3/3 Flashcards

(56 cards)

1
Q

Why does SIADH present with euvolemic hyponatremia?

A

The excess ADH leads to water reabsorption, leads to RAAS activation, leads to natriuresis, leading to normalized volume with low sodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

In assessing viral HBV infection, what viral process does HBeAg indicate?

A

HBeAg = viral replication, increased infectivity

Indicates increased risk of neonatal infx if seen in mother

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

In homocystinuria, what AA becomes essential?

A

Cysteine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are common sx of homocystinuria?

A
Hypercoagulability
Premature atherosclerosis
Ectopia lentis (displacement of ocular lens)
Osteoporosis
Mental retardation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Warfarin MoA?

A

Inhibits vit K dependent carboxylation of glutamic acid residues in factors 1972CS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

CGD patients are susceptible to infection by what type of bugs?

A

Bacterial and fungal infections that are CATALASE POSITIVE

Staph. aureaus, Burholderia cepacia, Serratia marcescens, Nocardia, Aspergillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are some common catalase positive bugs?

A

Staph aureus, burkholderia cepacia, Serratia marscencens, Nocardial, Aspergillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Tx for trichomonas vaginitis and bacterial vaginosis (Gardnerella)?

A

Metronidazole

Disulfram-like rxn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Tx for chlamydial urethritis?

A

Doxycycline or azithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Tx for candida vaginitis?

A

Fluconazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Niacin (vit B3) MoA in treating hyperlipidemia?

A

Decreasing synthesis of TG and VLDL

Also increases HDL by 25-30%, best one!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Prominent side effect of niacin?

A

Flushing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Bile acid binding resins effect on TG?

A

Increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Ezetimibe MoA?

A

Decrease intestinal absorption of cholesterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What drug reduces tobacco withdrawal cravings and attenuates rewarding effects of nicotine?

A

Varenicline

Partial agonist of nicotinic ACh-Rs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Selective COX2 inhibitor?

A

Celecoxib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Celecoxib MoA?

A

Selective COX2 inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When is celecoxib (selective COX2 inhibitor) useful?

A

To avoid platelet aggregation impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Diphenoxylate MoA?

A

Binds to mu opiate receptors to slow GI motility

Opiate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What to give for secretory diarrhea?

A

Octreotide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What nerve for foot dorseiflexion? Plantar flexion?

A

Dorsiflexion: Common peroneal

Plantar flexion: Tibial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Incomplete obliteration of the processus vaginalis can lead to what two similar pathologies?

A

Hydrocele (small opening remains)

Indirect inguinal hernia (large opening remains)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the single most important risk factor in development of intimal tears leading to aortic dissection?

24
Q

What congenital disease is associated with aortic dissection?

A

Marfan syndrome (esp in younger pts)

25
The most common cause of death from TCAs?
Arrhythmias from inhibition of Na channel conduction
26
Rule of 2s for Meckel's diverticulum?
``` 2% of population 2 feet from ileocecal valve 2 inches in length 2% are symptomatic 2 times as likely in males ```
27
Wernicke's syndrome triad?
Opthalmoplegia, ataxia, confusion
28
In Wernicke's syndrome, where do you find hemorrhage and necrosis in the brain?
Mamillary bodies and periaqueductal gray matter
29
What causes Wernicke's syndrome?
Chronic thiamine (B1) deficiency
30
Thiamine (B1) is a cofactor for which enzymes?
1. Pyruvate dehydrogenase 2. alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase 3. Transketolase
31
Ankylosing spondylitis is a chronic inflammatory disorder of what?
Sacroiliac joints and axial skeleton
32
"Bamboo spine" on xray describes what disease?
Ankylosing spondylitis
33
What are the seronegative (lacking serum rheumatoid factor) spondyloarthropathies?
Ankylosing spondylitis Reactive arthritis IBD associated arthritis Psoriatic arthritis (Associated with HLA B27)
34
The portal triad that runs through the hepatoduodenal ligament contains what vessels?
Hepatic artery Portal vein Common bile duct
35
Where are S cells (secretin releasing) located?
Duodenum
36
Secretin causes release of bicarb from what organ?
Exocrine pancreas
37
Pancreatic juice normally has the same [Na] and [K] as plasma. Is the [HCO3] and [Cl] higher or lower? How do they change with flow rate?
[HCO3] is higher than plasma, and goes higher with higher flow rate. [Cl] is lower than plasma and goes lower with higher flow rate.
38
Digoxin MoA
Inhibits Na/K pump, increases intracellular [Na], reducing Ca efflux, increasing intracellular [Ca] This decreases conductivity through AV node and increases contractility of myocyte
39
Familial chylomicronemia is an AR condition cause by deficiency of what enzyme? What is the common presenting disease?
Lipoprotein lipase deficiency, presenting in childhood with recurrent acute pancreatitis
40
Which virus, HBV or HCV, persists in the host genome to continue risk of HCC?
HBV, a DNA virus, injects into host chromosome, allowing transcription of HBx protein. HBx inactivates p53.
41
Systolic crescendo decrescendo murmur
Aortic stenosis
42
Malaria tx?
Chloroquine if sensitive, mefloquine if chloroquine -resistant
43
Pantothenic acid (coenzyme A) is particularly important for which step of the TCA?
First step: oxaloacetate to citrate
44
Multiple ring-enhancing lesions on contrast MRI in an HIV pt points to what bug?
Toxoplasmosis
45
Aplastic anemia pathogenesis?
BM failure due to deficiency in CD34 hematopoietic stem cells
46
Causes of aplastic anemia?
Autoimmune Infections (parvovirus B19, EBV) Drugs (carbamazepine, chloramphenicol, sulfonamides) Radiation/toxins (benzene, solvents)
47
PABA blocks what type of UV rays?
UVB (the Bad one)
48
What drug gives red/orange discoloration to secretions (urine, breast milk, tears)?
Rifampin 'rifAMPin AMPlifies' CYP450 Used for Neisseria meningitidis prophylaxis
49
What is the precursor for serotonin?
Tryptophan
50
What is tyrosine the precursor for?
Dopamine, NE, Epi, melanin, thyroxine
51
What is the antidote for serotonin syndrome?
Cyproheptadine, first gen histamine antagonist with nonspecific 5HT-R anatgonism
52
Slowly growing jaw mass in setting of oral trauma, that drains yellow pus through the skin = what bug?
Actinomyces Normal gram+ oral flora Tx: penicillin and debridement
53
Borrelia burgdorferi causes what disease?
Lyme disease
54
Pasteurella multocida is associated with what type of injury?
Animal (usually cat) bites
55
What is the disease and cutaneous lesion associated with Rickettsia?
Rocky Mtn Spotted Fever, with palmoplantar erythematous macules that migrate centrally
56
What 2 drugs are given to diabetics to decrease progression of diabetic nephropathy?
ACE-I and ARB | Lisinopril