4/5 - UW 48 Flashcards

1
Q

How is influenza infx PREVENTED?

A

Ab against hemagglutinin

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2
Q

What pancreatic cells secrete somatostatin?

A

delta cells

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3
Q

Since somatostatin decreases release of both glucagon and insulin, is the result a hypo or hyperglycemia?

A

Somatostatin INHIBITION of INSULIN > glucagon, so hyperglycemia results

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4
Q

What enzyme stimulates gallbladder emptying?

A

CCK

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5
Q

What enzyme stimulates release of pancreatic bicarb?

A

Secretin

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6
Q

What neoplasms are associated with type B (antral) gastritis?

A

Gastric adenocarcinoma

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7
Q

Attempted ligation of what artery could result in damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve?

A

Inferior thyroid artery

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8
Q

What nerve courses with the superior thyroid artery? Inferior?

A

Superior: external laryngeal nerve
Inferior: recurrent laryngeal nerve

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9
Q

Accumulation of sphingomyelin in splenic cells is seen in what disease?

A

Niemann-Pick

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10
Q

Accumulation of glucocerebrosides in splenic cells is seen in what disease?

A

Gaucher

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11
Q

Which type of muscle fiber is slow twitch? Fast?

A

Slow: type I
Fast: type II

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12
Q

What is the difference between type IIa and IIb muscle fibers?

A

IIa: ATP via aerobic metabolism, but still fast twitch
IIb: ATP via glycolysis, also fast twitch

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13
Q

What hormone is produced by the supraoptic nuclei?

A

ADH

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14
Q

What hormone is produced by the paraventricular nuclei?

A

Oxytocin

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15
Q

Where is ADH is produced?

A

Supraoptic nuclei in the hypothalamus, secreted by the posterior pituitary

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16
Q

Where is oxytocin produced?

A

Paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus

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17
Q

Which hypothalamic nuclei HEAT you up, and which ones COOL you down?

A

HEAT: POSTERIOR nuclei regulate heat conservation and production

COLD: ANTERIOR nuclei regulate vasodilation and sweating

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18
Q

What virus causes acute gingivostomatitis?

A

HSV-1

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19
Q

What is the preferred medication for treating gestational DM?

A

Insulin (NOT metformin)

20
Q

Which HBV antibody is present during the “window period”?

A

Anti-HBc IgM

Window period = both HBsAg and anti-HBs are absent

21
Q

A lung hamartoma is also called what?

A

Pulmonary chondroma

22
Q

What is a hamartoma?

A

Excessive growth of a tissue type that is NATIVE to the organ

23
Q

What tissues types are in lung hamartomas?

A

Hyaline cartilage, fat, smooth muscle, respiratory epithelium

24
Q

What is suggested by a solitary “coin lesion” in the peripheral lung?

A

Hamartoma, benign and generally asymptomatic

25
What does a "Sister Mary Joseph" nodule indicate?
Metastatic gastric carcinoma
26
What coagulation factors are contained in cryoprecipitate?
``` Cold soluble proteins: Factor VIII Fibrinogen vWF Vitronectin ```
27
What do you call RBC extravasation into the skin or subq tissue of the following sizes: 1cm
1cm: ecchymoses These do NOT blanch because the RBCs are extravascular
28
What are lentigos?
Age spots
29
What are telangiectasias?
small, focal, permanent dilations of superficial capillaries and venules. They do blanch.
30
Persistent deficit to memory and learning (Korsakoff syndrome) after treatment of thiamine deficiency is due to damage to which nuclei?
Anterior and Dorsomedial thalamic nuclei "Confabulation" is present
31
Wernicke Korsakoff syndrome is from deficiency of what vitamin?
Thiamine (B1)
32
What cells have BRAF?
Melanocytes
33
What is the mutation seen in many melanomas?
BRAF V600E mutation
34
What does Vemurafenib inhibit?
Mutated BRAF (protein kinase) in melanocytes
35
What are the 3 terms that refer to the lack of upper vagina development (short vagina) with variable uterine development?
Vaginal agenesis Mullerian aplasia Mayer-Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser (MRKH) syndrome
36
What parts of the female sexual anatomy comes from the Mullerian ducts?
Fallopian tubes to the upper vagina | NOT the ovaries, or lower vagina
37
Rupture of the middle meningeal artery causes what type of hemorrhage?
Epidural (arterial, more pressure, more sudden; lucid interval)
38
Rupture of what vessels can cause a subdural hematoma?
Bridging cortical veins (slow bleed, insidious onset)
39
What is a PrP?
Prion Protein, as in Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
40
What type of transformation is seen in the gray matter in Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease?
Spongiform change in the gray matter due to prion accumulation
41
What is Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome?
Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia, presenting with recurrent severe epistaxis and telangiectasias of the skin and mucosa
42
What is Von Recklinghausen's disease?
NF1 (peripheral nervous system tumor presenting with neurofibromas, optic nerve gliomas, Lisch nodules, and cafe au lait spots)
43
What do patients with NF2 present with?
Bilateral CN VIII schwannomas and multiple meningiomas
44
Schwannomas and meningiomas in a patient probably means they have what disease?
NF2
45
Skull radiographs showing "tram-track" calcifications is characteristic of what syndrome?
Sturge-Weber syndrome (encephalotrigeminal angiomatosis)
46
What is the clinical presentation of the "maintenance" phase of ATN?
(24-36 hrs after initiation phase) 1. increased ECF: edema, pulm congestion 2. HyperK (peaked T waves when K is >6) 3. High AGMA 4. HypO: Na, Ca 5. HypER: phosphate, Mg 6. Muddy brown casts!!!!!
47
What is the clinical presentation of the "recovery" phase of ATN?
(1-2 weeks after onset) Extreme polyuria HypO: K, Ca, Mg, PO4