? (Neurosyphilis)

Dorsal columns and dorsal roots

46

What parts of the spinal cord are affected in ALS?

Upper and lower motor neuron lesions, lateral corticospinal tracts, anterior horn

47

What parts of the spinal cord are affected in poliomyelitis?

Anterior horns