Flashcards in 4/4 - UW 44 Deck (39):
What type of action tremor commonly improves with a bit of alcohol?
What is the first line treatment for essential tremors?
What are 2 things Benztropine is used for? MOA?
BenzTROPINE (like aTROPTINE) is an anticholinergic, for:
- Parkinson tremor
- EPS of neuroleptics (eg haloperidol)
Most common use for Haloperidol?
Positive sx of psychosis
What benzo is used for treating status epilepticus and anxiety?
What medications might cause a falsely elevated neutrophil count?
Corticosteroids (due to "demargination" of neutrophils attached to the vascular wall)
What IFNs are released by cells in response to viral infection?
Type I IFNs (alpha and beta)
What do Type I alpha and beta IFN do?
Suppress viral replication and induce apoptosis of neighboring infected cells
Under what circumstances do RNaseL and PKR degrade mRNA and inhibit translation initiation?
In the presence of dsRNA (which only comes from viruses!)
What syndrome is characterized by hemolytic anemia, hypercoagulability, and pancytopenia?
Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH, which is neither paroxysmal nor nocturnal)
What gene mutation causes PNH?
PIGA mutation within a clonal population of hematopoietic stem cells
What syndrome is caused by a mutation affecting the synthesis of GPI anchor?
PNH, with a mutation in the PIGA gene.
What type of brain neoplasm is associated with Psammoma bodies?
What are 3 examples of neoplasms what for psammoma bodies?
- Papillary thyroid carcinoma
- Papillary ovarian adenocarcinoma
What gives elastin its elasticity?
Un-hydroxylated proline and lysine are able to covalently bond to fibrillin in the extracellular space, forming crosslinks
What enveloped viruses acquire the lipid bilayer of the host cell NUCLEAR membrane?
Herpesviruses (including CMV)
What type of breast cancer is Comedocarcinoma a subset of?
Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)
What breast cancer is seen histologically as solid sheets of pleomorphic, high grade cells with central necrosis?
What glycogen storage disease presents as exercise intolerance, myoglobinuria, and muscle pain with activity?
McArdle's syndrome (myophosphorylase deficiency: unable to breakdown muscle glycogen to G1P)
What congenital defect is suggested by a "differential cyanosis"?
PDA, where the R to L shunt occurs after the L subclavian artery branches off the Aorta.
Hepatomegaly and increased LFTs 2d-4w post-op typically indicates what?
What causes microvesicular fatty change? Macro?
Micro: Reye syndrome
What enzyme is deficienct in Acute Intermittent Prophyria (AIP)?
Prophobilinogen deaminase deficiency
In what disorder do you get reddish urine that darkens on exposure to light and air? Why?
Acute Intermittent Prophyria (AIP), because the PBG substrate (built up from deficiency of PBG deaminase) oxidizes.
How to treat Acute Intermittent Porphyria?
Prevent formation of PBG by inhibiting ALAS (upregulated by P450 inducers, downregulated by HEME and GLUCOSE)
What is "chloride shift"?
Chloride diffuse INTO RBCs in exchange for bicarb ions that OUT.
What is the most prominent ADR of Cisplatin?
Nephrotoxicity (acute tubular injury iwth mild renal insufficiency)
How does Cisplatin exert its chemotherapeutic effect?
It is a Platinum-containing compound that forms a reactive oxygen species which forms DNA crosslinks
What is amifostine?
A thiol-based cytoprotective free-radical scavenging agent, to prevent nephrotoxicity from platinum-containing agents (like cisplatin)
When might you use NAC for renal protection?
Prevent radiocontrast-induced nephropathy from IV contrast CT scans, in patients with renal insufficiency.
When might you use Fomepizole?
Methanol or ethylene glycol poisoning (competitive antagonist to alcohol dehydrogenase)
What is the most cytokine important mediator of sepsis?
Rupture of Charcot-Bouchard aneurysms cause what?
Intracerebral hemorrhage, NOT SAH
Which variant of AML is associated with t(15;17)?
What gene product is produced by t(15;17)? (Like BCR-ABL is produced by t(9;22)
What is the malfunctioning protein seen in AML?
Retinoic acid receptor alpha
Mutations of genes that code for epidermal growth factor (EGF) receptors are associated with what neoplasms?
Non-small cell lung carcinoma (erbB1)
Breast cancer (erbB2, ie HER2/neu)
Some ovarian and gastric tumors
Defective platelet derived growth factor (PDGF) plays a role in what neoplasm?
Chronic Myelomonocytic Leukemia