4/3 - UW 42 Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in 4/3 - UW 42 Deck (51):
1

What is congenital torticolis?

SCM injury and fibrosis by 2-4 weeks of age, due to either in utero malpositioning (from macrosomia or oligohydramnios) or birth trauma

2

What maternal pathology can cause asymmetric intrauterine growth restriction (normal head size, reduced abd circ)?

Maternal HTN

3

What molecules act by tyrosine kinase activating receptors?

Insulin
Growth factors (EGF, TGF-b, VEGF)

4

What is the host defense reaction against mycobacteria?

Mycobacteria are intra-macrophage; Macrophages release IL-12, stimulating Th1 and NK cells to release IFN-y, which activates JAK-STAT in the macrophage

5

What mediates chronic renal allograft rejection?

Low grade cellular and humoral immune responses against alloantigens

6

Poor intestinal absorption of cystine suggests what other pathology?

Cystine excretion in feces and urine (along with ornithine, lysine, and arginine; all dibasic AAs).

7

What AA insolubility causes kidney stones?

Cystine

8

Which catecholamine is primarily produced in the adrenals?

Epinephrine

9

What is another name for dihydroxyphenylalanine?

Dopa, produced by tyrosine hydroxylase

10

What enzyme converts dopa to dopamine?

Dopa decarboxylase

11

What enzyme converts dopamine to NE?

dopamine beta-hydroxylase

12

What enzyme converts NE to epinephrine?

PNMT

13

What hormone increases PNMT expression?

Cortisol (which is very high in the venous drainage of adrenal cortex, which travels through adrenal medulla to stimulate Epi synthesis)

14

What disease is the result of valine substituting for glutamic acid?

Sickle cell, at 6th codon of beta globulin

15

What disease is the result of a phenylalanine deletion (deltaF508)?

CF

16

What mediates phase 4 in cardiac pacemaker cells?

Na channels, but then Ca channels towards the end, which is how CCB can slow heart rate

17

What intracellular and extracellular K levels are seen in DKA?

Intracellular: decreased
Extracellular: increased

18

How does insulin affect K movement?

Insulin causes cellular uptake of K

19

How does estrogen affect thyroid hormone levels?

Increases in total T4, with normal thyroid function

20

Why does total T4 increase with estrogen?

Estrogen decreases catabolism of TBG

21

What therapy would reduce recurrence of genital herpes?

Daily oral "-cyclovir"

22

What do you give lamivudine for?

HIV, NRTI

23

What are probenecid and allopurinol used for?

CHRONIC FUCKING GOUT YOU MOTHERFUCKER

24

What you do you give for ACUTE gout???

NSAIDs or COLCHICINE

25

Colchincine MOA?

Binds intracellular protein tubulin, preventing polymerization into microtubules, impairing leukocyte migration and phagocytosis, reducing inflammation in gouty arthritis.

26

What gout medication causes diarrhea?

Colchicine

27

Why don't you give probenecid or allopurinol for acute gout?

They can precipitate release of stored uric acid

28

What hepatitis virus is HEV similar to?

HAV (unenveloped, ssRNA, fecal-oral)

29

Damage to what part of the spinal cord mediates the muscular effects of poliovirus?

Damage to anterior horn lower motor neuron cell bodies

30

What can actinic keratoses progress to?

Squamous cell carcinoma

31

RUQ pain after mu opioid use indicates what?

Biliary colic due to contraction of smooth muscle cells in the sphincter of Oddi

32

What is the opioid of choice for biliary and pancreatic pain?

Meperidine, due to less constriction of sphincter of Oddi

33

Where are mu opioid metabolized?

Liver

34

How do mu opioids mediate vasodilation?

Histamine release, also causing itching

35

What bowel symptoms do mu opioids usually cause?

Constimpation by slowing gut motility

36

What is mu opioid effect on parietal cells?

Decrease acid secretion

37

What symptom can you see with combined aminoglycosides and loop diuretics?

Ototoxicity

38

What are 1st gen antihistamines?

Hydroxyzin, promethazine, chlorpheniramine, diphenhydramine

39

What are the major side effects of 1st gen antihistamines?

Anti-muscarinic, -serotonergic (appetite stimulation), -alpha adrenergic (postural dizziness), can cross BBB (sedation, cognitive deficits)

40

What generation antihistamine is fexofenadine?

Second (less antimuscarinic, antiserotonergic, antialpha adrenergic properties)

41

What type of anterior mediastinal mass do patients with Myasthenia Gravis present with?

Thymoma or Thymic hyperplasia

42

What structures are derived from the 3rd pharyngeal pouch?

Thymus
Inferior parathyroid glands

43

What is the purpose of Edrophonium (Tensilon test) in myasthenia gravis?

A short acting AChE-I that can test if more AChE-I is needed normally

44

What are the most common side effects of verapamil?

Constipation and gingival hyperplasia (more rarely: bradycardia, heart block)

45

What is VHL?

AD mutation on chromosome 3 characterized by:
- capillary hemagioblastomas in retina/cerebellum
- congenital cysts/neoplasms in kidney, liver, pancreas

46

What is Von Recklinghausen's disease?

NF-1: PERIPHERAL nervous system tumors (neurofibromas, optic nerve gliomas, Lisch nodules in the iris, cafe au lait spots)

47

What is NF-2?

AD, CENTRAL nervous system tumors: bilateral CN VIII schwannomas, multiple meningiomas

48

What is tuberous sclerosis?

AD, CNS hamartomas, kidney/liver/pancreatic cysts, cutaneous angiofibromas. SEIZURES!

49

What is Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome?

Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia, AD, rupture of telangiectasias may cause epistaxis, GI bleeding, or hematuria

50

What is the skin lesion in tertiary syphilis called?

Gumma

51

What stage of syphilis has a chancre?

Primary